Section GRASS CATCHER v 4.0

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  1. What are the key components of a professional verbal report for a medical pt?
    A) paramedic identification, pt age & gender, MOI, plan
    B) paramedic identification, pt name, age & gender, MOI, plan
    C) paramedic identification, pt name, age & gender, subjective data, objective data, plan
    D) paramedic identification, pt gender, subjective data, plan
    C) paramedic identification, pt name, age & gender, subjective data, objective data, plan
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. (09-007)
    Increased blood calcium levels are stimulated by a hormone secreted by the pea-sized
    A) ovaries or testes
    B) parathyroid glands
    C) adult thalamus
    D) thyroid gland
    E) posterior pituitary gland
    B) parathyroid glands
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. parathyroid glands
    • endocrine gland
    • very small (5mm/35-40mg)
    • 4 are located on the posterior lateral surfaces of the thyroid
    • secrete parathyroid hormone (PTH)
    • increases blood calcium levels
  4. glucocorticoids are secreted by the...
    adrenal glands
  5. (09-038)
    Very slow onset of diabetic emergency signs and symptoms, requiring several days to manifest, is most commonly associated with
    (1) diabetic ketoacidosis
    (2) hypoglycemia
    (3) a hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic diabetic emergency
    A) 2
    B) 3
    C) 1, 2, & 3
    D) 1 & 3
    E) 1
    B) 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. (09-111)
    Blood type O contains
    A) antibody A, antibody B, & no antigen
    B) antigen A, antigen B, & no antibody
    C) antigen B and antibody A
    D) no antigen and no antibody
    E) antigen A and antibody B
    A) antibody A, antibody B, & no antigen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. (09-112)
    Blood type AB contains
    A) antigen A, antigen B, & no antibody
    B) antigen A and antibody B
    C) antibody A, antibody B, & no antigen
    D) no antigen and no antibody
    E) antigen B and antibody A
    A) antigen A, antigen B, & no antibody
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. (12-094)
    Wh/ of the following criteria is not considered a potential contraindication for fibrinolytic administration consideration?
    A) pt has a heart rate greater than 100bpm, w/ a systolic B/P < 100 mmHg
    B) pt has a persistent diastolic B/P > 110 mmHg
    C) pt is pregnant
    D) pt has a hx of chronic bleeding or clotting problems, or is currently taking a prescribed blood thinner
    E) pt has a persistent systolic B/P > 180 mmHg
    A) pt has a heart rate greater than 100bpm, w/ a systolic B/P < 100 mmHg
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. (12-095)
    Wh/ of the following criteria is considered a potential contraindication for fibrinolytic administration consideration?
    A) pt had a witnessed seizure when the S/Sx began
    B) pt is already exhibiting neurological deficits
    C) pt had major surgery 20 days ago
    D) pt is 20 y/o
    E) pt was the victim of serious trauma 15 days ago
    A) pt had a witnessed seizure when the S/Sx began
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. (12-096)
    To assess for breathing, every rescuer should position the unconscious victim so that he has an open airway, then look, listen, and feel for breathing for up to 10 seconds. Wh/ of the following statements regarding initiation of rescue breaths (ventilation) is true?
    (1) if the lay rescuer or EMT is not confident that the victim is breathing w/in 10 seconds, rescue breathing should immediately be started
    (2) if a lay rescuer is unwilling to give an apneic victim resue breaths via mouth-to-mouth, she or he should immediately begin to perform chest compressions w/out pausing to check for a pulse
    (3) if the victim is occasionally "gasping" for breath, rescue breathing (or mechanical ventilation) should not be initiated until after a pulse check is performed
    A) 1
    B) 3
    C) 2
    D) 1 & 2
    E) 1 & 3
    D) 1 & 2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. (12-104)
    The compression-to-ventilation ratio 2 lay rescuers should perform for cardiopulmonary arrest victims aged 1-8 y/o is
    A) 15:2
    B) 15:1
    C) 5:1
    D) 30:2
    E) 30:1
    D) 30:2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. (12-105)
    The compression-to-ventilation ratio 2 lay rescuers should perform for cardiopulmonary arrest victims aged 1-12 y/o is
    A) 15:1
    B) 30:2
    C) 30:1
    D) 5:1
    E) 15:2
    E) 15:2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. Anterior Hemiblock Axis
    Left
  14. Posterior Hemiblock Axis
    Right
  15. (14-015)
    A right bundle branch block (RBBB) is recognized by observing
    (1) a "rabbit ears" QRS configuration in lead II
    (2) an RSR' QRS configuration in V1 (or MCL1
    (3) a downward deflection of the last portion of the QRS complex in V1 (or MCL1)
    a) 1
    b) 2
    c) 3
    d) 1 or 3
    e) 2 or 3
    b) 2
  16. (14-017)
    When a hemiblock is present, the QRS complex will
    A) always be within normal limits. If it is not, a hemiblock cannot be detected.
    B) be within normal limits, unless a RBBB is present
    C) be >= 0.12 sec only if the larger (posterior) fascicle is blocked
    D) always be >= to 0.12 sec (no matter which fascicle is blocked)
    E) be >= 0.12 sec only if the larger (anterior) fascicle is blocked
    B) be within normal limits, unless a RBBB is present
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. (14-018)
    Wh/ of the following criteria are (or may be) present when the pt has an anterior hemiblock?
    (1) normal axis
    (2) pathological left axis
    (3) physiologic left axis
    (4) right axis
    (5) right shoulder/extreme right axis
    (6) a RBBB
    (7) a LBBB
    (8) QRS >= 0.12 sec
    (9) QRS < 0.12 sec
    A) 1 & 8
    B) 8, w/ 1, 2, 3, 4, or 5
    C) 4 & 6 or 9
    D) 2 & 6 or 9
    E) 3 or 4, & 9
    D) 2 & 6 or 9
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. (14-019)
    Wh/ of the following criteria are (or may be) present when the pt has an posterior hemiblock?
    (1) normal axis
    (2) pathological left axis
    (3) physiologic left axis
    (4) right axis
    (5) right shoulder/extreme right axis
    (6) a RBBB
    (7) a LBBB
    (8) QRS >= 0.12 sec
    (9) QRS < 0.12 sec
    A) 2 & 6 or 9
    B) 1 & 8
    C) 8, w/ 1, 2, 3, 4, or 5
    D) 4 & 6 or 9
    E) 3 or 4, & 9
    D) 4 & 6 or 9
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. (C11-014)
    What are the four thinking styles a paramedic can use when faced with a problem?
    A) reactive, impulsive, divergent, convergent
    B) reflective, impulsive, divergent, convergent
    C) reflective, impulsive, divergent, congruent
    D) reflective, impulsive, dilemination, convergent
    B) reflective, impulsive, divergent, convergent
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. (C11-019)
    Typical S/Sx of MAO inhibitor overdose include...
    A) headache, severe hypertension w/ bradycardia, palpitations
    B) rapid RR, headache, pulmonary edema
    C) blurred vision, urinary retention, hypothermia
    D) rigidity, headache, ABD cramps
    A) headache, severe hypertension w/ bradycardia, palpitations
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. MAO inhibitor (Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors)
    • Used in treatment of
    • 1. depression
    • 2. parkinsons (targeting MAO-B in particular [therefore affecting dopaminergic neurons])
    • Drugs in class...
    • Selegiline
    • Phenelzine
    • Tranylcypromine
    • Isocarboxazid
    • Rasagiline
    • Selegiline hydrochloride
    • Phenelzine Sulfate
    • Rasagiline mesylate
    • Tranylcypromine sulfate
  22. Phases in body's response to burns
    • 1) emergent phase
    • 2) fluid shift phase (lasts 18 to 24 hours, peaks 6 to 8 hours)
    • xxxx) extravascular phase (not really a phase)
    • 3) hypermetabolic phase
    • 4) resolution phase (scar)
  23. Parkland Formula
    fluid volume = 4 X wt in kg X % body burned X 100

    • fluid volume = 4 X 75kg X 20% X 100
    • 6000 ml w/in 1st 24 hours
    • (50% 1st 8 hours & 50% last 16 hours)
  24. (C11-029)
    Which of the following is not a colloid solution?
    A) dextran
    B) plasma protein fraction
    C) salt poor albumin
    D) sodium bicarb
    D) sodium bicarb
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. Water evaporates from the lungs and skin ata rate of aprox ____?
    600ml/day
  26. You and your partner have a pt in your care who has suffered multi-system trauma cue to a MVC. What is the appropriate level trauma facility to take your pt to for care?
    A) district trauma centre
    B) secondary trauma centre
    C) tertiary trauma centre
    D) primary trauma centre
    C) tertiary trauma centre
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. tertiary trauma centre (TTC)
    pediatric or adult centre that has been designated and funded by a provincial or territorial Ministry of Health. a TTC is the regional referral. often a teaching hospital affiliated w/ a university & involved in trauma research. it is the regional referral centre for seriously injured  pt's. accredited by and follows the Trauma Association of Canada guidelines. 24 hour trauma response team to provide prompt resuscitation and treatment to seriously injured pt's.
  28. district trauma centre (DTC)
    • - designated by a health authority and may function as a trauma centre in smaller communities or support a tertiary centre.
    • - may be a teaching hospital
    • - provides 24 hour trauma team response
  29. primary trauma centre (PTC)
    • - designated by the health authority 
    • - smaller rural medical centre or nursing station that provides initial triage for all trauma situations. refers all but minor trauma to district trauma centre
    • - basic ER staff & equipment 24 hours
  30. (C11-048)
    changes in ventilatory compliance can be measured with wh/ device?
    A) positive end expiratory pressure valve
    B) pressure manometer
    C) pressure compliance flow meter
    D) peak inspiratory pressure valve
    B) pressure manometer
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. Diabetic hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome Diabetic hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS)
    is a complication of type 2 diabetes. It involves extremely high blood sugar (glucose) levels without the presence of ketones. Ketones are waste products of fat breakdown.
  32. (C11-059)
    An unconscious pt is found with rapid and deep respirations with a fruity odor on the breath. With further investigation it is found that the pt is a type 1 diabetic. What is the most appropriate working diagnosis for this pt?
    A) thyrotoxic crisis
    B) hypoglycemia
    C) diabetic ketoacidosis
    D) hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic coma
    C) diabetic ketoacidosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. What is the min flow rate of portable suction equipment when the tube is open?
    A) 30 lpm
    B) 25 lpm
    C) 20 lpm
    D) 35 lpm
    A) 30 lpm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. Types of Aneurysm
    • 1) atherosclerotic
    • 2) dissecting
    • 3) infectious
    • 4) congenital
    • 5) traumatic
  35. Paramedic Association of Canada (PAC)
    • - 1988 replaced the Canadian Society of Ambulance Personnel (CSAP)
    • - Canada's only national EMS org representing prehospital practitioners
    • - > 14K members located in many divisional chapters across Canada
  36. Wernicke's Syndrome
    Brain damage caused by a lack of vitamin B1. It is encephalopathy wh/ causes brain damage in lower parts of the brain called the thalamus and hypothalamus. (Alcoholics)
  37. In hypovolemic shock, wh/ colloid solution would be best to administer?
    A) D5W
    B) normal saline
    C) lactated ringer's
    D) pentastarch
    D) pentastarch
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. Wh of the following is not a characteristic of an emergency medical service?
    A) pt transport
    B) medical direction
    C) system financing
    D) organ transport
    D) organ transport
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. How much weight does a kidney lose between the ages of 30  80?
    A) 1/6
    B) 1/5
    C) 1/4
    D) 1/3
    D) 1/3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. Beck's Triad
    • 1. Distended neck veins
    • 2. Distant heart sounds
    • 3. Hypotension
    • Used to aid in the diagnosis of cardiac tamponade.
  41. Virchow's Triad
    • Presents the three broad categories of factors that are thought to contribute to thrombosis.The triad consists of:
    • 1. Alterations in normal blood flow
    • 2. Injuries to the vascular endothelium
    • 3. Alterations in the constitution of blood (hypercoagulability)
  42. (C12-005)
    What are the 5 different classifications of antibodies present in the human body.
    A) IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, IgM
    B) IgA, IgD, IgF, IgG, IgM
    C) IgA, IgB, IgD, IgE, IgM
    D) IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, IgN
    A) IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, IgM
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. (C12-014)
    What is the max amt of O2 % that can be delivered by simple face mask?
    A) 40-60%
    B) 60-80%
    C) 20-40%
    D) 80-100%
    A) 40-60%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. In relation to burns what is the zone that is nearest the heat source and is characterized by clotted blood and thrombosed blood vessels?
    A) zone of hyperemia
    B) zone of stasis
    C) emergent zone
    D) zone of coagulation
    D) zone of coagulation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. Surfactant is produced by what type of cells that are destroyed by Emphysema?
    A) Type II
    B) Type III
    C) Type IV
    D) Type I
    A) Type II
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. In wh/ stage of hemorrhagic shock would you begin to see a decrease of pulse pressure?
    A) stage 3
    B) stage 4
    C) stage 2
    D) stage 1
    C) stage 2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. Identify the tank factor of an "M" tank?
    A) 0.28
    B) 1.56
    C) 0.16
    D) 0.56
    B) 1.56
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. O2 Cylinder Conversion Factors
    • - D = 0.16
    • - E = 0.28
    • - M = 1.56
    • - G = 2.41
    • - H/K = 3.14
  49. Wh/ of the following illnesses/injuries may result in Somatic pain?
    A) pancreatitis
    B) ruptured gallbladder
    C) abdominal aortic aneurysm
    D) bacterial peritonitis
    D) bacterial peritonitis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. "Somatic"pain
    is caused by injury to skin, muscles, bone, joint, and connective tissues. Deep xxxxx pain is usually described as dull or aching, and localized in one area.
  51. Wh/ hormone promotes water retention by kidney tubules and raises BP by stimulating muscles in the walls of the small arteries?
    A) antidiuretic
    B) aldosterone
    C) corticosteroid
    D) adrenocorticotropic
    A) antidiuretic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. To what height should the patients head be elevated on a spinal board?
    A) 2-5cm
    B) 5-10cm
    C) 1-2cm
    D) 10-15cm
    A) 2-5cm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. Neonate
    A) a fetus up until the time of delivery
    B) an infant from the time of birth to one month of age
    C) a infant from the time of birth until 3 months of age
    D) the baby in the first few hours of life
    B) an infant from the time of birth to one month of age
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. (13-008)
    The actual organ(s) of hearing, where vibrations are translated into nerve impulses, wh/ are then transmitted to the brain by the auditory nerve,
    A) are the semicircular canals
    B) are the ossicles
    C) is the uricle
    D) is the tympanic membrane
    E) is the cochlea
    E) is the cochlea
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. (13-013)
    Although not part of the ear, the _____ is composed of air-filled cells that are continuous with (connected to) the middle ear. Thus pain or tenderness in this area often accompanies an inner ear infection.
    A) maxilla
    B) maxillary bone's styloid process
    C) zygomatic bone
    D) mandible
    E) temporal bone's mastoid process
    E) temporal bone's mastoid process
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. (13-039)
    The acetabulum is
    A) the medical term for the neck of the humerus
    B) the hollow depression of the pelvis where the femoral head articulates
    C) located between the shaft and neck of the femur
    D) the hollow depression where the head of the humerus artuculates
    E) located between the neck and head of the femur
    B) the hollow depression of the pelvis where the femoral head articulates
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. (13-051)
    Each of the large winglike bones of the pelvis is called
    A) an iliac
    B) a pubic bone
    C) an ischium
    D) a sacrum
    E) an ilium
    E) an ilium
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. (13-070)
    The medical term _____ describes movement away from the body.
    A) abduction
    B) flexion
    C) extension
    D) adduction
    E) aversion
    A) abduction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. (13-092)
    A woman who is pregnant for the first time is referred to as a
    a) unigravida
    b) unipara
    c) primagravida
    d) primapara
    e) nulligravida
    c) primagravida
  60. (13-093)
    A woman who has given birth to her first child is referred to as a
    a) unigravida
    b) unipara
    c) primagravida
    d) primapara
    e) nulligravida
    d) primapara
  61. (13-121)
    The complete inability to move one side of the body is called
    A) quadriplegia
    B) hemiphasia
    C) hemiplegia
    D) hemiparesis
    E) paresthesia
    C) hemiplegia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. (13-122)
    The sensation of numbness, "prickling," or "tingling" of one or more body parts is called
    A) hemiphasia
    B) hemiplegia
    C) paresthesia
    D) quadriplegia
    E) hemiparesis
    C) paresthesia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. (13-126)
    The medical term that specifically means impairment of the tongue or impairment of the muscles essential to speech is
    A) dysphasia
    B) dysarthria
    C) aphasia
    D) parephasia
    E) quadriphasia
    B) dysarthria
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. The different types of white blood cells are given as a percentage:
    • Neutrophils: 40 to 60%
    • Lymphocytes: 20 to 40%
    • Monocytes: 2 to 8%
    • Eosinophils: 1 to 4%
    • Basophils: 0.5 to 1%
    • Band (young neutrophil): 0 to 3%
  65. Normally, the most common blood cell type (composing about 45% of the total blood volume) is the
    A) plasmacyte
    B) erythrocyte
    C) platelet
    D) lymphocyte
    E) leukocyte
    B) erythrocyte
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. Another name for red blood cell (RBC)
    erythrocyte
  67. O2 is transported from the lungs to the lungs to the cells by attaching itself to the hemoglobin molecules that are found in
    A) plasmacyte
    B) platelet
    C) erythrocyte
    D) lymphocyte
    E) leukocyte
    C) erythrocyte
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. Responsibility for blood clotting and blood vessel repair is attributed to
    A) plasmacyte
    B) erythrocyte
    C) leukocyte
    D) platelet
    E) lymphocyte
    D) platelet
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. Inadequate cellular oxygenation causes cells to rely soley upon anaerobic metabolism, which
    (1) produces pyruvic acid, which soon converts into lactic acid
    (2) produces lactic acid, which soon converts into pyruvic acid
    (3) if uncorrected, can produce a state of acidosis, which will reduce the ability of hemoglobin to carry O2
    (4) increases aerobic cellular utilization of glucose
    (5) results in high serum glucose (hyperglycemia)
    (6) results in a low serum glucose (hypoglycemia)
    A) 1, 4, and 6
    B) 2, 3, and 5
    C) 2, 4, and 5
    D) 1, 3, and 5
    E) 2, 4, and 6
    D) 1, 3, and 5
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. The medical term for feces that exhibits the obvious presence of red blood ("frank blood") is
    A) hematochezia
    B) melanoma
    C) hematemesis
    D) melena
    E) hemoptysis
    A) hematochezia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. Number of Vertebrae
    • Cervical 7
    • Thoracic 12
    • Lumbar 5
    • Sacral 5 (fused)
    • Coccyx 4 (fused)

    The vertebral column usually consists of 33 vertebrae: 24 presacral vertebrae (7 cervical, 12 thoracic, and 5 lumbar) followed by the sacrum (5 fused sacral vertebrae) and the coccyx (4 frequently fused coccygeal vertebrae)
  72. Murphy's Sign
    • Ask patient to breathe out and then gently placing the hand below the costal margin on the right side at the mid-clavicular line (the approximate location of the gallbladder). The patient is then instructed to inspire (breathe in). Normally, during inspiration, the abdominal contents are pushed downward as the diaphragm moves down (and lungs expand). If the patient stops breathing in (as the gallbladder is tender and, in moving downward, comes in contact with the examiner's fingers) and winces with a 'catch' in breath, the test is considered positive.
    • Typically, it is positive in cholecystitis.
  73. McBurney's Point
    Point over the right side of the abdomen that is one-third of the distance from the anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus (navel). This point roughly corresponds to the most common location of the base of the appendix where it is attached to the cecum.
  74. Cullen's Sign
    • Superficial edema and bruising in the subcutaneous fatty tissue around the umbilicus.
    • This sign takes 24–48 hours to appear and can predict acute pancreatitis, with mortality rising from 8–10% to 40%.
  75. Grey-Turners Sign
    Bruising of the flanks, the part of the body between the last rib and the top of the hip. The bruising appears as a blue discoloration, and is a sign of retroperitoneal hemorrhage, or bleeding behind the peritoneum, which is a lining of the abdominal cavity. Grey Turner's sign takes 24–48 hours to develop, and can predict a severe attack of acute pancreatitis.
  76. (03-009)
    The symbol for phosphate is _____.
    A) HPO2+
    B) HPO4-
    C) H2O3+
    D) H2O3-
    E) HCO2-
    B) HPO4-
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. (03-016)
    Movement of a solute across a semipermeable membrane is called
    A) simple transfer
    B) diffusion
    C) diaphoresis
    D) osmosis
    E) suffusion
    B) diffusion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. (03-017)
    Movement of a solvent across a semipermeable membrane, the fastest
    A) simple transfer
    B) suffusion
    C) diaphoresis
    D) osmosis
    E) diffusion
    D) osmosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. (03-018)
    Of the following ways in which substances move across a semipermeable membrane, the fastest is
    A) osmosis
    B) diffusion
    C) diaphoresis
    D) simple transfer
    E) suffusion
    A) osmosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. (03-019)
    Electrolytes move across a semipermeable membrane using
    A) suffusion
    B) osmosis
    C) simple transfer
    D) diffusion
    E) diaphoresis
    D) diffusion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. (03-020)
    Water will move across a semipermeable membrane using
    A) simple transfer
    B) osmosis
    C) diaphoresis
    D) diffusion
    E) suffusion
    B) osmosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. (03-025)
    Prehospital intravenous fluid replacement is initiated with
    A) isotonic osmolloid solutions
    B) colloid solutions
    C) hypertonic osmolloid solutions
    D) crystalloid solutions
    E) hypotonic osmolloid solutions
    D) crystalloid solutions
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. (03-026)
    XXX A greater increase in intravascular fluid can be accomplished sooner with infusion of
    A) hypertonic osmolloid solutions
    B) hypotonic osmolloid solutions
    C) isotonic osmolloid solutions
    D) colloid solutions
    E) crystalloid solutions
    D) colloid solutions
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. (03-027)
    Normal saline (NS) & 5% dextrose in water (D5W) are examples of
    A) colloid solutions
    B) hypertonic osmolloid solutions
    C) isotonic osmolloid solutions
    D) hypotonic osmolloid solutions
    E) crystalloid solutions
    E) crystalloid solutions
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. (03-028)
    Plasmanate and Hetastarch are examples of
    A) hypotonic osmolloid solutions
    B) colloid solutions
    C) hypertonic osmolloid solutions
    D) isotonic osmolloid solutions
    E) crystalloid solutions
    B) colloid solutions
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. (03-029)
    Lactated Ringer's (LR or RL) is an example of
    A) isotonic osmolloid solutions
    B) hypotonic osmolloid solutions
    C) crystalloid solutions
    D) hypertonic osmolloid solutions
    E) colloid solutions
    C) crystalloid solutions
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. (03-033)
    If a normally hydrated person receives an infusion of _____ solution, fluid will shift from the intracellular to the extracellular compartments.
    A) a hypertonic
    B) an isotonic
    C) an isotonic or hypertonic
    D) a hypotonic
    E) an isotonic or hypotonic
    A) a hypertonic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. (03-044)
    Wh/ of the following statements about carbonic acid is false?
    A) Erythrocytes contain an enzyme that can speed the breakdown of carbonic acid.
    B) A decrease in hydrogen ions results in an increase in carbonic acid.
    C) Because it is unstable, carbonic acid will eventually dissociate into water (H2O)  and carbon dioxide (CO3).
    D) Compared to pure hydrogen, carbonic acid is a weak acid.
    E) Carbonic acid can dissociate into hydrogen and bicarbonate.
    B) A decrease in hydrogen ions results in an increase in carbonic acid.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. (03-056)
    The official name for epinephrine is
    A) epinephrine hydrochloride
    B) beta-(3,4-dihydroxyphenl)-a-methylaminoethanlo
    C) adrenalin
    D) epinephrine hydrochloride, U.S.P.
    E) epi
    D) epinephrine hydrochloride, U.S.P.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. (03-057)
    The chemical name for epinephrine is
    A) epi
    B) epinephrine hydrochloride
    C) beta-(3,4-dihydroxyphenl)-a-methylaminoethanlo
    D) epinephrine hydrochloride, U.S.P.
    E) adrenalin
    C) beta-(3,4-dihydroxyphenl)-a-methylaminoethanlo
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. (03-059)The trade or proprietary name for epinephrine is
    A) beta-(3,4-dihydroxyphenl)-a-methylaminoethanlo
    B) epinephrine hydrochloride, U.S.P.
    C) epinephrine hydrochloride
    D) adrenalin
    E) epi
    D) adrenalin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. (03-061)
    When alcohol is used to chemically extract a drug, the resulting preparation is called a
    A) syrup
    B) tincture
    C) suspension
    D) solution
    E) spirit
    B) tincture
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. (03-074)
    Examples of the _____ route of medication administration include IV, IM, or SQ
    A) noninjectable
    B) transenteral
    C) parenteral
    D) injectable
    E) enteral
    C) parenteral
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. (03-075)
    Examples of the _____ route of medication administration include intraosseous, inhalation, or transdermal administration
    A) enteral
    B) noninjectable
    C) transenteral
    D) injectable
    E) parenteral
    E) parenteral
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. (03-076)
    Vaginal administration of a drug is an example of the _____ route of medication administration.
    A) parenteral
    B) noninjectable
    C) enteral
    D) injectable
    E) transenteral
    A) parenteral
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. (03-088)
    Renal vasodilation occurs in response to
    A) stimulation of beta 2 receptors
    B) stimulation of beta 1 receptors
    C) stimulation of alpha 1 receptors
    D) stimulation of dopaminergic receptors
    E) stimulation by acetylcholine release
    D) stimulation of dopaminergic receptors
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. (03-092)
    Admin of an adrenergic drug results in
    (1) sympathetic nervous system stimulation
    (2) inhibition or blocking of sympathetic nervous system stimulation
    (3) parasympathetic nervous system stimulation
    A) 2
    B) 2 and 3
    C) 1 and 3
    D) 3
    E) 1
    E) 1
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. (03-093)
    Admin of an antiadrenergic drug results in
    (1) sympathetic nervous system stimulation
    (2) inhibition or blocking of sympathetic nervous system stimulation
    (3) parasympathetic nervous system stimulation
    A) 1
    B) 2 and 3
    C) 2
    D) 3
    E) 1 and 3
    C) 2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. (03-094)
    Admin of an sympatholytic drug results in
    (1) sympathetic nervous system stimulation
    (2) inhibition or blocking of sympathetic nervous system stimulation
    (3) parasympathetic nervous system stimulation
    A) 3
    B) 2
    C) 1 and 3
    D) 1
    E) 2 and 3
    B) 2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. (03-095)Admin of an sympathomimetic drug results in
    (1) sympathetic nervous system stimulation
    (2) inhibition or blocking of sympathetic nervous system stimulation
    (3) parasympathetic nervous system stimulation
    A) 2 and 3
    B) 3
    C) 1
    D) 2
    E) 1 and 3
    C) 1
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. (03-096)
    Medications that stimulate parasympathetic nervous system actions are known as
    (1) parasympathomimetics
    (2) cholinergics
    (3) parasympathetic nervous system stimulation
    A) 2
    B) 1 and 2
    C) 1
    D) 3
    E) 1 and 3
    B) 1 and 2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. (03-097)
    Medications that block parasympathetic nervous system actions are known as
    (1) cholinergic blockers
    (2) parasympatholytics
    (3) anticholinergics
    A) 3
    B) 2
    C) 1 and 2
    D) 1, 2 and 3
    E) 1
    D) 1, 2 and 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. (03-009)
    Which of the following statements regarding colloidal IV fluids is false?
    (1) Colloid IV solutions contain large proteins that cannot easily pass across the capillary cell membrane
    (2) Colloids have osmotic properties that cause water to be drawn from the surrounding, extravascular spaces into the circulatory system
    (3) Colloidal IV fluids remain in the circulatory system longer than crystalloid solutions
    A) 2
    B) 1
    C) 3
    D) 1 and 2 are true
    E) 1, 2 and 3 are true
    E) 1, 2 and 3 are true
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. (03-110)
    Which of the following statements regarding crystalloidal IV fluids is false?
    A) Crystalloid IV solutions are available as isotonic solutions, hypertonic solutions, or solutions
    B) Because all crystalloid solutions contain glucose (wh/ prevents effective fluid replacement), colloid solutions are preferred for prehospital fluid replacement
    C) 3 milliliters of crystalloid solution is required to effectively replace each milliliter of blood loss
    D) Crystalloid solutions are the primary prehospital IV solutions
    E) Consisting primarily of electrolytes and water, crystalloid solutions lack larger proteins
    B) Because all crystalloid solutions contain glucose (wh/ prevents effective fluid replacement), colloid solutions are preferred for prehospital fluid replacement
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. (04-012)
    Which of the following statements regarding isoproterenol (Isuprel) is false?
    A) may be considered for admin when torsades de pointes is associated with bradycardia and drug-induced QT prolongation
    B) primarily acts only on beta-adrenergic receptors
    C) it increases cardiac output by increasing the heart rate and strength of contractility
    D) is still used to increase blood pressure when cardiogenic shock or asystole is refractory to epinephrine and atropine
    E) increases myocardial O2 demand and can increase the size of a myocardial infart
    D) is still used to increase blood pressure when cardiogenic shock or asystole is refractory to epinephrine and atropine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. Verapamil trade names...
    Isoptin and Calan
  107. (04-040)
    Which of the following is/are the accepted IV dose regimen(s) for verapamil admin
    (1) 2.5-5.0mg IV over 2 min
    (2) 2.5-5.0mg IV over 2 min; followed by 1 or more repeat doses of 5-10mg IV every 15-30 min (if needed), each infused over 2 min, not to exceed a total dose of 20 mg
    (3) 5mg bolus every 15 min, not to exceed total dose 30mg
    A) 3
    B) 1
    C) 2
    D) 1 and 2
    E) 1, 2 or 3
    E) 1, 2 or 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
Author:
thom.mccusker@gmail.com
ID:
315426
Card Set:
Section GRASS CATCHER v 4.0
Updated:
2016-02-16 22:12:36
Tags:
CanadaMedic
Folders:
CanadaMedic
Description:
various questions from all sections and Medavie Health
Show Answers: