Section 11

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  1. (11-003)
    A term often used when referring to the entire area of external female genitalia, the perineum, is best defined asa the skin-covered muscular tissue that is found
    a) just below the symphysis pubis, anterior to the vaginal opening
    b) on either side of the vaginal opening
    c) between the anus and the vaginal opening
    d) between the urethra and the vaginal opening
    e) posterior to the anus
    c) between the anus and the vaginal opening
  2. (11-004)
    The _____ is the interior lining of the uterus.
    A) interometrium
    B) endometrium
    C) parietalmetrium
    D) perimetrium
    E) myometrium
    B) endometrium
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. (11-005)
    The _____ is the thick muscular, middle layer of the uterine wall.
    A) myometrium
    B) parietalmetrium
    C) perimetrium
    D) interometrium
    E) endometrium
    A) myometrium
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. (11-006)
    The obstetric medical term gravida is used when referring to the number of times a woman has
    A) been pregnant
    B) had sex
    C) given birth (delivered a viable infant)
    D) had a cesarian section
    E) had a miscarriage or abortion
    A) been pregnant
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. (11-007)
    The obstetric medical term para (parity) is used when referring to the number of times a woman has
    A) had a miscarriage or abortion
    B) been pregnant
    C) had a cesarian section
    D) had sex
    E) given birth (delivered a viable infant)
    E) given birth (delivered a viable infant)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. (11-009)
    It is your patient's due date, and she is in labor. She has 2 3 y/o sons (twins) and has had 1 miscarriage. You should describe her as being
    A) G2, P1, Ab1 (gravida 2, para 1, abortion)
    B) G3, P2, M1 (gravida 3, para 2, miscarriage 1)
    C) G3, P1, Ab1 (gravida 3, para 1, abortion 1)
    D) P3, G1, M1 (para 3, gravida 1 miscarriage 1)
    E) P2, G2, M1 (para 2, gravida 2, miscarriage 1)
    C) G3, P1, Ab1 (gravida 3, para 1, abortion 1)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. (11-010)
    The normal duration of a human pregnancy is
    A) 36 weeks from the last day of the patient's LMP (9 calendar months)
    B) 36 weeks from the first day of the patient's LMP (9 calendar months)
    C) 40 weeks from the first day of the patient's LMP (10 lunar months)
    D) 45 weeks from the first day of the patient's LMP (9 lunar months)
    E) 45 weeks from the last day of the patient's LMP (9 lunar months)
    C) 40 weeks from the first day of the patient's LMP (10 lunar months)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. (11-011)
    Which of the following statements regarding pregnancy & medical disorders is false?
    A) Pregnancy may cause the onset of diabetes in a previously nondiabetic patient
    B) Previously diagnosed diabetes may become unstable during pregnancy
    C) Even well controlled by medication, mothers who have seizure disorders prior to pregnancy are likely to experience a seizure during delivery
    D) Pregnancy may induce hypertension in the previously normotensive patient
    E) Patients with heart disease my develop CHF when pregnant
    C) Even well controlled by medication, mothers who have seizure disorders prior to pregnancy are likely to experience a seizure during delivery
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. (11-014)
    The placenta performs all of the following functions except
    A) providing extra cushion of protection (diminishing the likelihood of fetal trauma)
    B) hormone secretion
    C) transfer of heat
    D) transfer of gases (fetal respiration)
    E) transport of nutrients and excretion of wastes
    A) providing extra cushion of protection (diminishing the likelihood of fetal trauma)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. (11-017)
    Any painless, bright red vaginal bleeding that occurs late in pregnancy is considered to be _____, until proven otherwise.
    A) an abruptio placenta
    B) a uterine rupture
    C) a spontaneous abortion
    D) an ectopic pregnancy
    E) placenta previa
    E) placenta previa
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. (11-018)
    Wh/ of the following statements about the S/Sx of abruptio placentae is false?
    A) Complete abruptio placentae is accompanied by pain, and may not produce external vaginal bleeding
    B) Bleeding without pain is possible in some cases of abruptio placentae
    C) Partial abruptio placentae is not always accompanied b y pain, and may not produce external vaginal bleeding
    D) Abruptio placentae is always accompanied by pain and vaginal bleeding
    E) Complete abruptio placentae can produce massive hemorrhage and profound maternal hypotension
    D) Abruptio placentae is always accompanied by pain and vaginal bleeding
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. (11-019)
    S/Sx of pre-eclampsia include any of the following except
    A) visual disturbances
    B) major motor seizure activity
    C) pregestational history of a hypertensive disorder and a currently prescribed antihypertensive medication
    D) edema of the hands and face
    E) headache
    B) major motor seizure activity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. (11-021)
    Management considerations of a patient with pre-eclampsia include all of the following except
    A) IV admin of diazepam
    B) O2 admin
    C) IV access w/ NS
    D) IV admin of magnesium sulfate
    E) left laterally recumbent positioning
    A) IV admin of diazepam
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. (11-023)
    Pre-eclampsia commonly occurs during
    (1) the last 10 weeks of gestation
    (2) labor
    (3) the 1st 48 hours postpartum
    A) 3
    B) 1 & 2
    C) 1
    D) 1, 2 or 3
    E) 2
    D) 1, 2 or 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. (11-024)
    Supine hypotensive syndrome usually occurs in the 3rd trimester, when the large abdominal mass of the gravid uterus
    (1) demands more of the maternal blood supply than can be compensated for by the already increased maternal cardiac output, when the pt is placed supine
    (2) compresses the inferior vena cava when the pt is placed supine, thereby reducing venous return
    (3) compresses the abdominal aorta when the pt is placed supine, therby obstructing cardiac output
    A) 1, 2, or 3
    B) 2
    C) 3
    D) 1
    E) 1 or 2
    B) 2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. (11-027)
    Which of the following statements about Braxton Hicks contractions is false?
    A) A pt suspected of having Braxton Hicks contractions should be treated as though she is experiencing actual labor and may soon deliver
    B) Braxton Hicks contractions are usually painless, and irregular in occurance
    C) Intermittent uterine contractions are believed to enhance placental circulation
    D) Intermittent uterine contraction may occur as early as the 13th week of gestation
    E) Braxton Hicks contractions are not "true" labor contractions. If the pt is preterm and has a history of Braxton Hicks episodes, ambulance transportation is not required
    E) Braxton Hicks contractions are not "true" labor contractions. If the pt is preterm and has a history of Braxton Hicks episodes, ambulance transportation is not required
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. (11-028)
    Full dilation of the cervix signifies
    A) the end of the 3rd stage of labor
    B) the end of the 2nd stage of labor
    C) the beginning of the 1st stage of labor
    D) the beginning of the 4th stage of labor
    E) the end of the 1st stage of labor
    E) the end of the 1st stage of labor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. Stages of Labor
    • Stage 1: onset of true labor contractions and ends with the complete dilation and effacement of the cervix
    • Stage 2: begins with the complete dilation of the cervix and ends with the delivery of the fetus
    • Stage 3: (final stage) begins immediately after the birth of the infant and ends with the delivery of the palcenta
  19. (11-029)
    The birth of the baby signifies
    A) the end of the second stage of labor
    B) the beginning of the fourth stage of labor
    C) the beginning of the first stage of labor
    D) the end of the first stage of labor
    E) the end of the third stage of labor
    A) the end of the second stage of labor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. (11-030)
    The delivery of the placenta signifies
    A) the beginning of the first stage of labor
    B) the end of the second stage of labor
    C) the end of the first stage of labor
    D) the end of the third stage of labor
    E) the end of the fourth stage of labor
    D) the end of the third stage of labor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. (11-032)
    Factors that should prompt immediate patient transport, in spite of indications that delivery is imminent, include all of the following situations except
    A) any patient who has previously delivered a baby by cesarean section
    B) a single-limb presentation
    C) a patient whose amniotic sac ruptured over 24 hours earlier
    D) when the patient's contractions ahve been 2-3 minutes apart for more than 20 minutes of scene time, but delivery has not occurred
    E) a prolapsed umbilical cord
    A) any patient who has previously delivered a baby by cesarean section
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. (11-033)
    The classic sign of fetal distress is _____ , and should prompt immediate patient transport, in spite of indications that delivery is imminent.
    A) a fetal heart rate of less than 110/minute
    B) a fetal heart rate of greater than 110/minute
    C) a fetal heart rate of less than 90/minute
    D) a fetal heart rate of greater than 100/minute
    E) when the pt's abdomen becomes "soft" between contractions
    C) a fetal heart rate of less than 90/minute
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. (11-034)
    As delivery begins, most infants present with their head first and their face down. This is called
    A) an occipital presentation
    B) a breech presentation
    C) a posterior presentation
    D) the vertex position
    E) the crown presentation
    D) the vertex position
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. (11-035)
    As delivery begins, if the baby's buttocks are the first structure to be seen, this is called
    A) a posterior presentation
    B) an occipital presentation
    C) the vertex position
    D) the crown presentation
    E) a breech presentation
    E) a breech presentation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. (11-038)
    Wh/ of the following statements regarding steps in assisting a normal delivery is false?
    a) Once the infant's head  has emerged, instruct the mother to stop pushing and suction the infant's airway. Instruct the mother to resume pushing after suction is completed
    b) Once the infant's head has emerged, gently guide the infant's head downward, to allow delivery of the upper shoulder
    c) After upper shoulder delivery, gently guide the infant's body upward, to allow delivery of the lower shoulder
    d) Once the head and shoulders have delivered, te rest of the infant's body will rapidly everge. Do not drop the infant
    e) Immediately after delivery, quickly elevate the infant above the level of the vagina (usually by placing the infant up on the mother's abdomen) and prepare to cut the umbilical cord
    e) Immediately after delivery, quickly elevate the infant above the level of the vagina (usually by placing the infant up on the mother's abdomen) and prepare to cut the umbilical cord
  26. (11-041)
    Which of the following statements regarding cephalopelvic disproportion (something that requires delivery via cesarean section) is false? Cephalopelvic disproportion
    A) is when the maternal pelvis is too small to allow the baby's head to deliver
    B) is often associated with women of petite stature, or women with contracted pelvises
    C) is often associated with diabetic mothers, women who have delivered several children, or gestation periods that have exceeded the due date for delivery
    D) is when the baby's head is too large to pass through the maternal pelvis
    E) rarely ever occurs in women delivering their first child
    E) rarely ever occurs in women delivering their first child
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. (11-042)
    Which of the following abnormal presentation, or delivery complication, situations absolutely cannot be delivered in the field?
    (1) vertex presentation
    (2) breech presentation
    (3) single arm presentation
    (4) single leg presentation
    (5) twins or other multiple births
    (6) prolapsed cord
    (7) cephalopelvic disproportion
    (8) shoulder dystocia
    A) 3, 4, 6 & 7
    B) 1 through 8
    C) 2 through 8
    D) 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 & 8
    E) 4, 6, 7 & 8
    A) 3, 4, 6 & 7
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. (11-047)
    Signs & symptoms of uterine rupture include all of the following except
    A) sudden intensification of uterine contractions (contractions suddenly becoming harder and faster than they were before)
    B) signs of systemic shock
    C) complaints of excruciating abdominal pain
    D) cessation of abdominal pain, after the rupture has occurred
    E) a tender, rigid abdomen, possibly accompanied by rebound tenderness
    A) sudden intensification of uterine contractions (contractions suddenly becoming harder and faster than they were before)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. (11-051)
    Management of uterine inversion includes all of the following except
    A) initiation of two or more large-bore NS or LR IVs
    B) one attempt to manually replace the uterus, while the mother is still in the "birth position" by using the palm of your hand to push the fundus of the extruded uterus toward the vagina
    C) gently encompassing all extruded tissue with saline-soaked towels
    D) one attempt to facilitate "natural" detachment of the placenta from the uterus by exerting gentil traction on the umbilical cord portion attached to the extruded placenta
    E) high flow O2 admin and rapid transportation
    A) initiation of two or more large-bore NS or LR IVs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. (11-052)
    The proximal clamp (or tie) is placed on the umbilical cord at approximately
    A) 6" (15cm) from the baby
    B)  12" (31cm) from the baby
    C) 10" (26cm) from the baby
    D) 4" (10cm) from the baby
    E) 8" (20cm) from the baby
    D) 4" (10cm) from the baby
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. (11-053)
    The distal clamp (or tie) is placed on the umbilical cord at approximately
    A) 10" (26cm) from the baby
    B) 12" (31cm) from the baby
    C)  14" (35cm) from the baby
    D) 6" (15cm) from the baby
    E) 8" (20cm) from the baby
    D) 6" (15cm) from the baby
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. (11-054)
    Factors that stimulate the newborn to take its first breaths include all of the following except
    A) severing the umbilical cord
    B) airway suctioning
    C) hypoxia or mild acidosis
    D) drying
    E) hypothermia
    A) severing the umbilical cord
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. (11-055)
    Suctioning of the newborn's mouth and nose should be performed
    (1) immediately upon emergence of the head
    (2) immediately after birth
    (3) only after the umbilical cord is cut
    A) 1
    B) 3
    C) 1 & 2
    D) 1, 2, or 3 depending upon local protocols
    E) 2
    C) 1 & 2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. (11-067)
    You just delivered a baby boy who has a spontaneous respiratory rate of 40, a heart rate of 120, and cyanosis of the trunk and limbs. You should
    A) begin positive pressure ventilations
    B) begin positive pressure ventilations & chest compressions
    C) do nothing more than maintain the infant's warmth; these are entirely "normal" newborn vital signs, and O2 admin is optional
    D) begin chest compressions
    E) maintain the infant's warmth and admin supplemental O2
    E) maintain the infant's warmth and admin supplemental O2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. (11-071)
    When performing CPR on a newborn, the compression/ventilation ratio is
    A) 3 chest compressions to 2 ventilation (3:2)
    B) 15 chest compressions to 2 ventilation (15:2)
    C) 5 chest compressions to each ventilation (5:1)
    D) 3 chest compressions to each ventilation (3:1)
    E) 5 chest compressions to 2 ventilation (5:2)
    D) 3 chest compressions to each ventilation (3:1)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. (11-072)
    The "inverted pyramid" protocol for newborn resuscitation specifies wh/ of the following as being the most vital care provision (the fist steps for providing newborn resuscitation)?
    A) drying warming, positioning, suctioning, and tactile stimulation
    B) provision of supplemental O2
    C) intubation
    D) BVM ventilations
    E) chest compressions
    A) drying warming, positioning, suctioning, and tactile stimulation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. (11-073)
    A premature infant is best defined as any infant born before
    a) 9 calendar months of gestation have transpired
    b) the 50th week of gestation
    c) the 45th week of gestation
    d) the 37th week of gestation
    e) 10 lunar months of gestation have transpired
    d) the 37th week of gestation
  38. (11-074)
    Wh/ of the following statements regarding sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is true?
    A) The incidence of SIDS is greatest during hot summer months
    B) Because of today's medical treatments advances, low birth weight infants are at no greater risk of SIDS than are normal birth weight infants
    C) SIDS is more common in female infants than in male infants
    D) Studies strongly suggest that placing an infant in a prone sleep position significantly contributes to SIDS deaths
    e) All of the above are true
    D) Studies strongly suggest that placing an infant in a prone sleep position significantly contributes to SIDS deaths
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. (11-077)
    The pediatric dose for IV/IO admin of epinephrine is 
    (1) 0.1 ml/kg of epi 1:1000
    (2) 0.01 mg/kg of epi 1:10,000
    (3) 0.1 ml/kg of epi 1:10,000
    A) 1 or 2
    B) 2 or 3
    C) 3
    D) 1
    E) 2
    B) 2 or 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. (11-078)
    The pediatric dose for IV/IO admin of atropine is 
    (1) 0.01mg/kg
    (2) 0.02mg/kg
    (3) minimum dose of 0.1 mg
    A) 2
    B) 1
    C) 3
    D) 1 & 3
    E) 2 & 3
    E) 2 & 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. (11-080)
    The pediatric dose for IV/IO admin of lidocaine is
    A) 0.5 mg/kg
    B) 1.0 mg/kg
    C) 1.5 mg/kg
    D) 2.0 mg/kg
    E) 0.1 mg/kg
    B) 1.0 mg/kg
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. (11-081)
    The pediatric dose for IV/Io admin of amiodarone is
    (1) only admin after IV/IO lido has failed to convert V-fib to a non-shockable rhythm
    (2) 5 mg/kg, repeated to a max delivery of 300 mg
    (3) 10 mg/kg repeated to a max delivery of 300 mg
    A) 2
    B) 3
    C) 2 or 3, depending upon local protocol
    D) 1
    E) 1 & 2
    A) 2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. (11-083)
    In the presence of increased intracranial pressure, an infant's fontanelle
    A) sinks with each pulse and then returns to the level of the skull surface
    B) feels tight and may bulge above the level of the skull surface
    C) bulges with each pulse and then returns to the level of the skull surface
    D) is lower than the level of the skull surface and appears sunken
    E) is level with the skull surface or appears slightly sunken and may pulsate
    B) feels tight and may bulge above the level of the skull surface
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. (11-086)
    The pediatric dose of diazepam for infants and children up to the age of 5 years old is
    A) 0.2-0.5 mg every 2 to 5 minutes, to a max of 2.5 mg
    B) 1 mg every 2 to 5 minutes, to a max of 5 mg
    C) 2-5 mg every 5 minutes, to a max of 10 mg
    D) 0.2-0.5 mg/kg every 5 minutes, to a max of 10 mg.
    E) 0.01-0.02 mg/kg every 5 minutes, to a max of 1 mg
    A) 0.2-0.5 mg every 2 to 5 minutes, to a max of 2.5 mg
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. (11-087)
    The pediatric dose of diazepam for children 5 years of age or older is
    A) 0.01-0.02 mg/kg every 5 minutes, to a max of 1 mg
    B) 0.2-0.5 mg/kg every 5 minutes, to a max of 10 mg.
    C) 2-5 mg every 5 minutes, to a max of 10 mg
    D) 1 mg every 2 to 5 minutes, to a max of 5 mg
    E) 0.2-0.5 mg every 2 to 5 minutes, to a max of 2.5 mg
    D) 1 mg every 2 to 5 minutes, to a max of 5 mg
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. (11-091)
    S/Sx such as fever (w/ or w/out seizure), irritability, and a history of recent illness (w/ or w/out N/V/D). are often associated w/ pediatric
    (1) meningitis
    (2) sepsis
    (3) Reye's syndrome
    A) 1
    B) 1 & 2
    C) 2
    D) 3
    E) 1, 2 & 3
    E) 1, 2 & 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. (11-094)
    Classic indications of _____ include a child who seemed to be recovering from an unremarkable viral illness but who suddenly develops severe N/V and soon begins to exhibit unusually hostile or altered behaviors
    (1) meningitis
    (2) sepsis
    (3) Reye's syndrome
    A) 3
    B) 1
    C) 1, 2 & 3
    D) 1 & 2
    E) 2
    A) 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. (11-095)
    A recent history of upper respiratory tract or ear infection may be associated with
    (1) meningitis
    (2) sepsis
    (3) Reye's syndrome
    a) 1
    b) 2
    c) 3
    d) 1 & 2
    e) 1, 2 & 3
    e) 1, 2 & 3
  49. (11-096)
    Laryngotracheobronchitis is more commonly referred to as
    (1) bronchiolitis
    (2) epiglottitis
    (3) croup
    A) 3
    B) 2
    C) none of the available selection
    D) 1, 2 or 3
    E) 1
    A) 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. (11-098)
    _____ is often accompanied by a fever.
    (1) bronchiolitis
    (2) epiglottitis
    (3) croup
    A) any of the answers
    B) 3
    C) none of the answers
    D) 1
    E) 2
    A) any of the answers
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. bronchiolitis
    • Bronchiolitis is a common lung infection in young children and infants. It causes congestion in the small airways (bronchioles) of the lung. Bronchiolitis is almost always caused by a virus. Typically, the peak time for bronchiolitis is during the winter months.
    • Swelling and mucus buildup in the smallest air passages in the lungs (bronchioles).
  52. (11-101)
    Stridor may accompany
    (1) bronchiolitis
    (2) epiglottitis
    (3) croup
    A) 1
    B) 2 & 3
    C) 2
    D) 1 & 2
    E) 3
    B) 2 & 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. (11-103)
    Humidified O2 should be administered in all cases of
    (1) bronchiolitis
    (2) epiglottitis
    (3) croup
    A) 1 & 2
    B) 1, 2 & 3
    C) 2
    D) 3
    E) 1
    B) 1, 2 & 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. (11-105)
    Wh/ of the following statements regarding infant hypoglycemia is false?
    A) Respiratory illnesses may cause hypoglycemia in any infant
    B) Hypoxia may cause hypoglycemia in any infant
    C) Hypothermia may cause hypoglycemia in any infant
    D) CNS hemorrhage may cause hypoglycemia in any infant
    E) Hypoglycemia is more common in "large for gestational age" infants because of greater body mass requiring greater amounts of glycogen stores
    E) Hypoglycemia is more common in "large for gestational age" infants because of greater body mass requiring greater amounts of glycogen stores
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. (11-107)
    Wh/ of the following statements regarding treatment of pediatric hypoglycemia is false?
    A) D25W may only be admin via IV or IO routes
    B) oral glucose or sugar filled fluids may be admin to conscious and alert pediatric pt's
    C) D25W can be prepared by mixing D50W 1:1 w/ normal saline
    D) D25W can be prepared by mixing 25 ml of D50ml with 50 ml of D5W
    E) glucagon admin is ineffective for treatment of hypoglycemia when insufficient glycogen stores are present
    D) D25W can be prepared by mixing 25 ml of D50ml with 50 ml of D5W
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. (11-110)
    Wh/ of the following statements regarding assessment and care of the geriatric trauma pt is false?
    A) Because of chronic dehydration and the higher arterial pressures required to perfuse geriatric vital organs, geriatric trauma pt's require larger volumes and more rapid admin rates of IV fluids than younger pt's
    B) Positive pressure ventilation performed too aggressively may rupture geriatric pulmonary parenchyma and cause a pneumothorax
    C) Because geriatric pt's typically have higher BPs than younger pt's, a systolic BP of 110 may be  indicative of hypotension, or even shock, in the geriatric trauma pt
    D) Geriatric trauma pt's may not exhibit tachycardia during the early stages of hypovolemic shock
    E) Physical deformities (arthritis, spinal abnormalities, atrophied limbs) will require modification of standard immobilization techniques
    A) Because of chronic dehydration and the higher arterial pressures required to perfuse geriatric vital organs, geriatric trauma pt's require larger volumes and more rapid admin rates of IV fluids than younger pt's
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. (11-113)
    Degeneration of vertebral body size offurs w/ age. This degeneration is called
    A) osteoporosis
    B) hypertrophy
    C) spondylosis
    D) kyphosis
    E) lordosis
    C) spondylosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. (11-114)
    Many elderly people develop a "hunchback" appearance because of rheumatoid arthritis, vertebral degeneration, or poor posture. This exaggerated curve, or angulation, of the thoracic spine is called
    A) hypertrophy
    B) spondylosis
    C) kyphosis
    D) osteoporosis
    E) lordosis
    C) kyphosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. (11-115)
    Wh/ of the following statements regarding geriatric CNS assessment if false?
    A) Any geriatric patient who acts confused or seems to have an  altered level of consciousness requires evaluation of his/her blood glucose level as soon as possible
    B) Hypo- or hyperthermia are amoung the most common causes of geriatric altered mental status
    C) Decreased creative and cognitive mental functions occur because of the reduction in brain weight and size that naturally accompanies aging
    D) The reduction in brain weight and size that naturally accompanies aging makes geriatric patients more susceptible to subdural and epidural hemorrhage even when the force of trauma is minimal
    E) Any geriatric patient who acts confused or seems to have an altered level of consciousness should be considered to have a serious underlying illness or injury until proven otherwise at the ED
    C) Decreased creative and cognitive mental functions occur because of the reduction in brain weight and size that naturally accompanies aging
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. (11-120)
    _____ is an inner ear disorder characterized by vertigo, nerve deafness, and a roaring or buzzing in the ear.
    A) ocular senescence
    B) meniere's disease
    C) auricular senescence
    D) tinnitus
    E) ocular hypertrophy
    B) meniere's disease
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. dysmenorrhea
    painful menstruation
  62. dypareunia
    painful sexual intercourse
  63. pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
    an infection of the female reproductinve tract that can be caused by a bacterium, virus, or fungus
  64. systitis
    infection of the urinary bladder
  65. dysuria
    painful urination often associated w/ systitis
  66. mittelschmerz
    abdominal pain associated with ovulation
  67. endometritis
    infection of the endometrium
  68. miscarriage/spontaneous abortion
    commonly used term to describe a pregnancy which ends before 20 weeks' gestation;
  69. endometriosis
    condition in wh/ endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus
  70. Gravida (G)
    number of times a woman has been pregnant
  71. Para or Parity (P)
    number of deliveries
  72. Abortion (A or AB)
    any pregnancy that ends before 20 weeks of gestation, regardless of cause
  73. G3 P2 (T2 P0 A1 L2)
    • G refers to number of times woman has been pregnant
    • P refers to number of deliveries
    • T refers to pregnancies that went to term
    • P refers to premature deliveries
    • A refers to abortion (therapeutic or miscarriage)
    • L refers to live births
  74. ectopic pregnancy
    the implantation of a developing fetus outside of the uterus, often in a fallopian tube
  75. puerperium
    the time period surrounding the birth of the fetus
  76. labor
    the time and processes that occur during childbirth; the physiologic and mechanical process in wh/ the baby, placenta, and amniotic sac are expelled through the birth canal
  77. vertex position
    most infants present in this position w/ head first and face down
  78. breech presntation
    either the buttocks or both feet present first

Card Set Information

Author:
thom.mccusker@gmail.com
ID:
314568
Filename:
Section 11
Updated:
2016-01-29 03:43:58
Tags:
CanadaMedic
Folders:
CanadaMedic
Description:
Section 11: Gynecology, Obstetrics, Neonatology, Pediatrics, Geriatrics
Show Answers:

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