Immunology Test 1

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  1. Biologic activites of the Fc fragment of an IgG molecule include all of the following EXCEPT:

    A) Binding to NK cells
    B) Transport across the placenta
    C) Binding to an antigen
    D) Complement binding
    E) Binding to macrophages
    C) Binding to an antigen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. Diagnostic laboratory techniques most frequently used for the visual microscopic detection of antigens in tissue sections include:

    A) Radioimmunoassay
    B) Agglutination
    C) Precipitation
    D) Immunofluorescence
    E) Mixed lymphocyte reaction
    D) Immunofluorescence
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. Secretory IgA antibodies:

    A) Cross the placenta when coupled to a J-chain
    B) Mainly exist as monomers
    C) Are the predominate immunoglobulin in saliva
    D) Bind C1 in the activation of the classical complement pathway
    E) Are the predominate immunoglobulin in serum
    C) Are the predominate immunoglobulin in saliva
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. The affinity of an anitbody is the measure of:

    A) The number of heavy chain domains
    B) The strength of it binding to antigen
    C) The number of antigen it can bind
    D) How well it is bound by Fc receptors on phagocytes and mast cells
    E) Its ability to neutralize toxins
    B) The strength of it binding to antigen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. The component on the T-cell that actually binds antigen is:

    A) CD4
    B) CD8
    C) An IL-2 receptor
    D) CD3
    E) A heterodimer of alpha and beta chains
    E) A heterodimer of alpha and beta chains
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. The first Ig synthesized in response to initial exposure to antigen:

    A) IgG
    B) IgM
    C) IgE
    D) IgA
    E) IgD
    B) IgM
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. Most important for protecting a new-born from bacteria:

    A) IgD
    B) IgA
    C) IgG
    D) IgM
    E) IgE
    C) IgG
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. Important in protecting against parasitic infections:

    A) IgG
    B) IgM
    C) IgA
    D) IgD
    E) IgE
    E) IgE
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. The major Ig in the globulin fraction of serum:

    A) IgD
    B) IgE
    C) IgM
    D) IgA
    E) IgG
    E) IgG
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. Can bind the highest number of antigenic determinants:

    A) IgM
    B) IgD
    C) IgA
    D) IgE
    E) IgG
    A) IgM
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. The major Ig produced in a memory response:

    A) IgG
    B) IgM
    C) IgD
    D) IgA
    E) IgE
    A) IgG
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. Role in B-cell maturation, but no known protective function:

    A) IgE
    B) IgG
    C) IgM
    D) IgA
    E) IgD
    E) IgD
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. MHC II proteins are typically found on which type of cell?

    A) Neutrophils
    B) All cells
    C) All nucleated cells
    D) Endothelial cells
    E) Antigen presenting cells
    E) Antigen presenting cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. Which of the following is a primary lymphoid tissue?

    A) Tonsil
    B) Spleen
    C) Appendix
    D) Lymph node
    E) Thymus
    E) Thymus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. A hapten:

    A) Stimulates B-cell responses
    B) Requires a carrier to initiate an immune response
    C) Enhances the response of an antigen by forming a depot for the antigen
    D) Activates macrophages to enhance phagocytosis
    E) Stimulates T-cell responses
    B) Requires a carrier to initiate an immune response
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. Adjuvants may be used to:

    A) Stimulate T-cell responses to virus-infected cells
    B) Form a depot for the antigen, thereby enhancing the immune response of the antigen
    C) Attract neutrophils to the site of infection
    D) Inhibit inflammation
    E) Suppress the immune system to self cells
    B) Form a depot for the antigen, thereby enhancing the immune response of the antigen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. Which of the following cells is important in antigen processing and presentation?

    A) T-cells
    B) Langherans cells
    C) Endothelial cells
    D) Eosinophils
    E) Neutrophils
    B) Langerhans cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. Which of the following factors is secreted my macrophages to induce apoptosis?

    A) Interleukin-4
    B) Interferon-beta
    C) Interferon-alpha
    D) Tumor necrosis factor
    E) Lysozyme
    D) Tumor necrosis factor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. Generally taken into the cells by phagocytosis:

    A) Exogenous antigens
    B) Endogenous antigens
    C) --
    A) Exogenous antigens
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. Synthesized within the cell:

    A) Endogenous antigens
    B) --
    C) Exogenous antigens
    A) Endogenous antigens
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. Processed and expressed on surface of APC in MHC II molecules:

    A) --
    B) Exogenous antigens
    C) Endogenous antigens
    B) Exogenous antigens
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. Generally recognized by CD4+ cells:

    A) Endogenous antigens
    B) Exogenous antigens
    C) --
    B) Exogenous antigens
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. Generally recognized by CD8+ cells:

    A) --
    B) Exogenous antigens
    C) Endogenous antigens
    C) Endogenous antigens
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. Viral antigens:

    A) Exogenous antigens
    B) Endogenous antigens
    C) --
    B) Endogenous antigens
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. Bacteria:

    A) Endogenous antigens
    B) --
    C) Exogenous antigens
    C) Exogenous antigens
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. Cytokines are polypeptides produced in response to microbes and other antigens. All of the follow are true of cytokines EXCEPT:

    A) Actions may be autocrine, paracrine, or endocrine
    B) Bind to specific membrane receptors on target cells
    C) Result in changes in gene expression in target cells
    D) Actions are pleiotropic in that many cytokines have the same effect
    E) Secretion is a brief, self-limited event
    D) Actions are pleiotropic in that many cytokines have the same effect
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. Which of the following is not involved in innate immunity?

    A) Phagocytosis
    B) Lysozyme
    C) Inflammation
    D) Antibody
    E) Fever
    D) Antibody
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. Which of the following are characteristic of serum IgM molecules?

    1. Contains 5 monomeric Ig molecules
    2. J chain
    3. mu heavy chains
    4. Can bind to more than 2 antigen molecules
    5. Secretory component

    A) 1, 2, 4
    B) 3 only
    C) 3, 4, 5
    D) 1, 2, 3, 4
    E) 1 only
    D) 1, 2, 3, 4
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. All are required in the alternative pathway of complement activation EXCEPT:

    A) C8, C9
    B) C1, C2, C4
    C) C5, C6, C7
    D) Factor B
    E) C3
    B) C1, C2, C4
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. Which Ig is the best agglutinin?

    A) IgM
    B) IgA
    C) IgD
    D) IgG
    E) IgE
    A) IgM
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. Which of the following is an example of natural passive immunity?

    A) Rabies immune globulin
    B) Rhogam
    C) Tetanus anti-toxin
    D) Human gamma globulin
    E) SIgA in breast milk
    E) SIgA in breast milk
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. Which of the following is most important in the specific immune response to intracellular bacteria?

    A) Antibody
    B) Complement
    C) T cells
    D) Neutrophils
    E) Prostaglandins
    C) T cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. All of the following are true of T-independent antigens EXCEPT:

    A) Cross-link surface immunoglobulin on B cells
    B) Are polyclonal B cell activators
    C) Generally have a polymeric structure
    D) Induce primarily IgM response
    E) Induce immunologic memory
    E) Induce immunologic memory
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. Mechanisms for antibacterial immunity include all of the following EXCEPT:

    A) Antibody neutralization of toxins
    B) Cytotoxic T cell bacteriolysis
    C) Intracellular destruction by activated macrophages
    D) Antibody and complement mediated bacteriolysis
    E) Antibody and complement mediated opsonization for enhanced phagocytosis
    B) Cytotoxic T cell bacteriolysis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. Defects in the complement system could result in:

    A) Increased resistance to viral infections
    B) Failure to produce IgG
    C) Impaired elimination of microbial antigens and circulating immune complexes
    D) Marked decrease in clotting factors
    e) all of the above
    C) Impaired elimination of microbial antigens and circulating immune complexes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. Anaphylatoxin activity is associated with:

    A) Properdin
    B) C1
    C) Factor B
    D) C3b
    E) C3a and C3b
    E) C3a and C3b
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. Stimulates the production of IFN-g by NK cells and T cells:

    A) IL-4
    B) IFN-g
    C) IL-10
    D) IL-6
    E) IL-12
    E) IL-12
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. Stimulates proliferation of plasma cells:

    A) IL-12
    B) IFN-g
    C) IL-10
    D) IL-4
    E) IL-6
    E) IL-6
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. Inhibits IL-12 and TNF production:

    A) IFN-g
    B) IL-12
    C) IL-4
    D) IL-10
    E) IL-6
    D) IL-10
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. Stimulates isotype switching to IgE:

    A) IL-10
    B) IL-6
    C) IL-4
    D) IL-12
    E) IFN-g
    C) IL-4
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. Promotes differentiation of TH1 cells:

    A) IFN-g
    B) IL-10
    C) IL-12
    D) IL-6
    E) IL-4
    C) IL-12
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. Inhibits differentiation of TH2 cells:

    A) IL-6
    B) IFN-g
    C) IL-4
    D) IL-10
    E) IL-12
    B) IFN-g
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. Stimulates development of TH2 cells from naive CD4+ cells:

    A) IL-4
    B) IL-10
    C) IFN-g
    D) IL-6
    E) IL-12
    A) IL-4
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. Stimulates expression of MHC molecules on APCs:

    A) IL-12
    B) IL-6
    C) IFN-g
    D) IL-10
    E) IL-4
    C) IFN-g
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. Asthma is an example of:

    A) an IgE mediated syndrome
    B) An immune complex disease
    C) Delayed type hypersensitivity
    D) A complement-mediated disease
    E) An autoimmune disease
    A) an IgE mediated syndrome
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. All of the following have specific receptors for antigen EXCEPT:

    A) TH2 cells
    B) TH1 cells
    C) B cells
    D) Cytotoxic T-cells
    E) NK cells
    E) NK cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. Active immunization can be induced by all of the following except:

    A) Toxoids
    B) Vaccines
    C) Antitoxins
    D) Attenuated micro-organisms
    E) Bacterial capsular polysaccharides
    C) Antitoxins
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. Type II hypersensitivity:

    A) Requires immune complex formation
    B) Does not involve NK cells
    C) Is antibody independent
    D) Results from antibody dependent lysis
    E) Is complement independent
    D) Results from antibody dependent lysis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. The immunogenicity of a molecule is influenced by all of the following EXCEPT:

    A) Chemical composition
    B) Molecular size
    C) Degree of foreignness
    D) Secondary structure
    E) Surface charge
    E) Surface charge
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. If self-reacting T-cell clones are not surpressed, and individual may develop:

    A) Allergies
    B) Serum sickness
    C) Hypergammaglobulinemia
    D) Cancer
    E) Autoimmune disease
    E) Autoimmune disease
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. An antiviral state is induced by:

    A) Histamine
    B) Type I interferons
    C) Prostaglandins
    D) Leukotrienes
    E) IFN-g
    B) Type I interferons
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. All of the following are true EXCEPT:

    A) A typical epitope recognized by B cells is 5 to 7 amino acids in length
    B) Only B cells bind directly to antigens
    C) A typical epitope recognized by T cells is 10-15 amino acids in length
    D) B cells and T cells may recognize the same epitope
    E) Antigens generally have only one antigenic determinant
    E) Antigens generally have only one antigenic determinant
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. Major component of mast cell granules:

    A) Histamine
    B) SRS-A
    C) ECF-A
    D) Serotonin
    E) Platelet activating factor
    A) Histamine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. Control mechanism for type I hypersensitivity:

    A) Histamine
    B) ECF-A
    C) Serotonin
    D) Platelet activating factor
    E) SRS-A
    B) ECF-A
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. Effects similar to histamine:

    A) Histamine
    B) Serotonin
    C) ECF-A
    D) SRS-A
    E) Platelet activating factor
    B) Serotonin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. Secondary mediator of type I hypersensitivity leading to prolonged smooth muscle cell contraction:

    A) SRS-A
    B) Platelet activating factor
    C) Serotonin
    D) ECF-A
    E) Histamine
    A) SRS-A
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. Hypersensitivity- Skin testing:

    A) Type III
    B) Type I
    C) Type II
    D) Type IV
    D) Type IV
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. Hypersensitivity- chronic hepatitis B infection:

    A) Type II
    B) Type I
    C) Type III
    D) Type IV
    C) Type III
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. Hypersensitivity- ADCC:

    A) Type I
    B) Type II
    C) Type IV
    D) Type III
    B) Type II
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. Hypersensitivity- transfusion reactions:

    A) Type III
    B) Type II
    C) Type I
    D) Type IV
    B) Type II
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. Hypersensitivity- epinephrine to combat systemic anaphylaxis:

    A) Type IV
    B) Type III
    C) Type II
    D) Type I
    D) Type I
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. Hypersensitivity- mononuclear cell infiltrate:

    A) Type I
    B) Type IV
    C) Type II
    D) Type III
    B) Type IV
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. Hypersensitivity- poison ivy:

    A) Type III
    B) Type II
    C) Type I
    D) Type IV
    D) Type IV
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. All of the following are true of immunologic tolerance EXCEPT:

    A) Can develop naturally
    B) Induced more readily in mature lymphocytes
    C) Can be induced by low doses of antigen
    D) Can be induced by high doses of antigen
    E) Antigen specificity
    B) Induced more readily in mature lymphocytes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. X-linked agammaglobulinanemia is due to:

    A) Defective maturation of plasma cells
    B) Defective bacteriacidal activity of neutrophils
    C) Defective synthesis of adhesion molecules
    D) Defective maturation of T cells
    E) Defective pre-B cell maturation
    E) Defective pre-B cell maturation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. Which of the following results from the build-up of toxic metabolites in T cells due to the absence of key enzymes?

    A) Thymic aplasia
    B) Reticular dysgensis
    C) Chronic granulomatous disease
    D) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
    E) SCID
    E) SCID
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. beta2-microglobulin is a part of:

    A) TCR
    B) MHC I
    C) Surface Ig
    D) HLA-DQ molecules
    E) MHC II
    B) MHC I
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
Author:
duncamunk
ID:
31358
Card Set:
Immunology Test 1
Updated:
2010-08-26 23:44:51
Tags:
immunology test
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Description:
All MC questions from test 1
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