1. Neuro Quiz 2

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1. Neuro Quiz 2
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2010-09-14 21:58:54
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UNLV DPT 746 - Neuroanatomy Quiz 2
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  1. What are the three main parts of the brain?
    • Forebrain
    • Midbrain
    • Hindbrain
  2. What are the main lobes of the cerebrum and their basic functions?
    • Frontal-Primary motor cortex. Higher intellectual capacity and motor skills.
    • Parietal-Primary somatosensory cortex. Sensory
    • Temporal-auditory cortex. Hearing and ballance, and forming of memory (memory consolidation)
    • Occipital-Visual cortex medial aspect above and below the calcarine sulcus
    • Insula-emotion and homeostasis
    • Limbic-emotion of behavior and memory
  3. Which are the two main fissure of the cerebrum?
    • The interhemispheric or great longitudinal fissure
    • The lateral fissure (through which yo ucan expose the insula lobe
  4. Which are the three important Gyri?
    • Precentral-Primary motor cortex
    • Postcentral-Primary somatosensory cortex
    • Superior temporal-immediately inferior to the lateral fissure.(site of hearing)
  5. Which are the four main sulci?
    • Central-between primary motor and somatosensory gyrus
    • Calcarine-in the occipital (site of visual cortex
    • Parieto-occipital-divide parietal and occipital lobes
    • Cingulate-Dorsal or Superior to the cingulate gyrus
  6. What did the diencephalon develop from? What did it develop into?
    Proencephalon{Dianecephalon{Thalamus(relay station), hypothalamus(ANS body homeostasis), optic outgrowth
  7. What did the midbrain develope from? What are the main structures in it?
    • Mesencephalon.
    • Susbstantia Nigra-Motor function
    • Red Nucleus-motor function
    • Corpora Quadragemina: Superior and inferior Colliculi (visual and auditory reflex function)
  8. What composes the hindbrain? and Where did they develop from?
    • Cerebellum - Metencephalon
    • Pons - Metencephalon
    • Medulla - Myelencephalon
  9. What is flouroscopy?
    Real time x-ray machine that displays the images on a computer.
  10. The diameter of the spinal cord is inconsistent. The main reason for the changes in diameter is.
    A. to accommodate for the size of the vertebral canal at each level.
    B. due to the formation of different plexi and the amount of neural tissue involved.
    C. due to the fact that there is more white matter as you ascend the spinal cord
    D. to allow sufficient room between the dura mater
    B. This the most correct answer. The reason we see narrowing in the thoracic is because there is no thoracic plexus. The other areas the experience widening are those that form plexi.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. There are equal spinal nerves as there are spinal vertebrae. T/F
    • False
    • Vert-Nerves
    • C 7-8
    • T 12-12
    • L 5-5
    • S 5-5
    • C 4-1
  12. The sacrum consists of 4 spinal nerves. T/F
    False. The sacrum is 5 fused vertebrea and it has 5 spinal nerves
  13. There are 5 lumbar nerves. T/F
    True. The lumbar has 5 vertebrea and 5 spinal nerves
  14. There are 6 cervical nerves. T/F
    False. There are 8 cranial nerves and 7 cranial vertebrea. The cranial nerves are the only nerves that exit above the vertebral bodies
  15. There are 4 coccygeal nerves T/F
    False. There is only one coccygeal nerve. But the coccyx is 4 fused bones.
  16. The PNS is cleanly divided from the CNS T/F
    False. The PNS has some overlap with the CNS in that some of the neurons contributing to the PNS are contain within the CNS
  17. The primary purpose if the PNS is to
    A. allow for sensory in the body
    B. link the nerve endings to corresponding dermatomes
    C. link the CNS to peripheral tissue
    D. Allow for motor axons to fire.
    C. The "primary purpose" is to link the CNS to the peripheral tissues. However, it does so via sensory afferent and motor efferent peripheral nerves.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. The spinal ganglion are unipolar nerve cell soma which allow for
    A. quicker conduction of the signal by being bypassed.
    B. The site where all incoming sensory information is processed.
    C. a center for the impulse to pass through to accelerate the electrical impulse.
    D. create the junction of the ventral and dorsal rootlets
    A. The DRG synaps in the dorsal horn. They allow for quicker conduction by being bypassed. The complete the role of a soma inthat they provide all of the material necessary for the neuron to live and funciton properly.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. Spinal nerve are formed by the union of
    A. ventral and dorsal rootlets
    B. anterior and posterior horns
    C. ventral and dorsal rami
    D. ventral and dorsal roots
    D. The rootlets for roots which then come togehter to form rami spinal nerves which then divide into ramin.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. The dorsal root relays brain signals to the peripheral tissue for vasomotor function. T/F
    F. The dorsal root is where the sensory information enters the spinal cord and synapes with interneurons.
  21. The ventral root is efferent in that is receives the sensory information and relays it to the CNS. T/F
    F. Efferent is going to be associated with the vasomotor neurons. The ventral root does utilize efferent fibeers, but for the sake of motor control, not sensnory.
  22. The ventral root are motor efferent nerves that receive their input primarily from
    A. dorsal root ganglion
    B. supraspinal fiber signals
    C. a b and d
    D. synapse in ventral horn
    E. interneurons
    f. all of the above
    C. Dorsal root ganglion synaps with interneurons but not generally with the ventral root
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. The spinal nerve is about 10 mm in length. T/F
    T Spinal nerves are about 1cm.
  24. Shortly after exiting the interverterbal foramen the spinal nerve
    A. becomes the peripheral nerve to innervate the body
    B. becomes the DRG
    C. becomes the ventral and dorsal rami
    D. becomes the ventral and dorsal roots
    C. DRG, and Roots are within the vertebral space. The peripheral nerve is the whole thing.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. The posterior rami supplies
    A. the skin on the back
    B. b and c
    C. the transvers abdonimos
    D. the skin on the front of the trunk
    A. is the most correct answer. It also supplies the erector spinea muscles.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. The posterior rami only supplies the erector spinea muscle. T/F
    F It also supplies the sking on the back.
  27. Pt. presents with osteophyte on the left uncovertebral facet, the following structures are most likely to be damaged:
    A. the dorsal rami
    B. the ventral root
    C. the dorsal root
    D. the ventral rami
    B. The uncovertebral would be anteromeidal so it would most like put pressure on the ventral root
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. Upon the completion of a nerve conduction test, you discover the patient
    cannot move his serratus anterior. Which rami may be jepordized?
    A. ventral rami C6 and C7
    B. dorsal rami C5
    C. the serratus anterior would not be effected by damage to the ventral rami
    D. a and b.
    E. ventral C7 and C8
    A. Ventral C6 and C7 may be jepordized. A is incorrect because the dorsal. B. is the C8 and e is dumb.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. Pt. has a posteriorly protruding IVD at the C5-C6 joint, which nerves are most likey to be damaged?
    A. radial-sensory
    B. radial-motor
    C. musculocutaneous-sensory
    D. musculocutaneous-motor
    D. The C6 nerve would be more associated with the Musculocutaneous and the IVD would most likely put pressure on the ventral root causing motor impairment.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. Pt. has developed OA at the zygopophyseal joint, this is most likely to
    A. cause seizures
    B. a and b
    C. interrupt sensory
    D. interrupt motor
    C. the intervertebral joint is closer to the DRG and the sensory afferent dorsal root.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. A dermatome
    a. develops from one somite
    b. develops from mesoderm tissue
    c. is an area of skin innervated by a particular spinal nerve
    d. may have overlap with other dermatomes
    e. all of the above
    e. They are all correct.
  32. Sensory terminals overlap considerably. T/F
    T
  33. Shingles (herpes zooster virus type 4) may remain in a DRG for upto decades and
    later wreak havoc on the somatosenory system causing the skin to become
    inflamed and blistered, then scaly and causing agonizing pain for up to
    months. T/F
    • F
    • Shingles is from type 3
    • Type 4 mononucleosis virus
  34. Shingles is usually specific to 2-3 DRG and is often brought on by stress or immunocompromissation. T/F
    f. Shingles, varicella zooster herpes type 3 usually reactivates in one DRG
  35. Weakness in abduction of the arm would involve which spinal nerves?
    A. C5,C6
    B. C6
    C. C5
    D. C6,C7
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. Weakness in supination of the wrist would involve which spinal nerves?
    A. C7
    B. C6
    C. C5
    D. C8
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. Homo‘s and Nazi’s love to flick their wrist; one in expension, the other in
    flexion. Which spinal nerves are involved in both of these movements?
    A. C8, T1
    B. C5, C6
    C. C6, C7
    D. C7, C8
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. Pt. presents with deep aches in his distal radius. Which scleratome may be affected?
    A. C6
    B. C5
    C. C8
    D. C7
    D. C7 would be in that area.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. Vascular tissues that surround bundles or fascicles of nerve fibers that make up nerve
    A. Endoneurium
    B. Epineurium
    C. Perineurium
    D. Mesoneurium
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. Which layer of neurium is contiguous with the dura mater?
    A. Mesoneurium
    B. Endoneurium
    C. Epineurium
    D. Perineurium
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. Which layer of neurium is contiguous with the arachnoid mater?
    A. Perineurium
    B. Mesoneurium
    C. Epineurium
    D. Endoneurium
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. Which layer of neurium is contiguous with the pia mater?
    A. Epineurium
    B. Mesoneurium
    C. Endoneurium
    D. Perineurium
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. Epithelial tissue covering of fasicles of nerve fibers?
    A. Perineurium
    B. Epineurium
    C. Mesoneurium
    D. Endoneurium
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. Reticular collagenous fibers that cover individual schwann cells?
    A. Endoneurium
    B. Epineurium
    C. Mesoneurium
    D. Perineurium
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. What percentage of nerve fibers are myelinated?
    A. 75%
    B. 45%
    C. 50%
    D. 25%
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. Which cells form myelin along the axon in the PNS?
    A. Oligodendrocytes (1 axon per cell)
    B. Schwann cells (1 axon per cell)
    C. Oligodendrocytes (upto 36 axon per cell)
    D. Schwann cells (upto 36 axon per cell)
    B. Schwann is PNS and only does on axon per cell with myelination; It may have grooves for many axon, but will only myelinate one; Oligodendrocytes can myelinate many, even several dozen and are in the CNS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. Which is the maximum speed of a myelinated nerve?
    A. 15 m/s
    B. 150 m/s
    C. 120 m/s
    D. 12 m/s
    C. The max of myelinated is 120 m/s. The max of unmyelinated is 15 m/s
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. Which is the maximum speed of an unmyelinated nerve?
    A. 15 m/s
    B. 150 m/s
    C. 120 m/s
    D. 12 m/s
    A. The max of myelinated is 120 m/s. The max of unmyelinated is 15 m/s
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. What allows for myelinated nerves to conduct so much faster?
    A. Salt conduction
    B. depolarization only occurs at the Nodes of Ranvier
    C. small nerve allows for less distance to be covered
    D. they have faster ion channels which allow for fast conduction
    B. The Saltatory conduction is was accelerates conduction on the myelinated fibers. The insulation cause the fiber to have to be depolarized at fewer sites. The longer the internodal region (area that is myelinated) the faster the speed. Also the thicked the diameter on the fiber, the longer the speed.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. A general rule of thumb for nerve conduction speed
    A. the larger the diameter the slower
    B. size does not have any effect, it is all about myelination.
    C. the small the diameter the fast
    D. the larger the diameter the faster
    D. No matter what she says, size does matter, and so does myelination.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. Motor fibers are grouped into
    a. numbers
    b. letters
    c. both
    d. neither
    • b. Letters
    • Groups:
    • A-Alpha (150m/s, Beta70m/s, and Gamma40m/s) Myelinated
    • B-lightly myelinated 15m/s
    • C-unmyelinated s m/s
  52. Group A sensory fibers are the fastest. T/F
    • False.
    • No such things as group a "sensory"
    • Group A motor and Type I sensory are fastest at 120m/s which indicates large and myelinated
  53. Group A are small, medium, and large myelinated efferent fibers with subgroups. T/F
    • True
    • Small-gamma (40m/s)
    • Medium-beta (70m/s)
    • Large-alpha (120m/s)
  54. Extrafusal muscle fibers primarily connect to the CNS via
    A. Group C beta fibers
    B. Group B fibers
    C. Group B beta fibers
    D. Group A alpha fibers
    D. Big fast heavy myelination for the muscle fibers!
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. The fastest nerve fiber would the
    A. beta
    B. a and d
    C. alpha
    D. Type I
    E. gamma
    F. a and b
    G. a and f
    B. Alpha for moter and Type I for sensory
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. The nerve cell (also called a neuron) is the ________ cell of the nervous system.
    a. Parenchymal
    b. stem cell
    d. glial
    e. contactile
    a.
  57. The nervous system consists of three primary elements
    A. neurons, glial, and astrocytes
    B. nerve cells, paranchymal cells, and glial cells
    C. neuons, glial, and blood vessels
    D. neurons, glial, and parikaryon
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. T/F Glial cells cannot conduct impulses.
    F. Recent research as indicated that astrocytes are capable of conducting signals.
  59. How many neurons does a human have?
    A. 10^10
    B. 100^10
    C. 10^1000
    D. 10^20
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. T/F There are fewer neuroglia than neurons.
    F. There are actuallt 10x more neuroglia creating infinite pathways for the neurons. There are 10-20k connections per neuron.
  61. Which is not a main function of the Neurons
    A. Conduct nerve impulses
    B. facilitate blood movement
    C. Recieve information
    D. Process and integrate information
    B. I suppose you could argue that nerves indirectly facilitate the movement of blood, but that is not a main function.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. When a nerve cell is responsive to change it is considered to be
    A. aclimatable
    B. excitable
    C. adjustable
    D. adaptable
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. When a nerve cell is able to transmit a nerve impulse is is considered to be
    A. conductive
    B. transmittable
    C. conducive
    e. manipulative
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. Which is not a main body part of a nerve cell?
    A. Dendrite
    B. Nerve Terminal
    C. Nissel body
    D. Axon
    E. Soma
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. Which part of the nerve is the primary receptive part?
    A. Nissel body
    B. Soma
    C. Axon
    D. Dendrite
    E. Nerve Terminal
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. Which part of the cell contains spines and may have specialized endings for
    receiving information from the internal and external environment?
    A. Soma
    B. Nerve Terminal
    C. Dendrite
    D. Nissel body
    E. Axon
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. You have an area on your skin that has recently become more sensitive. They do a special scan and find that the only physiological change is more dendrites indicating
    A. there is an increase in neurons
    B. muscles have produce more nerve receptors
    C. dendrites have undergone arborization
    D. there has been an increase in axons
    C. and increase in dendrites would indicate arborization more than the other options.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. Another name for the nucleus within the soma is
    A. the perikaryon
    B. the Peri keloid
    C. the Keloid
    D. the karyon
    D. karyon. Parikaryon is cytoplasm and keloid is a raised scar
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. The structure is responsible for production of neurotransmitters
    a. glial cells
    b. ribosomes
    c. some
    d. Neucleus
    • b. Ribosomes are responsible. The ribosome is house on the rough
    • endoplasmic reticulum. Clumps or endoplasmic reticulum for Nissl bodies
    • which are gray and give the nucleus their color
  70. The point where the soma and axon come together is called the
    A. terminal end foot
    B. hillock
    C. synaptic bouton
    D. presynaptic membrane
    B. hillock. The others are names for the synapse.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. Which of the following is not a bipolar type neuron?
    A. auditory
    B. Visual
    C. DRG
    D. vestibular
    C. the DRG is unipolar. The rest are all bipolar neurons. Multipolar neurons are the most common.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. T/F Microtubules are used for retrograde and anterograde transportation while neurofibrils are not.
    • T. The microtubules are bigger and thicker and the kinesin and dynein run up
    • and down it. The neurofibrils help give structure but are not involved
    • in the transportation.
  73. Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s are similar in that.
    A. they both can be cured with THC treatments
    B. they are both caused by the same mechanism
    C. they are both protein misfolding disease
    D. They both are purely genetic
    C. they are both protein misfolding diseases.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. Devastating loss of brain function resulting when the cytoskeleton of a neuron is disrupted is
    A. Alzheimer’s
    B. Parkinson’s
    C. MS
    D. MD
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. What is the first pathological hallmark of Alzheimer’s?
    A. Abnormal amyloid secretion
    B. Microfibril tangles
    C. myelinated sheath deterioration
    D. Neurofibrillary tangles
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. What is the second pathological hallmark of Alzheimer’s?
    A. Microfibril tangles
    B. myelinated sheath deterioration
    C. Abnormal amyloid secretion
    D. Neurofibrillary tangles
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. Anterograde transport occurs has both a rapid and slow speed
    A. 300-400 mm/day, 150-200 mm/day
    B. 150-200 mm/day, 5-10mm/day
    C. 300-400 mm/day, 5-10 mm/day
    D. 120 m/s, 15 m/s
    C. c is wrong because 150-200 mm/day is the speed of retrograde transport and 120 m/s and 15 m/s are the top speeds for myelinated and unmyelinated nerves, respectively.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. Anterograde transport transports
    a. synaptic vesicles
    b. neurotransmitters
    c. neurotrophins
    d. mitochondria
    e. all but neurotrophins. The neurotrophins are "neuron food" transported via retrograde.
  79. Tetanus is cause by the toxins of
    A. clostrindium Tetanii
    B. clostridium tetani
    C. clostridium Tetnia
    D. clostrindium tetni
    B. clostridium tetani
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. Some cancer drugs target
    A. Neurotubules which are necesary for cell division
    B. Microfillaments which are necesary for cell division
    C. macrotubules which are necessary for cell division
    D. microtubules which are necessary for cell division
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. Nerve cells function by
    a. propogation of nerve impulse
    b. Production of nerve impulses
    c. transfer of nerve impulses
    d. all of the above
    d.
  82. T/F 90% of people diagnosed with Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s experience anausmia.
    • True. The olfactory system is usually one of the first systems to go. More
    • people with Parkinson’s experience anausmia than have tremors.
  83. To function, a nerve impulse must
    A. affect the next cell in line in a circuit
    B. receive and pass the signal
    C. pass the signal
    D. receive the signal
    A. a nerve impulse can only affect the nerves. The neuron is the one responsible for a,b, and d.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. Electrical (Gap) junction synapses are rare and used for very few activities such as
    A. hearing
    B. balance
    C. sight
    D. synchronous activities
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. Electrical (Gap) junction synapses are rare and used for very few activities such as
    A. sight
    B. balance
    C. saccades
    D. dysynchronous activities
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. Electrical (Gap) junction synapses are rare and used for very few activities such as
    A. hearing in the temporal lobe
    B. respiratory center in medulla
    C. unisynchronous activities
    D. cardiac
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. What is disinhibition?
    Disinhibition is when a neuron inhibits an inhibitory neuron which then stops inhibitin and excitatory neuron so it can fire.
  88. How do you spell the CNS most common excitatory neurotransmitter?
    G-L-U-T-A-M-A-T-E
  89. How do you spell the CNS most common inhibitory meurotransmitter?
    “GABA” the shortened word works.
  90. What is the most common sensory neurotransmitter of the PNS?
    A. ACH
    B. GABA
    C. Serotonin
    D. Glutamate
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. What is the most common motor neurotransmitter of the PNS?
    A. Serotonin
    B.Glutamate
    C. ACH
    D. GABA
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. Which of the dopamine is excitatory/inhibitoy
    A. D1/D2
    B. D1/D3
    C. D3/D4
    D. D2/D1
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. T/F A receptor agonist blocks the receptors so that there is less stimulation.
    F. An agonist is a face neurotransmitter so it will stimulate the receptor
  94. T/F A receptor antagonist blocks the receptors so that there is less stimulation.
    • True, antagonists are used to block receptors when there is a natural over
    • production of neurotransmitters being released into the synapse. This
    • decreases activity.
  95. This cell gives rigidity to the brain.
    a. cartilagnia
    b. glioma
    c. astrocyte
    d. gliosis
    • c. the astrosyte has many nuerofilaments which help give rigidity to the
    • brain. Glioma are tumors composed of glial cells, astrocytes are the
    • most come cell involved with brain tumors. It doesn’t even matter if
    • they are malignant or benign because any abnormal growth in the brain
    • will cause tremendous pressure and problems. Gliosis is a dense glial
    • scar in the CNS and is predominantly astrocytes.
  96. This cells assist in the blood brain barrier and may conduct impulses.
    A. microglia
    B. Nodes of Ranvier
    C. oligodendrocyte
    D. astrocyte
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. This cell recycles glutamate and GABA and mops up K+
    A. microglia
    B. Nodes of Ranvier
    C. astrocyte
    D. oligodendrocyte
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. This cell can multiply at any time
    A. astrocyte
    B. oligodendrocyte
    C. microglia
    D. Nodes of Ranvier
    A. The astrocyte can replicate at anytime. This is part of the reason why it is the predominate glial cell involved in gliomas or tumors of the brain.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. This cells forms myelin in the CNS
    a. Schwann cells
    b. Myelinators
    c. Oligodendrocytes
    d. Sclerotic plaque
    • a. oligodendrocytes. Sceloritc plaques are formed in MS when plaques of
    • scar tissue form over dead neurons, usually forming periventricular.
  100. This cell is responsible for building the structures that will speed impulse propagation in the CNS
    A. Oligodendrosis
    B. oligodendrocytes
    C. Myelinators
    D. Sclerotic plaque
    B. This is referred to as saltatory conduction and occurs when the impulse propogates from node of Ranvier to node of Ranvier.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. This is the most common neurological disporder in young adults in temperate climates below and above the equator.
    A. MD
    B. MS
    C. MDD
    D. MSG
    B. Multiple sclerosis.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. Multiple sceloris is primarily a
    A. Infectious disease
    B. wasting disease
    C. Neurofibril Tanglling disease
    D. demyelinating disease
    D. Demyelinating disease. Alzheimers involves neurofibrillary tangles as the 2 hallmark of the disease.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. Why can denuded axons not propagate impulses?
    When an axon is denuded, it's myelination is destroyed and/or damaged. Which out the myelination the impulse must propagate along more of the axon membrane. However, there is usually insufficeint ions gradients to propagate the signal in these damaged axons.
  104. What is the first presenting disability in MS?
    A. numbness/tingling
    B. disturbances of vision
    C. weakness
    D. clumsiness
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. What is the ration male to female for MS?
    A. 1:2
    B. 2:3
    C. 3:3
    D. 3:2
    B. male to female would be 2:3. In the notes it is written female to male so it is 3:2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. What is it called when MS goes into remission?
    A. demyelination
    B. skipping town
    C. remyelination
    D. remissionation
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. What is it called when MS relapses?
    A. remyelination
    B. demyelination
    C. remissionation
    D. raising the roof
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  108. This is the smallest of the neuroglia
    A. minimia
    B. miniglia
    C. microglia
    D. macroglia
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  109. Which neuroglia is the phagocyte of the CNS?
    A. minimia
    B. macroglia
    C. microglia
    D. miniglia
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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