Gunner Summerall

Home > Preview

The flashcards below were created by user coop4rilla on FreezingBlue Flashcards.


  1. What air-launched, conventional free fall weapon is used against armored vehicles, light materiel, and personnel targets?
    MK-20/CBU-99/CBU-100 Rockeye Anti-Tank Cluster Bomb
  2. What bomb dispenser is used with the MK-20 Rockeye Cluster Bomb Unit (CBU)?
    MK-7 bomb dispenser
  3. What color are the warning labels on cluster bomb dispensers?
    White/black writing or gray/black writing
  4. While inspecting a MK-20 CBU, you discover that the red indicator in the fuze has pierced the green foil and is extended into the plastic bubble. What is the condition of the fuze?
    Armed
  5. What colors are used on the MK-20 Rockeye Cluster Bomb?
    White dispenser body, yellow stripes around nose, red nose cover
  6. A MK-20 dispenser case is color coded in what manner?
    A white body with yellow bands
  7. You should not pull the aft arming wire on a MK-20 CBU for what reason?
    Spring loaded fins can cause personal injury
  8. What is the weight of the MK-20 Rockeye Cluster Bomb?
    490 lbs
  9. What type and how many bomblets are contained in the MK-20 Rockeye Cluster Bomb?
    247 MK-118 Anti-Tank bomblets
  10. What Cluster Bomb Unit (CBU) has 45 BLU-91s or 15 BLU-92s?
    CBU-78 Gator
  11. The CBU-78 Gator weapon is delivered from the factory with what fuze installed?
    MK-339 Mod 1 or FMU-140 depending on the version
  12. What conventional freefall, folding fin, airburst weapon is designed to provide quick-strike, anti-armor, and anti-personnel mine emplacement through aerial delivery?
    CBU-78 Dispenser and Mine Aircraft Weapon (Gator)
  13. What type and how many bomblets are contained in the CBU-78 Gator?
    • 45 BLU-91 Anti-Tank/Anti-Vehicle (AT/AV) with armor piercing warhead
    • 15 BLU-92 Anti-Personnel (AP) with fragment type warhead
  14. What is the weight of the CBU-59 Anti-Personnel Anti-Material (APAM) Cluster Bomb?
    750lbs
  15. What type and how many bomblets are contained in the CBU-59 APAM?
    717 BLU-77/A
  16. What is the identifying feature of the CBU-59 APAM?
    Lightning bolt on the side of the dispenser
  17. What type of fuze is used in a MK-20 Rockeye cluster bomb?
    A mechanical time fuze (MK-339)
  18. What fuze is used with the MK-20 and CBU-59 Cluster Bombs?
    MK-339 Mods 0 and Mods 1 or the FMU-140
  19. What fuze is used in the CBU-20?
    MK-339 Mechanical Time Fuze or FMU-140 Dispenser Proximity Fuze
  20. What type of fuze is used in a Rockeye II?
    FMU-140 Dispenser Proximity Fuze (DPF)
  21. What is the purpose of the linear shaped charges secured longitudinally inside the walls of the MK-7 dispenser?
    Cuts the dispenser in half, from front to rear to spread the bomblets in a freefall trajectory
  22. The CNU-208/E has how many view ports?
    3
  23. What container should be used to ship or store one fully assembled MK-20 or CBU-59 Cluster Bomb?
    MK-427
  24. The Navy has what type of sub-caliber practice bomb types?
    45 BLU-91 Anti-Tank/Anti-Vehicle (AT/AV) with armor piercing warhead 15 BLU-92 Anti-Personnel (AP) with fragment type warhead
  25. MK-76, BDU-33, BDU-48/B, and MK-106 Of the following, MK-106 Mod 5, BDU-48/B, BDU-33D/B, and BDU-45/B, which is not a sub-caliber practice bomb?
    BDU-45/B
  26. What is the primary purpose of practice bombs?
    Safety when training new or inexperienced pilots and ground-handling crew
  27. What practice bomb is used to simulate tactical laser guided bombs?
    Laser Guided Training Round (LGTR)
  28. Of the following types of signal cartridges - MK-2, MK-4, CXU-6, and CXU-3, which is used with practice bombs primarily for day operations?
    CXU-3
  29. Of the following cartridges - MK-1, MK-2, MK-3, and MK-4, which is used in a MK-76 practice bomb?
    Mk-4
  30. What cartridge is used in practice bombs during daytime operations?
    CXU-3
  31. What is the normal display emitted from a MK-4 Mod 3 practice bomb cartridge?
    Yellow flash and white smoke
  32. What cartridge is used in practice bombs during night time operations?
    MK-4
  33. The CNU-208/E has how many view ports?
    3
  34. What container should be used to ship or store one fully assembled MK-20 or CBU-59 Cluster Bomb?
    MK-427
  35. The Navy has what type of sub-caliber practice bomb types?
    MK-76, BDU-33, BDU-48/B, and MK-106
  36. Of the following, MK-106 Mod 5, BDU-48/B, BDU-33D/B, and BDU-45/B, which is not a sub-caliber practice bomb?
    BDU-45/B
  37. What is the primary purpose of practice bombs?
    Safety when training new or inexperienced pilots and ground-handling crew
  38. What practice bomb is used to simulate tactical laser guided bombs?
    Laser Guided Training Round (LGTR)
  39. Of the following types of signal cartridges - MK-2, MK-4, CXU-6, and CXU-3, which is used with practice bombs primarily for day operations?
    CXU-3
  40. Of the following cartridges - MK-1, MK-2, MK-3, and MK-4, which is used in a MK-76 practice bomb?
    MK-4
  41. What cartridge is used in practice bombs during daytime operations?
    CXU-3
  42. What is the normal display emitted from a MK-4 Mod 3 practice bomb cartridge?
    Yellow flash and white smoke
  43. What cartridge is used in practice bombs during night time operations?
    MK-4
  44. Of the following signal cartridges – CCU-44/B, MK-4, MK-23, and CXU-3A/B, which is used primarily for daytime missions with practice bombs?
    CXU-3A
  45. What practice bomb has a single retractable lug?
    MK-106 and BDU-48
  46. What holds the firing device in the blast tube of the MK-106?
    Cotter pin
  47. What is the designation of the lug used in the MK-76?
    MK-14
  48. The Navy has what type of sub-caliber practice bomb?
    MK-76, MK-106, BDU-33, and BDU-48/B
  49. What practice bomb is used to simulate tactical laser guided bombs? R)
    Laser Guided Training Round (LGTR)
  50. Of the following types of ammunition drill, practice, exercise, and service, which contains explosive material and is/are intended for operational training?
    Practice
  51. Of the following types of ammunition - drill, exercise, practice, and service, contain explosive material used and is/are intended for combat use?
    Service
  52. What are the two basic classes of fuzes?
    Mechanical and electrical
  53. Define functioning time?
    The time required for a fuze to detonate after impact or a preset time
  54. Define detonator safe?
    Fuzes that do not have the elements of their firing train in the proper position for firing until the fuze is fully armed
  55. What adapter booster is used with a mechanical nose fuze on a MK-80 series bomb?
    M148E1
  56. You are conducting a fuze inspection and see a green background with the numbers 6 and 18 on both settings of an M904E4 fuze. What arming condition is indicated?
    Safe
  57. What total number of functioning delays are available in a M904 (series) fuze?
    6
  58. On bomb fuzes the term “detonator safe” has what meaning?
    The elements of the firing train are out of line
  59. What component determines the functioning time of an M904E4 fuze?
    The installed delay element
  60. You can establish the functioning time of an M904E4 bomb fuze by taking what action?
    Installing the desired delay element before the fuze is installed in the bomb
  61. What explosive is used in the booster of an M904 series fuze?
    Tetyrl
  62. What fuze was designed for use with thermally protected bombs?
    M904E4
  63. What are the settings on the M904 fuze?
    2 to 18 seconds in 2 second increments
  64. The arming delay for the M904E4 fuze has (a) what time setting range and (b) in what time increments?
    • (a) 2 to 18 sec
    • (b) 2 sec
  65. How many different functioning delay times are available for the M-9 delay element?
    Six delay times
  66. The M904 fuze is shipped with what delay element installed?
    0.00 second non-delay (Instantaneous) or 0.025 second
  67. What will happen to the bomb if the M-9 delay element is not installed?
    The bomb may dud
  68. Why do personnel have to be especially careful when handling the M-9 delay element?
    It is percussion initiated
  69. If the indication in the lower window on the M904 is vacant or dark in color the fuze is in what condition?
    Safe
  70. The M904 has what total number of observation windows to determine the safe/armed condition?
    Two (2)
  71. On the M904 fuze if a white stripe is visible at any other setting than 6 or 18 seconds what does this mean?
    Partially armed
  72. If a green background without the number 6 or 18 appears in the upper window when the arming delay is set on 6 or 18, or if the number in the upper window does not match the arming delay setting, the fuze is considered?
    Partially armed
  73. On the M904 fuze, when the set screw is removed and the 2 and 4 second arming times are selected what type of weapon must be used?
    Retarded - high drag fin - MK-15 or BSU-86 for 500 lb or BSU-85 for 1,000 lb bombs
  74. What is the purpose of the second arming wire when used on the M904 fuze with retarded - high drag fin?
    Prevents fuze arming in the event that the fin does not open
  75. What is the only bomb proximity fuze in the current Navy inventory?
    FMU-140 Dispenser Proximity Fuze (DPF)
  76. What fuze(s) come(s) installed in the weapon and does not require assembly or setting?
    MK-339 and FMU-140 in MK-20 and CBU-78/99/100 series Rockeye CBUs
  77. The CBU-78/B gator weapon is delivered from the factory with what fuze installed?
    MK-339 Mod 1 or FMU-140
  78. The MK-122 Mod 0 arming safety switch must be installed in what type of environment?
    RADHAZ free
  79. What is done if during weapons loading the MK-122 safe arm device lanyard is pulled out?
    Reject weapon so the entire MK-122 arming safety switch can be discarded
  80. What adapter booster is used with the MK-344 electrical tail fuze?
    None
  81. What is used to install electrical tail fuzes?
    Spanner wrench
  82. What arming wire is used with the MK-344/376 electrical tail fuze?
    MK-3 stainless steel
  83. Which electrical tail fuze is restricted to unretarded delivery only?
    MK-344 Mod 0 and 1
  84. Once MK-344 or MK-376 electrical tail fuzes have been removed from their packaging they must be used within how many days?
    180 days
  85. What is to be done if during weapons assembly the pop out pin on the MK-344 or MK-376 electrical tail fuze accidentally pops out?
    Push the pin back in until the two holes align and reinstall the safety pin
  86. Charging of an electrical fuze normally occurs after?
    The weapon is released from the aircraft
  87. For proximity functioning of the fuze, an electrically fuzed MK-83 bomb has what device installed in the nose?
    Sensing element
  88. Electrical fuzes are installed in what location in MK-80 series bomb?
    Tail
  89. What color is the nose cone of a MK-43 TDD?
    Green
  90. The MK-43 TDD is installed in a low drag bomb with an electric fuze for which of the following reasons?
    To provide detonation by proximity influence
  91. What VT element gives airburst capability to electrically fuzed MK-80 series bombs?
    MK-43
  92. If in-flight the option wire is pulled on the MK-339 fuze, what mode/setting is the fuze committed?
    Option
  93. What are the functioning delay settings for the MK-346 Mechanical Tail Fuze?
    30 minutes to 33 hours in 15 minute increments
  94. What fuze is used in the MK-115 Mod 0 Helicopter Trap Weapon?
    MK-374
  95. What type of fuze is used in a MK-20 Rockeye cluster bomb?
    Mechanical-time fuze
  96. What are the primary and option time settings on the MK-339 Mod 0 and 1 fuze?
    1.2 primary and 4.0 option
  97. What type of fuze comes installed in the CBU-59 APAM?
    MK-339 Mod 0 and 1
  98. How can you tell if first stage arming has occurred in the MK-346 fuze?
    Red band covering all or part of the safe-arm observation window on the body of the fuze
  99. When does second stage arming occur in the MK-346 fuze?
    First stage arming has completed before impact, and impact is sufficient to initiate second stage arming
  100. When is the anti-removal cam released?
    When the arming shaft moves forward at impact to initiate the timer mechanism
  101. If a hung weapon returns and you notice that the MK-346 tail fuze is hard to remove, what may have happened?
    Second stage arming may have occurred
  102. What color is the MK-43 target detecting device?
    The MK-43
  103. Target Detecting Device (TDD) must be used with what?
    MK-122 arming safety switch and electrical tail fuze
  104. Before removing the safety clip, what item must be installed in the MK-43 TDD?
    The arming wire
  105. What fuze is restricted for use in inert bomb bodies?
    MK-376 electrical tail fuze
  106. When building electrically fuzed MK-82 bombs, what type of arming wire should you use with an electrical tail fuze?
    MK-3
  107. At what point is an electric bomb fuze energized by an electrical charge?
    After rack release, but while still connected electrically
  108. Electric fuzes should be installed in the MK-80 series bombs at what point in the assembly process and at what location?
    Before the bomb leaves the assembly area below deck
  109. What type of pattern does the MK-43 VT element produce?
    Right angles to the longitudinal axis of the weapon
  110. How much voltage is needed to initiate the MK-43 TDD when used with a MK-344 electrical tail fuze?
    +300 volts DC
  111. What fuze has a firing train that remains in line at all times?
    AN/M173A1
  112. Why must caution be used when handling the AN/M173A1 fuze?
    Because the firing train is aligned at all times
  113. When is the firing train considered aligned in the AN/M173A1 fuze?
    At all times
  114. What initiator has uses a turbine generator to supply voltage to arm the FMU-143 electrical tail fuze?
    FZU-32
  115. What initiator uses a turbine alternator to generate power used for arming the FMU-139 fuze?
    F
  116. What fuzing system is used exclusively with BLU-109 or BLU-116 bomb bodies to assemble a GBU-24?
    FMU-143 Electronic tail fuze with FZU-32 Initiator
  117. What are the available arming times and functioning delay settings on the FMU-139 electrical tail fuze?
    Low drag arming: X, 4, 6, 7, 10, 14 and 20 seconds High drag arm (seconds)/delay (mili-seconds): 2.6/Inst, 2.6/10, 2.6/25 and 2.6/60
  118. What is the shelf life of the FMU-139 electrical tail fuze?
    10 years for the FMU-139A/B 20 years for the FMU-139B/B from the original manufacture date as indicated in the "modified from" block not the "lot no." block on the identification plate
  119. For component information on rockets refer to what manual?
    NAVAIR 11-75A-92 (Old) NAVAIR 11-85-5
  120. List the three components of a rocket?
    Motor, warhead, and fuze
  121. What hazard class is a rocket warhead?
    1.1 - Class 1, Division 1 - Mass detonating
  122. Fully assembled rockets with live warheads and fuzes are what classification of explosive?
    Class A
  123. When a rocket does not fire when the firing circuit is energized, this is known as?
    Misfire
  124. How are rocket propellants classified?
    Single base, double base and composite (As smokeless powders)
  125. What is the purpose of the igniter?
    Heats the propellant grain to ignition temperature
  126. What controls/restricts the burning speed of a propellant in a rocket motor?
    Inhibitors
  127. Define thrust?
    The force exerted by the gases produced by the burning of the rocket motor propellant
  128. What is the purpose of the venturi-type nozzle on rocket motors?
    Decreases the turbulence of escaping gases and increases the thrust
  129. Gas pressure inside the rocket motor container provides about what percent of the force necessary to move the rocket forward?
    70%
  130. What type of smokeless powder is used as rocket propellant?
    Ballistite and cordite N (SPCG)
  131. What type of propellant grain is used in rocket motors?
    Internal burning, star perforation, double-base solid propellant
  132. What is the purpose of the inhibitor in a rocket motor?
    Restrict or control burning on the propellant
  133. What distance may a rocket motor be dropped before it cannot be used?
    Two (2) feet or more
  134. What may be the result if a rocket motor is accidentally dropped and the propellant grain is cracked?
    The crack in the grain will increase the burning surface and could cause the motor to explode from excessive pressure
  135. Why is the stabilizing rod salt coated?
    Prevent unstable burning of the propellant surface and reduces the flash and afterburning in the rocket motor
  136. When is the shielding band removed from the rocket motor?
    Not until it is actually loaded into a launcher
  137. The scarfed nozzles on the MK-40, 2.75 inch LSFFAR motor are used for what primary purpose?
    They impart a stabilizing spin
  138. Which rocket motor has scarfed nozzle inserts?
    MK-40/MK-14
  139. On the MK-40 rocket motor what opens the fins after the rocket has left the launcher?
    Gas pressure exerted on the heels of the fins pushes the fins open
  140. The fins are locked in-flight by what?
    Spring loaded pawls
  141. What is the purpose of the flutes on the steel nozzle expansion cone on a MK-71 rocket motor?
    Causes the rocket to spin during free flight/imparts a stabilizing spin
  142. What opens the fins on the 5.0 inch MK-71 rocket motor?
    Spring pressure
  143. What type of explosives can be stored with rocket motors?
    Cordite N
  144. Which of the following rocket motors is used with a 5.0 inch Zuni rocket?
    MK-71
  145. What rocket motor, because of its fluted nozzle can be launched from high speed aircraft, aircraft, helicopters and low speed aircraft?
    MK-71
  146. What characteristics are incorporated in a MK-71 ZUNI rocket motor?
    Spring loaded, wrap around fins
  147. When MK-66 rocket motors are out of the launcher tube, what safety device must be installed?
    Shielding and fin restraint bands
  148. What explosive filler is used in high explosive rocket warheads?
    Comp B
  149. What color are high explosive rocket warheads?
    Olive drab and may have narrow yellow band around the nose
  150. What rocket warhead is used against personnel and light material targets such as trucks and parked aircraft?
    Flechette warheads
  151. What warhead is used against armored targets such as tanks, bunkers, and armored vehicles?
    HEAT warheads
  152. Of the following - MK 24, MK-32, WDU-4, and WTU-1, which one is a high-explosive Anti-Tank/Anti-Personnel (AT/APERS) warhead?
    MK-32
  153. What is the designation of the flechette warhead?
    WDU-4/A and WDU-4A/A
  154. What rocket warhead is painted olive drab and has a brown band around the nose and white diamonds in the band?
    Flechette warhead
  155. What is the designation of the smoke warhead for 2.75 inch and 5.0 inch rockets?
    M156 and MK-67 2.75 inch and MK-34 5.0 inch
  156. What warhead is a compromise between the armor piercing and the fragmentation design?
    General purpose
  157. Which of the of the following rocket fuzes – MK-5, MK-93, MK-352, and M414A1, is impact firing?
    MK-352
  158. What are the two classifications of fuzes?
    Nose and base
  159. When located in the nose of the warhead, impact firing fuzes are defined by what term?
    Point detonating
  160. What warhead(s) have fuzes permanently installed?
    MK-193 mechanical time fuze
  161. Of the following rocket fuzes - MK-188, MK-176, MK-193, and FMU-90/B, which is permanently installed in the nose of the MK-33 Mod 1 flare warhead?
    MK-193 Mod 0
  162. A Model 113A rocket fuze has what classification and is used in what application?
    Acceleration-deceleration - 2.75-inch
  163. What fuze used in 5.0 inch warheads is of the base detonating type?
    MK-191
  164. What type of 5.0 inch rocket warhead uses the MK-191 base detonating fuze?
    MK-24 GP warhead
  165. The Model 113A fuze in WDU-4 flechette warhead is armed and detonated in what manner?
    Acceleration-deceleration
  166. What type of fuze is the 5.0 inch ZUNI MK-93 Mod 0/M414A1?
    Proximity
  167. What is the base detonating (BD) fuze used with 5.0 inch warheads?
    MK-191
  168. What fuze is used in the flare warhead?
    MK-193
  169. What adapter can be used to adapt 2.75 inch fuzes with 5.0 inch warheads?
    BBU-15/B
  170. What is the breaker switch used for on a rocket launcher?
    A safe-arm device that prevents loaded rockets from firing
  171. What is done with metal tube launchers after firing?
    They are reused
  172. The LAU-32 2.75 inch rocket launcher is made of what material?
    Aluminum
  173. When is a stray voltage check performed on a rocket launcher?
    Just prior to flight
  174. When a rocket launcher comes back with unfired rounds how do you safe it?
    Install the safe-arm detent pin
  175. When does the rocket’s electrical connector come in contact with the electrical connector on the launcher?
    When the rocket is completely seated in the launcher
  176. To prevent possible explosion, do not expose rockets or loaded launchers to what minimum distance from jet exhaust or gas turbine compressors?
    Ten feet or the indicated minimum distance on the unit
  177. When rockets are assembled, extra precautions are necessary for which of the following reasons?
    The propellant grain is easily broken
  178. When should you remove the shielding band from a 5.0-inch rocket motor?
    Just before the contact band enters the launcher during loading
  179. An uncrated rocket motor has to be rejected if dropped from what minimum distance onto a hard surface?
    Two (2) feet
  180. A rocket motor may not be used after it has been dropped what distance?
    Two (2) feet
  181. What distance may a rocket warhead be dropped before it cannot be used?
    Five (5) feet
  182. The major hazard of rocket motor stowage in ready service magazines is?
    Missile and fire hazards
  183. What procedure is to be followed if you receive a go indication on the test set while performing stray voltage checks on a rocket pod just prior?
    Connect the launcher - it is a good check
  184. When missiles in containers are received aboard ships, what components are installed after the missiles are received?
    Wings and fins
  185. What are the two types of guided missiles?
    Service and non-service
  186. Organizational level activity personnel enter captive flight data in what software system?
    ACES
  187. Missile logbook data is maintained in what software system? AWARS What types of guided missiles are used in naval aviation?
    Service/Non-service
  188. The service life of an AUR missile begins at what point?
    After the missiles components are received and assembled at a Naval Ammunition Depot or Naval Weapons Station
  189. The service life of an AUR missile begins at what location?
    The Naval Ammunition Depot or a Naval Weapons Station
  190. What section of the missile guides the missile toward the point of intercept?
    Guidance
  191. A guided missile course change is executed by what missile component section?
    Control
  192. No matter what configuration the missile is in what number is used to track the missile?
    Serial number
  193. What number is used to track a missile during its service life?
    Serial number off the leading component
  194. What item determines the serial number of an air launched missile?
    The leading serialized component
  195. The date when a component of a weapon requires Intermediate level maintenance or testing is defined by what term?
    Maintenance Due Date (MDD)
  196. What are the primary purposes of a guided missile?
    To destroy and damage
  197. Guided missiles are classified using which of the following factors?
    Range, speed, launch environment, mission, and vehicle type
  198. Guided missiles are divided into what two groups?
    Service and non-service
  199. In an aircraft, what type of missile guidance system should the operator use to keep a missile on the line of sight to the target?
    Passive
  200. What type of missile guidance system depends upon the natural radiation of the target for its guidance?
    Passive
  201. What section provides the internal routing for the interconnecting cable between the guidance section and other parts of the missile?
    Warhead
  202. In the missile designation AIM-54C, what does the letter “A” indicate?
    Launching environment
  203. In the missile designation AGM-88 what does the “G” indicate?
    Surface attack, a vehicle designed to destroy enemy land or sea targets
  204. In the guided missile designator AIM-54C, the letter “C” indicates what?
    The third modification of the missile
  205. The missile serial number normally located where on a missile?
    Leading component
  206. What does the missile designation RIM indicate?
    Ship intercept-aerial guided missile
  207. When a missile is de-canned and placed in the ready service magazine, what is done with the missile log book?
    Turned into the Aviation Ordnance Control Center (AOCS) until expended or off loaded
  208. The Phoenix missile uses what homing system type(s)?
    Active, passive, and semi-active
  209. Of the following missiles - AGM-65E, AIM-7, AIM-120, and AIM-54, which is launched only from the F-14 aircraft?
    AIM-54C
  210. What type of homing/guidance is employed by the AIM-54 phoenix missile?
    Active, semi-active, and passive
  211. The AIM-54C air-to-air guided missile employs what type(s) of homing capability?
    Passive, active, and semi-active
  212. What is the approximate weight of the AIM-54C Phoenix missile?
    1,020 lbs
  213. The Phoenix missile is used with what type of airborne missile control system (AMCS)?
    AWG-9
  214. When modified, which of the following missiles - Phoenix, Shrike, Sidewinder, and Sparrow, can used as a surface-to-air missile?
    Sparrow
  215. Of the following missiles AIM-54 Phoenix, AIM-7 Sparrow, AIM-9 Sidewinder or AIM-120 AMRAAM which can be converted to a surface to air missile?
    AIM-7 Sparrow into RIM-7
  216. How much does an AIM-7 Sparrow weigh?
    500 lbs
  217. How many AIM-7 Sparrow missiles can be carried by an F-14 aircraft?
    Six
  218. What type of homing/guidance is utilized by the AIM-7 Sparrow missile?
    Semi active
  219. What type of warhead is used by the AIM-7 Sparrow missile?
    Continuous rod or blast/fragmentation design
  220. Of the following aircraft - EA-6B, F-14D, SH-60B, and F/A-18, which is capable launching a Harpoon guided missile?
    F/A-18
  221. Of the following missiles - Phoenix, Harpoon, HARM, and Maverick, which uses a turbojet engine for propulsion?
    Harpoon
  222. What is the designation of the Harpoon missile?
    AGM-84
  223. What features make the AGM-84 less susceptible to radar detection?
    Low-level cruise trajectory and over the horizon range
  224. The AGM-84 Harpoon missile uses what type of homing/guidance?
    Active
  225. What is the weight class of the AGM-84E SLAM?
    1,400 lbs
  226. How many sections to the AGM-84E SLAM?
    Four - guidance, warhead, sustainer, control
  227. What missile has all weather capability and is an anti-ship attack weapon?
    AGM-84A-1 Harpoon
  228. What type of warhead/explosive is contained in the warhead section of the AGM-84 Harpoon missile?
    Penetration blast
  229. What missile uses a turbojet type engine?
    AGM-84 Harpoon
  230. What type of fuel is used in the motor of the Harpoon missile?
    Jet fuel (JP-5 or JP-10)
  231. Where is the missile serial number located on the AGM-84 Harpoon missile?
    Warhead
  232. What type of homing/guidance is used in the AIM-9 Sidewinder missile?
    Passive infrared
  233. What type of warhead is used with the AIM-9 Sidewinder missile?
    Annular blast fragmentation (WDU-17)
  234. When a plane returns to the flight deck with a CATM-9 Sidewinder missile, what has to be done to safe the missile?
    Insert detent wrench into the LAU-7 launcher and turn rocket motor arming “T” handle to safe position
  235. The five major components of the AIM-9 Sidewinder missile are?
    Guidance and control, target detector, safe and arm device, warhead, rocket motor
  236. What component in the guidance and control section of the AIM-9 Sidewinder missile converts electrical guidance commands into mechanical movement of the control fins?
    Gas servo assembly
  237. What missile is laser guided, rocket propelled, and designed for use against fortified ground installations, armored vehicles and surface combatants?
    AGM-65E
  238. What missile can be configured with either laser or infrared guidance?
    AGM-65 Maverick
  239. What type of guidance system is used in the AGM-65E Maverick missile?
    Semi-active only
  240. What missile is air to ground, LASER guided, and rocket propelled?
    AGM-65E Maverick
  241. The AGM-65E Maverick missile uses what type of guidance?
    LASER/Semi-Active
  242. Of the following, Shrike, Maverick, HARM and Harpoon, which is a LASER guided, air to ground missile?
    AGM-65E Maverick
  243. What type of warhead is used in the AGM-65?
    Penetrating/Blast fragmentation (300 lbs)
  244. What is the approximate weight of the AGM-65?
    AGM-65E - 634 lbs AGM-65F - 685 lbs
  245. The AGM-65 is propelled by what type of motor?
    Dual thrust (boost/sustain) solid propellant rocket
  246. HARM missiles are best suited for use on which of the following targets?
    Radar emplacements
  247. What missile when used in conjunction with the aircraft’s launching avionics, detects, identifies, and locates enemy radar?
    AGM-88 HARM
  248. What missile is used against surface targets that radiate electromagnetic energy?
    AGM-88 HARM
  249. What missile(s) did the AGM-88 HARM replace?
    AGM-45 Shrike and AGM-78 Standard Arm
  250. What missile is a passive homing, air to ground, anti-radar, guided missile?
    HARM

Card Set Information

Author:
coop4rilla
ID:
313571
Filename:
Gunner Summerall
Updated:
2015-12-28 06:13:28
Tags:
Gunner Summerall
Folders:
251-500
Description:
AO ISH
Show Answers:

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview