Section 10 4.0

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  1. (10-002)
    Larger than average doses of naloxone will be required to manage an overdose of synthetic narcotics, such as
    A) cocaine
    B) Demerol
    C) heroin
    D) codeine
    E) Darvon
    E) Darvon
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. Darvon (propoxyphene)
    Was withdrawn from the U.S. market in November 2010. Is in a group of drugs called narcotic pain relievers. In a group of drugs called narcotic pain relievers. is used to relieve mild to moderate pain.
  3. (10-003)
    Beta blocker medication administration for treatment of tachycardias is absolutely contraindicated if the pt is suspected of having overdosed on
    A) amphetamines
    B) a & c
    C) hallucinogens
    D) a, b & c
    E) cocaine
    E) cocaine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. (10-004)
    Diazepam may be administered to individuals suffering seizure activity secondary to an overdose of
    (1) amphetamines
    (2) hallucinogens
    (3) cocaine
    A) 1
    B) 1 and 2
    C) 2
    D) 1, 2, and 3
    E) 3
    D) 1, 2, and 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. (10-008)
    Wh/ of the following statements regarding alcohol withdrawal syndrome S/Sx & management considerations is false?
    A) Seizures or DTs are signs of a serious medical emergency. Aggressive prehospital management is warranted
    B) S/Sx of withdrawal may occur within hours after an alcoholic abruptly discontinues alcohol ingestion
    C) IV diazepam is the recommended prehospital treatment for severe DTs or seizure activity related to alcohol withdrawl
    D) Any pt exhibiting S/Sx of DTs should be considered to be "fatally" ill
    E) Alcohol withdrawal syndrome S/Sx commonly last only 2-5 days
    E) Alcohol withdrawal syndrome S/Sx commonly last only 2-5 days
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. (10-010)
    Wh/ of the following S/Sx and condition descriptions represent those of Korsakoff's psychosis?
    (1) hallucinations
    (2) memory loss or disorientation
    (3) bilateral "foot drop"
    (4) delusions
    (5) related to chronic alcohol intake
    (6) related to a thiamine deficiency
    (7) commonly a reversible condition
    (8) commonly an irreversible condition
    A) 5, 6 & 8
    B) 3, 5, 6 & 8
    C) 2, 5, 6 & 7
    D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, & 7
    E) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 & 8
    E) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 & 8
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. (10-011)
    Wh/ of the following S/Sx and condition descriptions represent those of Wernicke's syndrome?
    (1) hallucinations
    (2) memory loss or disorientation
    (3) bilateral "foot drop"
    (4) delusions
    (5) related to chronic alcohol intake
    (6) related to a thiamine deficiency
    (7) commonly a reversible condition
    (8) commonly an irreversible condition
    A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, & 7
    B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 & 8
    C) 3, 5, 6 & 8
    D) 2, 5, 6 & 7
    E) 5, 6 & 8
    D) 2, 5, 6 & 7
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. (10-012)
    Wh/ of the following statements regarding administration of thiamine is false?
    A) Without an adequate amount of thiamine present, the body cannot obtain the full benefit of the glucose available in the blood stream
    B) Thiamine is a B vitamin extremely important to cellular carbohydrate metablolism
    C) Administration of D50W without the concomitant administration of thiamine may precipitate Wernicke's or Korsakoff's syndromes in the alcoholic pt
    D) The brain is extremely sensitive to thiamine deficiency
    E) Administration of thiamine when the patient is not malnourished or alcoholic may cause a severe (often fatal) B-vitamin overdose
    E) Administration of thiamine when the patient is not malnourished or alcoholic may cause a severe (often fatal) B-vitamin overdose
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. (10-014)
    Heat loss from the body that occurs because of sweating is attributed to the mechanism of
    A) radiation
    B) respiration
    C) evaporation
    D) conduction
    E) convection
    C) evaporation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. (10-015)
    Cold packs placed upon areas of the body surface effect body heat loss via the mechanism of
    A) evaporation
    B) respiration
    C) radiation
    D) conduction
    E) convection
    D) conduction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. (10-016)
    Heat loss from the body when air currents pass over its surface is attributed to the mechanism of
    A) radiation
    B) respiration
    C) conduction
    D) evaporation
    E) convection
    E) convection
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. (10-017)
    Moist, warm skin commonly accompanies
    A) heat exhaustion
    B) a & b
    C) heat stroke
    D) heat cramps
    E) a & c
    D) heat cramps
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. (10-019)
    Cool, clammy skin accompanies
    A) a & c
    B) heat stroke
    C) heat cramps
    D) heat exhaustion
    E) b & c
    D) heat exhaustion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. (10-020)
    Hyperkalemia may accompany exertional
    (1) heat stroke
    (2) heat cramps
    (3) heat exhaustion
    A) 3
    B) 1 & 3
    C) 1
    D) 2 & 3
    E) 2
    C) 1
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. (10-023)
    Emergency care of a pt suffering from a serious heat-related illness includes removal of clothing and
    (1) covering w/ sheets soaked in tepid water 
    (2) covering w/ sheets soaked in ice water
    (3) placing ice packs in the axillary areas, groin, and bilateral to the neck
    (4) establishing 1 or 2 large-bore IV's, w/ LR or NS initially infused w/o
    (5) if hypotension is unresponsive to a 1000ml LR or NS infusion, admin a vasopressor, titrated to a systolic BP of 100mmHg
    A) 4 & 5
    B) 2 or 3, 4 & 5
    C) 2, 3, 4 & 5
    D) 1 or 2, 3, 4 & 5
    E) 1 & 4
    E) 1 & 4
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. (10-024)
    When measured orally, the average normal body temperature is
    (1) 37 C
    (2) 98.6 F
    (3) 44 C
    A) 2 & 3
    B) 1 & 2
    C) 3
    D) 1
    E) 2
    B) 1 & 2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. (10-025)
    To measure the patient's core temperature, _____ thermometers may be used.
    A) skin-strip, tympanic, or rectal
    B) skin-strip or tympanic
    C) only tympanic
    D) tympanic or rectal
    E) only rectal
    D) tympanic or rectal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. (10-026)
    The medical term for an elevated body temperature caused by an infection is
    A) hypothermia
    B) hyperthermia
    C) pathogenia
    D) pyrexia
    E) hyprexia
    D) pyrexia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. (10-027)
    Emergency care of a pt suffering from a serious fever includes removal of external clothing and
    (1) exposing them to ambient air
    (2) sponging them w/ cold water
    (3) immersing them in cool water
    (4) covering them w/ sheets soaked in ice water
    (5) placing ice packs in the axillary areas, groin, and bilateral to the neck.
    A) 4
    B) 1 & 2
    C) 3 followed by 4
    D) 4 & 5
    E) 1
    E) 1
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. (10-028)
    Mild hypothermia is best defined as a pt symptomatic of hypothermia, w/ a core temperature of
    A) < 37C (98.6F)
    B) 30 to 34C (86 to 93.2F)
    C) < 44C (98.6F)
    D) <30C (90F)
    E) 34 to 36C (93.2 to 98.6F)
    E) 34 to 36C (93.2 to 98.6F)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. (10-029)
    Moderate hypothermia is best defined as a pt symptomatic of hypothermia w/ a core temperature of
    A) 34 to 36C (90 to 92F)
    B) < 20C (80F)
    C) 30 to 34C (86 to 93.2F)
    D) < 30C (90F)
    E) < 37C (95.6F)
    C) 30 to 34C (86 to 93.2F)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. (10-030)
    Severe hypothermia is best defined as a pt symptomatic of hypothermia, w/ a core temperature of
    A) < 30C (86F)
    B) 30-34C (86-93.2)
    C) < 10C (70F)
    D) 34-36C (90-92F)
    E) < 27C (80.6F)
    A) < 30C (86F)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. Celsius to Farenheight
    • C x 9/5 + 32
    • (9/5 = 1.8)
  24. Fahrenheit to Celsius
    • (F - 32) x 5/9
    • (5/9 = .55)
  25. (10-031)
    Research indicates that shivering ceases and pupils dilate when a pt's core temperature falls to
    A) 30C (86F)
    B) 34C (93.2F)
    C) 37C (98.6F)
    D) 32C (89.6F)
    E) 36C (96.8F)
    D) 32C (89.6F)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. (10-033)
    Although not diagnostically useful, ECG J waves (Osborn" waves) may be observed in lead II
    A) on the downslope of the R wave or at the junction of the QRS and T wave
    B) after the T w, prior to the next P wave
    C) on the upslope of the R wave
    D) in the middle of the P wave
    E) between the P wave and the QRS
    A) on the downslope of the R wave or at the junction of the QRS and T wave
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. (10-034)
    The most common dysrhythmia associated w/ moderate hypothermia is
    A) atrial fibrillation
    B) a or c
    C) sinus bradycardia
    D) ventricular fibrillation
    E) ventricular tachycardia
    A) atrial fibrillation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. (10-035)
    When a pt is moderately to severely hypothermic, v-fib may be induced by
    (1) rough handling
    (2) "rewarming shock" 
    (3) orotracheal or nasotracheal intubation stimulation
    A) 2
    B) 1 & 2
    C) 1
    D) 3
    E) 1, 2 & 3
    B) 1 & 2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. (10-037)
    Treatment of moderate & severe hypothermia includes administration of warmed & humidified O2, &
    (1) oral administration of warmed, sweetened fluids, if pt is alert & able to swallow 
    (2) placement of insulated heat packs in the axillary areas, groin, and bilateral to the neck 
    (3) IV access (preferably a "central" location, such as EJ) and warmed NS infusion
    A) 1
    B) 1, 2 & 3
    C) 2
    D) 3
    E) 2 & 3
    B) 1, 2 & 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. (10-038)
    Your pt is found lying, pulseless & apneic, on a snow bank at the edge of a parking lot next to a lake. You are able to park your vehicle w/in 5' of him. First, from the following list of cardiac arrest treatment procedures, select only those procedures you would perform, no matter what the hypothermic pt's core temperature was. Second, indicate the order in wh/ you would perform the treatment procedures you selected.
    (1) initiate CPR & continue as appropriate
    (2) Intubate, confirm endotracheal placement, & secure tube
    (3) Check ECG rhythm; v-fib discovered
    (4) Remove all wet garments & wrap in warm blankets
    (5) Rapidly but gently place the pt in the ambulance
    (6) Defibrillate once
    (7) Defibrillate 2nd time if 1st defib is unsuccessful & v-fib persists
    (8) Defibrillate 3rd time if 2nd defib is unsuccessful & v-fib persists
    (9) Establish IV access
    (10) Admin 1st-round IV medications, per ACLS protocols
    (11) If v-fib persists after 1st round IV medication admin, defibrillate up to 3 more times before a 2nd round of medications
    A) 1, 3, 6, 7, 8, 5, 4, 9 & 10
    B) 5, 4, 1, 3, 6, 2 & 9
    C) 1, 4, 5, 3, 6 & 9
    D) 5, 4, 1, 3, 6, 7, 8, 2 & 9
    E) 4, 5, 3, 6, 1, 9, 10 & 11
    B) 5, 4, 1, 3, 6, 2 & 9
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. (10-039)
    Your pt is apneic, pulseless, & in v-fib. She has a core temp of 31C (87.8F). According to core-temp based ACLS hypothermic cardiac arrest treatment protocols, wh/ of the following procedures should you perform when caring for her?
    (1) Ventilate gently w/ BVM (intubation may precipitate or sustain v-fib)
    (2) Intubate & ventilate w/ warmed, humidified O2
    (3) IV access & warm fluid admin
    (4) IV access & cool (room temp) fluid admin
    (5) ACLS med admin, per standard AHA protocols
    (6) ACLS med admin, but w/ increased time intervals between doses
    (7) 1st defibrillation attempt
    (8) A 2nd defibrillation, immediately after the 1st defibrillation, if v-fib persists
    (9) A 3rd defibrillation, immediately after the 2nd defibrillation, if v-fib persists
    (10) A 4th defibrillation, if v-fib persists after "1st round" ACLS med admin
    (11) A 5th defibrillation immediately after the 4th defibrillation, if v-fib persists
    (12) A 6th defibrillation immediately after the 5th defibrillation, if v-fib persists
    A) 2, 3, 5 & 7 through 12
    B) 1, 4, 5 & 7
    C) 2, 3 & 7
    D) 2, 3, 6 & 7
    E) 1, 4, 5, 7, 8 & 9
    D) 2, 3, 6 & 7
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. (10-040)
    Your pt is apneic, pulseless, and in v-fib. He has a core temp of 29C (84.2F). According to core temp based ACLS protocols, wh/ of the care procedure options should you perform when caring for him?Your pt is apneic, pulseless, & in v-fib. She has a core temp of 31C (87.8F). According to core-temp based ACLS hypothermic cardiac arrest treatment protocols, wh/ of the following procedures should you perform when caring for her?
    (1) Ventilate gently w/ BVM (intubation may precipitate or sustain v-fib)
    (2) Intubate & ventilate w/ warmed, humidified O2
    (3) IV access & warm fluid admin
    (4) IV access & cool (room temp) fluid admin
    (5) ACLS med admin, per standard AHA protocols
    (6) ACLS med admin, but w/ increased time intervals between doses
    (7) 1st defibrillation attempt
    (8) A 2nd defibrillation, immediately after the 1st defibrillation, if v-fib persists
    (9) A 3rd defibrillation, immediately after the 2nd defibrillation, if v-fib persists
    (10) A 4th defibrillation, if v-fib persists after "1st round" ACLS med admin
    (11) A 5th defibrillation immediately after the 4th defibrillation, if v-fib persists
    (12) A 6th defibrillation immediately after the 5th defibrillation, if v-fib persists
    A) 2, 3, 6 & 7
    B) 2, 3, 7, 8 & 9
    C) 2, 3 & 7
    D) 1, 4, 7, 8 & 9
    E) 1, 4, 6 & 7 through 12
    C) 2, 3 & 7
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. (10-042)
    Wh/ of the following statements regarding treatment of frostbite is true?
    A) Do not administer analgesia to a pt suffering fro mere frostbite.
    B) Keep the thawed part dependent (below heart level) to enhance circulation to the thawed tissues
    C) Allow the frozen part to remain frozen if there is any possibility that, should it be thawed, it might subsequently become exposed to subfreezing temperatures again
    D) Rubbing or massaging the frozen body part is extremely painful but is necessary to accomplish rapid thawing, and to prevent further crystallization damage
    E) Assist the pt in moving and "working" the frozen part, in order to increase circulation to the frozen area, especially after the area has thawed
    C) Allow the frozen part to remain frozen if there is any possibility that, should it be thawed, it might subsequently become exposed to subfreezing temperatures again
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. (10-043)
    Drowning can be caused by any kind of liquid submersion/immersion event, & is 
    (1) usually an entirely preventable cause of accidental (unintentional) injury or death 
    (2) legally defined as a death that occurs w/in 24 hours of a submersion/immersion event 
    (3) usually survived w/ a good outcome if the victim spontaneously regains circulation & breathing before reaching the ED
    A) 2
    B) 1, 2 & 3
    C) 1
    D) 1 & 3
    E) 3
    D) 1 & 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. (10-046)
    Compared to the osmotic pressure of human blood, salt water is
    A) b or c, depending upon the individual's blood type
    B) a or b, depending upon the individual's blood type
    C) hypotonic
    D) isotonic
    E) hypertonic
    E) hypertonic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. (10-047)
    Fresh-water aspiration produces
    (1) hemodilution, a relative reduction of RBC concentration, & expansion of blood plasma volume
    (2) surfactant destruction & atelectasis
    (3) hypovolemia, a relative increase of RBC concentration, & pulmonary edema
    A) 1
    B) 3
    C) 2 & 3
    D) 1 & 2
    E) 2
    D) 1 & 2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. (10-048)
    Wh/ of the following statements regarding factors that influence resuscitation success & near drowning survival is false?
    A) Cleanliness of the water affects the probability of survival
    B) Beyond 60 minutes of submersion, resuscitation is unlikely
    C) The "mammalian diving reflex" accelerates the pulse rate, improving the probability of successful resuscitation & survival by increasing cardiac output to all vital organs
    D) Children survive longer submersion times w/ greater probability of successful resuscitation & survival
    E) The colder the water, the greater the probability of successful resuscitation and survival
    C) The "mammalian diving reflex" accelerates the pulse rate, improving the probability of successful resuscitation & survival by increasing cardiac output to all vital organs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. (10-049)
    Wh/ of the following statements regarding treatment of unconscious drowning victims is false?
    A) Treat the pt for spinal injury if there is any indication of trauma, if the cause of submersion is unknown, or if alcohol is involved
    B) Only a trained rescue swimmer, secured by a safety line, should be allowd to enter the water
    C) Ventilation of the pt (mouth to mouth resuscitation) should be immediately initiated, even while still in the water
    D) Upon removal from the water, the Heimlich maneuver should be performed 4-6 times prior to beginning mechanical ventilation, to facilitate lung drainage and enable more effective oxygen exchange
    E) All victims of a submersion/immersion emergency require hospital admission for observation, because complications may not occur during the first 24 hours
    D) Upon removal from the water, the Heimlich maneuver should be performed 4-6 times prior to beginning mechanical ventilation, to facilitate lung drainage and enable more effective oxygen exchange
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. (10-051)
    Wh/ of the following statements regarding injuries associated w/ fresh or salt water diving is false?
    A) Barotrauma to the middle ear may occur during descent to depth, especially if the diver has an upper respiratory tract infection
    B) At the bottom of the dive, if nitrogen narcosis develops, the diver may incur trauma resulting from euphoria or impaired judgment causing increased risk taking
    C) Barotrauma to the middle ear or lung parenchyma may occur during ascent
    D) Injuries that may occur during ascent include pneumomediastinum & pneumothorax
    E) Injuries that occur while divers are still on the water surface (direct trauma, or entanglement in lines or aquatic matter) are not classified as "diving" injuries
    E) Injuries that occur while divers are still on the water surface (direct trauma, or entanglement in lines or aquatic matter) are not classified as "diving" injuries
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. (10-052)
    All of the following conditions may occur secondary to a diver holding her/his breath during ascent, except
    A) lung tissue trauma caused by expansion of trapped air
    B) cardiovascular circulatory obstruction resulting from an air embolism
    C) nitrogen narcosis
    D) a stroke (CVA) resulting from an air embolism
    E) a pneumothorax
    C) nitrogen narcosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. (10-054)
    Treatment of a pt suffering from a decompression illness includes all of the following, except
    A) protection from excessive heat, cold, wetness, or noxious fumes
    B) high semi-Fowlers positioning to avoid further CNS disturbances
    C) oral admin of fruit juices or "sports" drinks, if the pt is alert & able to swallow
    D) treatment of seizures w/ IV diazepam
    E) transportation to the nearest 911 participating ED, whether or not it is a facility capable of providing recompression via a hyperbaric O2 chamber
    B) high semi-Fowlers positioning to avoid further CNS disturbances
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. (10-055)
    Wh/ of the following statements regarding pulmonary overpressure diving accidents is false?
    A) They occur only during ascent from 33' (or more) below the water surface
    B) Treatment of pulmonary overpressure diving accidents is the same as that for pneumothorax; hyperbaric O2 recompression is usually not necessary
    C) The most common S/Sx of this kind of diving accident are dyspnea and diminished breath sounds in an area of the chest
    D) Principle S/Sx of this kind of diving accident include hemoptysis and chest pain
    E) They are the most serious form of ascent-related barotrauma
    A) They occur only during ascent from 33' (or more) below the water surface
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. (10-056)
    Wh/ of the following statements regarding arterial gas embolism (AGE) is fales?
    A) Confusion, vertigo, visual disturbances, or loss of consciousness may accompany AGE
    B) AGE may rapidly produce stroke-like S/Sx
    C) Treatment of AGE is the same as that for any other embolism emergency; hyperbaric O2 recompression is usually not necessary
    D) Principle S/Sx of AGE include c/o "sharp" or "tearing" pain in one or more parts of the body
    E) S/Sx of AGE are abrupt and severe, usually occurring rapidly after ascent, commonly w/in 10 min
    C) Treatment of AGE is the same as that for any other embolism emergency; hyperbaric O2 recompression is usually not necessary
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. (10-057)
    Treatment of pt's suffering from arterial gas embolism includes all of the following, except
    A) rapid transport to the nearest ED of a hospital capable of providing recompression via hyperbaric O2 chamber
    B) IV fluid admin titrated to BP
    C) Consideration of corticosteroid admin
    D) admin of 100% O2 via NRM, unless the pt's level of consciousness suggests endotracheal intubation
    E) high semi-Fowlers positioning to avoid further CNS disturbances
    E) high semi-Fowlers positioning to avoid further CNS disturbances
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. (10-058)
    Wh/ of the following statements regarding nitrogen narcosis (the "raptures of the deep") is false?
    A) If nitrogen narcosis is suspected, rapidly transport the pt to the nearest ED of a hospital capable of providing emergency recompression via a hyperbaric O2 chamber
    B) Ay altered level of consciousness S/Sx may be caused by nitrogen narcosis
    C) The cure for nitrogen narcosis is ascent to a more shallow depth or the water surface
    D) To avoid nitrogen narcosis, deep divers' O2 supply is mixed w/ helium
    E) Nitrogen narcosis occurs only while at at deep dive depth (> 33' below the water surface)
    A) If nitrogen narcosis is suspected, rapidly transport the pt to the nearest ED of a hospital capable of providing emergency recompression via a hyperbaric O2 chamber
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. (10-059)
    Wh/ of the following statements regarding ascent to high altitude is false?
    A) During ascent from sea level, the atmospheric barometric pressure decreases
    B) During ascent from sea level, the partial pressure of atmospheric O2 decreases
    C) If an individual is relatively healthy, rapid ascent to a higher altitude is entirely unlikely to produce significant side effects or high altitude related illnesses
    D) Individuals w/ chronic diseases are extremely susceptible to significant side effets or illnesses from rapid ascent to a higher altitude, such as flying in a pressurized cabin to a skiing vacation location
    E) Gradual ascent to altitude (over several days, preferably weeks) allows individuals w/ chronic illnesses an opportunity to gradually acclimatize to high altitudes, thus avoiding development of high altitude illness related S/Sx
    C) If an individual is relatively healthy, rapid ascent to a higher altitude is entirely unlikely to produce significant side effects or high altitude related illnesses
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. (10-060)
    S/Sx of the mild form of acute mountain sickness (AMS) include all of the following except
    A) lightheadedness or breathlessness
    B) nausea & vomiting
    C) headache
    D) an altered level of consciousness
    E) weakness
    D) an altered level of consciousness
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. (10-061)
    S/Sx of the severe form of acute mountain sickness (AMS) include all of the following, except
    A) shortness of breath
    B) increased urine production
    C) nausea and excessive vomiting
    D) an altered level of consciousness
    E) profound weakness
    B) increased urine production
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. (10-062)
    Wh/ of the following statements regarding high-altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE) is false?
    A) S/Sx of HAPE range from mild SOB w/ dry cough and exertional weakness, to severe weakness, cyanosis, frothy sputum production, & unconsciousness
    B) In the early stages, descent to a lower altitude will revers all of the S/Sx caused by HAPE
    C) Children are more susceptible to HAPE than are adults
    D) Changes in blood flow at high altitudes are what cause the increased pulmonary pressure and hypertension associated w/ HAPE
    E) HAPE emergencies are frequently frightening and sometimes painful but rarely result in death
    E) HAPE emergencies are frequently frightening and sometimes painful but rarely result in death
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. (10-063)
    Wh/ of the following statements regarding high-altitude cerebral edema (HACE) is false?
    A) Descent to a lower altitude will not reverse any of the S/Sx produced by HACE
    B) The exact cause of HACE remains unknown
    C) Altered level of consciousness is a primary S/Sx of HACE
    D) Headache, nausea, and vomiting are infrequent S/Sx of HACE
    E) HACE usually occurs in untreated individuals suffering from AMS or HAPE
    A) Descent to a lower altitude will not reverse any of the S/Sx produced by HACE
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. (10-067)
    The immune system is the body's defense against disease. All of the following are major components of the immune system, except
    A) macrophages
    B) leukocytes
    C) antibodies
    D) lymphocytes
    E) antigens
    E) antigens
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. (10-068)
    The lymphatic system is comprised of all of the following, except
    A) the spleen
    B) lymphatic ducts
    C) the thymus
    D) the adrenal glands
    E) lymph nodes
    D) the adrenal glands
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. (10-069)
    The most essential component of the lymphatic system is the
    A) adrenal glands
    B) thymus
    C) lymph nodes
    D) spleen
    E) lymphatic ducts
    D) spleen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. (10-070)
    All of the following statements represent mandates established by the Ryan White Act, a federal lay, except
    A) employers are required to notify their employees as to what to do if an exposure occurs
    B) when exposure to an infectious disease is suspected, agencies and health care workers have specific rights and responsibilities
    C) an exposed care provider has a right to information about the infection status of any pt suspected to have exposed the provider to an infectious disease
    D) each health care agency is required to designate an infectious disease control officer to serve as a contact person for exposed personnel and to maintain the agency's infection control program
    E) individuals suspected to have exposed a care provider to an infectious disease are required to submit to testing, to determine whether or not they have the suspected infectious disease
    E) individuals suspected to have exposed a care provider to an infectious disease are required to submit to testing, to determine whether or not they have the suspected infectious disease
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. (10-072)
    Of the following infectious diseases, wh/ poses the lowest transmission threat to unvaccinated or previously unexposed health care providers who utilize standard BSI precautions
    A) Meningitis
    B) Pneumonia
    C) Chickenpox
    D) Mumps
    E) TB
    D) Mumps
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. (10-075)
    Wh/ of the following statements regarding meningitis transmission risks is false?
    A) In otherwise healthy individuals, viral meningitis is a self-limited disease that has no specific treatment and generally resolves in 7-10 days.
    B) To minimize the risk of meningitis exposed health care providers spreading the disease to their other pt's, postexposure medication should be initiated w/in 24 hours of exposure
    C) The peak months of meningitis occurrence are those of low temperature and humidity (the winter months in the continental U.S.)
    D) Because transmission of meningitis is primarily via respiratory droplets, observing universal precautions and wearing a mask will adequately prevent the health care provider from contracting the disease
    E) The post exposure medication available to prevent care providers from developing meningitis is frequently accompanied by uncomfortable, even sever, side effects
    E) The post exposure medication available to prevent care providers from developing meningitis is frequently accompanied by uncomfortable, even sever, side effects
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. (10-077)
    Wh/ of the following statements regarding meningitis S/Sx is false?
    A) Although most commonly transmitted via airborne respiratory droplets, contact w/ mucous membranes or broken skin may also transmit TB
    B) TB may be transmitted to humans from cattle, swine, primates, or badgers
    C) Although commonly called a "TB Test," besides identifying individuals already carrying the TB complex, subcutaneous injection of the tuberculin factor acts as a vaccine and prevents TB-complex-free individuals from becoming susceptible TB
    D) A single occupational exposure to a pt w/ TB is highly unlikely to result in TB transmission to the care provider who uses universal precautions
    E) TB is the most common preventable adult infectious disease in the world
    C) Although commonly called a "TB Test," besides identifying individuals already carrying the TB complex, subcutaneous injection of the tuberculin factor acts as a vaccine and prevents TB-complex-free individuals from becoming susceptible TB
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. (10-078)
    Wh/ of the following statements regarding methods of protection against TB transmission is false?
    A) NIOSH/OSHA standards for health are providers currently call for the use of N95 respirators (special masks) when treating an individual suspected of having TB
    B) Respirator mask failure to protect health care providers is most frequently caused by health care providers failing to use the correct mask
    C) Opening one or more windows of the ambulance will provide increased bentilation of the pt compartment, & significantly minumize the transmission risk of TB
    D) NIOSH/OSHA standards currently no longer require heath care providers to use HEPA (high efficiency particulate respirator) masks when treating an individual suspected of having TB
    E)Simple paper surgical masks will not prevent TB-contaminated air from reaching the EMT
    C) Opening one or more windows of the ambulance will provide increased bentilation of the pt compartment, & significantly minumize the transmission risk of TB
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. (10-084)
    A pt who complains of fever, night sweats, and recent weight loss may be suffering from
    a) TB
    b) AIDS
    c) meningitis
    d) TB & AIDS
    e) AIDS & meningitis
    d) TB & AIDS
  60. (10-086)
    HIV virus transmission via _____ has occasionally been documented.
    (1) contact w/ lacrimal fluid(tears)
    (2) contact w/ amniotic fluid
    (3) urine contact
    (4) contact w/ saliva
    (5) contact w/ bronchial secretions
    (6) mosquito bites
    A) 3, 4 & 5
    B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 & 6
    C) 3, 4, 5 & 6
    D) none of the selection have ever been documented as a means of HIV transmission
    E) 5 & 6
    D) none of the selection have ever been documented as a means of HIV transmission
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. Kaposi's Sarcoma
    • cancerous skin lesion that consists of a purple splotch on the skin
    • (Prior to the HIV/AIDS epidemic it was quite rare.)
  62. (10-088)
    When used in conjuction w/ discussion of HIV or AIDS pt's, the medical term/abbreviation PCP, referes to
    A) pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
    B) polymorphic cutaneous polyps
    C) phencyclidine
    D) polymorphic cystic paralysis
    E) polysystic polyps
    A) pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. (10-089)
    Wh/ of the following statements regarding "chickenpox," a.k.a. varicella zoster virus (VZV), is false?
    A) If a health care provider has never been vaccinated & has never had the disease, she/he may still successfully be protected from VZV infection if vaccinated w/in 3 days after exposure to an individual w/ chickenpox
    B) VZV is a member of the "herpes" family of viruses
    C) If a health care provider ddi not have chickenpox during childhood and has been vaccinated against it, adult VZV vaccination is still available & is highly recommended
    D) "Shingles" is a form of VZV
    E) VZV is significantly more lethal to pediatric pt's than to adult pt's
    E) VZV is significantly more lethal to pediatric pt's than to adult pt's
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. (10-090)
    Wh/ of the following statements regarding sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) is false?
    A) STD immunization is not available
    B) Syphilis may be transmitted by kissing
    C) Chlamydia may be transmitted via common use (or unprotected handling) of infected linen
    D) STDs are communicable diseases that are transmitted only by sexual contact w/ the carrier
    E) Men are usually asymptomatic carriers of Trichomonas vaginalis, the protozoan parasite that is a frequent cause of vaginitis
    D) STDs are communicable diseases that are transmitted only by sexual contact w/ the carrier
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. (10-096)
    Conditions unrelated to child abuse that may produce signs easily mistaken for those of child abuse include
    (1) chickenpox (mistaken for cigarette burns)
    (2) car seat abrasions (linear burns)
    (3) hematological disorders (bruises of various ages in several different body areas)
    A) 2 & 3
    B) 3
    C) 1, 2 & 3
    D) 1
    E) 2
    C) 1, 2 & 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. (10-098)
    Wh/ of the following observations should not prompt strong suspicion of child abuse?
    A) The child volunteers a description of the cause of injury, and the caretaker agrees w/ the description
    B) The caretaker suggests that the child intentionally injured herself/himself
    C) The caretaker's account does not match the nature or severity of the injury
    D) The caretaker appears unconcerned about the nature or severity of injury
    E) An inappropriate delay in seeking help occurred
    A) The child volunteers a description of the cause of injury, and the caretaker agrees w/ the description
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. (10-103)
    _____ is a highly contagious disease that leads to permanent paralysis of infected muscle groups.
    A) muscular dystrophy (MD)
    B) myasthenia gravis
    C) poliomyelitis
    D) multiple sclerosis (MS)
    C) poliomyelitis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. NAMES OF NARCOTICS
    • Codeine
    • Fentanyl -- available as a patch
    • Hydrocodone
    • Hydromorphone
    • Meperidine
    • Morphine
    • Oxycodone
    • Tramadol
Author:
thom.mccusker@gmail.com
ID:
314003
Card Set:
Section 10 4.0
Updated:
2016-01-22 14:18:07
Tags:
CanadaMedic
Folders:
CanadaMedic
Description:
Section 10: Alcoholism & Substance Abuse, Environmental Conditions, Infectious & Communicable Diseases, Behavioral & Psychiatric Disorders, Abuse & Assault, Patients w/ Special Callenges
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