Chapter 8

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  1. What is the Minimum En-route Altitude (MEA)?
    MEA represents the lowest published altitude between radio fixes that assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements between those fixes.
  2. What is the Minimum Grid Altitude (MGA)?
    MGA represents the lowest safe altitude which can be flown off-track.
  3. What is the Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA)
    MSA represents the safe altitude around a navigation station or aerodrome reference point and sectors and values are officially published by State authorities.
  4. What is the Minimum Terrain Clearance Altitude (MTCA)?
    MTCA represents an altitude providing terrain and obstacle clearance for all ATS routes, all STAR (up to IAF or equivalent end point) and for selected airports on SID segments.
  5. Minimum safe en-route altitude shall clear all obstacles within 5 NM of designated route
    centerline by:
    1,000 ft if the reference point is not higher than 5,000 ft MSL; or

    2,000 ft if the reference point is higher than 5,000 ft MSL.
  6. No turn shall be made before ___ AGL after takeoff (except special airport operations published by the Flight Performance and Planning Department).

    A) 800'
    B) 400'
    C) 1500'
    D) 1000'
    B) 400'
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. 1.Once an IFR altitude is accepted, any temperature correction must be applied to compensate for cold temperature.

    2.ATC should be informed about the amount of correction applied to any published procedure altitude.

    A) False False
    B) False True
    C) Ture False
    D) True True
    B) False True
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. How to make a low temperature correction for temperatures above –15°C?
    An approximate correction is 4% height increase for every 10°C below standard temperature as measured at the altimeter setting source
  9. When using QNH altimeter settings, low pressure altitude correction is required. True or false?

    It is not required
  10. For two-engined airplanes the take-off alternate aerodrome shall be no further from the departure aerodrome than:
    (a) one hour flying time at the one engine inoperative cruising speed according to the AFM in still air standard conditions based on the actual take-off mass; or

    (b) the ETOPS diversion time approved, subject to any MEL restriction, up to a maximum of two hours, at the one engine inoperative cruising speed according to the AFM in still air standard conditions based on the actual take-off mass
  11. What are the 3 criterias for No alternate operation?
    1.The duration of the planned flight from take-off to landing or, in the event of in-flight re-planning, the remaining flying time to destination does not exceed 6 hours

    2.Two separate runways (runways which are constructed with separate landing surfaces but the runways may overlay or cross, but if one runway is blocked, it shall not prevent operations on the other runway and each runway shall have a separate approach procedure based on a separate navigation aid) are available and usable at the destination aerodrome

    3.The appropriate weather reports and/or forecasts for the destination aerodrome indicate that, for the period from one hour before until one hour after the expected time of arrival at the destination aerodrome:

      a)the ceiling will be at least 2000 ft or circling height + 500 ft, whichever is greater

      b)the ground visibility will be at least 5 km.
  12. When should be selected two destination alternate aerodromes?
    1.The appropriate weather reports and/or forecasts for the destination aerodrome indicate that during a period commencing 1 hour before and ending 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival, the weather conditions will be below the applicable planning minima

    2.No meteorological information is available.
  13. The CTOT is defined as a specified time with a tolerance of minus ___ min to plus ___ min which the aeroplane shall commence take-off.

    A) 5 and 10
    B) 10 and 10
    C) 10 and 5
    D) 5 and 5
    A) 5 and 10
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. If the CTOT more than 60 minuter what will be the action?
    Passenger boarding and airplane handling shall aim for a departure time approximately halfway between STD and CTOT-5 min.
  15. What is the Narrow runway?
    Runway whose width is less than 40 meters.
  16. Take-offs and landings shall not be conducted on runways with a width of less than ___ m.

    A) 27
    B) 33
    C) 30
    D) 36
    C) 30
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. For narrow or short runway operation flight crew members have been trained and certified accordingly by the Turkish Airlines Flight Training Department.

    Narrow or Short runway take-off and landings may only be conducted by the Commander (seated in the left hand seat) or co-pilot (P3-P4 seated in the right hand seat). -

    A) False True
    B) Ture False
    C) True True
    D) False False
    C) True True
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. What is formula of the crosswind reduction for narrow runways?
    (147 - NARROW RWY WIDTH)x0.1
  19. Braking action shall be available and classified as ___ for all narrow runway operations
    when deemed necessary.

    A) MEDIUM or better
    B) POOR to MEDIUM or better
    C) GOOD
    D) MEDIUM to GOOD or better
    C) GOOD
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. The following 5 aeroplane systems shall be fully operational for narrow runway operations:
    (1)  flight controls;

    (2)  all wheel braking units;

    (3)  nose wheel steering;

    (4)  anti-skid system; and

    (5)  all reversers.
  21. What is the Short runway?
    Runway whose length is less than 6500'.
  22. The following 6 aeroplane systems shall be fully operational for short runway operations:
    (1)  flight controls;

    (2)  all wheel braking units;

    (3)  auto-brake system;

    (4)  nose wheel steering;

    (5)  anti-skid system; and

    (6)  all reversers.
  23. What is the max tailwind component for short runways?

    A) 12 Kt
    B) 7 Kt
    C) 5 Kt
    D) 15 Kt
    C) 5 Kt
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. For short runways; runway of intended landing shall be equipped with a VASI or PAPI which provides a normal glide path (same as the glide slope limits dictated in the AFM for the applicable aeroplane type). VASI or PAPI requirement may be replaced with an operable glide slope of an ILS. True or false?
  25. For short runway operations; aerodrome operating minima visibility shall be at or above ___ (regardless of the type of approach to be conducted, higher values if minima dictate as such);

    A) 10000m
    B) 5000m
    C) 3000m
    D) 1500m
    D) 1500m
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. 1.For Short and Narrow Runway Operations; In case of Commander incapacitation, the flight crew member seated on the right hand seat may continue the approach if he deems a safe, stabilized approach and landing can be made.

    2.Short and narrow runway landing and takeoffs shall only be conducted by the Commander seated in the left hand seat.

    A) False False
    B) True True
    C) Ture False
    D) False True
    D) False True
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. An approach with a higher descent angle/gradient than ___ degrees for CAT I operations, ___ degrees for CAT II/III operations and ___% for NPAs is considered a steep approach and all steep approaches must be flown fully stabilized and in landing configuration beyond the FAF.
    • 3.5
    • 3
    • 7
  28. Which criteria are required for night operations?
    1. For runway of intended landing:

     (a)  threshold lights;

     (b)  runway edge lights;

     (c) runway end lights (may be replaced by the threshold lights at the runway extremity);

     (d) VASI or PAPI system (may be replaced with an operable glide slope of an ILS); and

     (e) a straight-in-approach procedure: an approach with a published straight-in-landing minima or a straight-in-approach (aligned to within 15 degrees of runway centerline) followed by a circle-to-land.

    2. For runway of intended departure:

     (a) runway edge lights (may be replaced by the threshold lights at the runway extremity);

     (b)  runway end lights; and

     (c)  a published SID, if not available, published EOSID (if the EOSID is used, ATC shall be informed).
  29. For night operations on narrow runways, Which 2 criteria are required for the runway of intended landing?
    1.  straight in approach procedure (circle-to-land is prohibited); and

    2.  an approach lighting system (any classification).
  30. What is the minimum Fire Fighting and Rescue Services (FFRS) catagory for B737?

    1. Departure and Destination Aerodrome: 6*

    2. Departure, Destination and En-Route Alternate Aerodrome: 4**

    3. ETOPS and Fuel En-Route Alternate Aerodrome: 4*


    1. Departure and Destination Aerodrome: 7*

    2. Departure, Destination and En-Route Alternate Aerodrome: 5**

    3. ETOPS and Fuel En-Route Alternate Aerodrome: 4*

    *For normal operations, the required level of protection category may be reduced by max 1 category below the require

    **May be used for departure and destination aerodromes, in case of temporary downgrade
  31. Whenever reported crosswind component of the runway intended to land is or expected to be more than ___ Kts pilot in command shall be PF.

    A) 12
    B) 20
    C) 10
    D) 15
    D) 15
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. Flight operations shall not commence or be conducted if the reported speed of surface wind including the gust factor is above ___ kts.

    A) 40
    B) 50
    C) 25
    D) 35
    B) 50
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. What are the maximum wind components as a factor of braking action?
    Image Upload

    Note 1: With one of the spoiler, anti-skid or reverser systems inoperative, take-off and landing shall not be conducted on runways with medium/poor braking coefficient conditions.

    Note 4: For non-narrow runway operations, if the crosswind value is within limits for the take-off alternate aerodrome, maximum crosswind limit may be increased to 30 kts for the take off aerodrome.

    Note 6: May be increased up to 15 its if approved by the applicable airplane type AFM and/or FCOM, unless local restrictions contradicts.
  34. What are the required Take-Off RVR/VIS (Without An Approval For Low Visibility Take-Off)?
    Image Upload
  35. What are the approach minima by the type of approach (Approach System Minima)?
    Image Upload
  36. When should not be used a conversion from meteorological visibility to RVR/CMV?
    1. When reported RVR is available;

    2. For calculating take-off minima; and

    3. For any RVR minima less than 800 m.
  37. If both RVR and visibility are reported, ___ is controlling factor.

    A) RVR
    B) Visibility
    C) lowest value
    D) highest value
    A) RVR
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. For such minima, a reported visibility value may be converted to RVR/CMV as long as the
    result is ___m or above.

    A) 800
    B) 1500
    C) 1000
    D) 550
    A) 800
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. What is the formula of the conversion of reported meteorological visibility to RVR/CMV?
    Image Upload

    Reported VIS shall be taken 1:1 as RVR identical values (no conversion is allowed) if limiting suffix "R" is shown.
  40. What are the the MDH and minimum visibility by aeroplane category for circling approach?
    Image Upload
  41. If the reported RVR/VIS is less than the applicable minimum the approach shall not be continued below ___ ft AGL or DA/MDA whichever is higher. If, after passing ___ ft AGL, the reported RVR/VIS falls below the applicable minimum, the approach may be continued to DA/H or MDA/H.

    A) 550'
    B) 1500'
    C) 800'
    D) 1000'
    D) 1000'
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. What are the 10 Visual References for NPA, APV and CAT I Operations?
    1.  elements of the approach lighting system;

    2.  the threshold;

    3.  the threshold markings;

    4.  the threshold lights;

    5.  the threshold identification lights;

    6.  the visual glide slope indicator;

    7. the touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings;

    8. the touchdown zone lights;

    9. FATO/runway edge lights; and

    10. lateral element of the ground pattern (i.e. an approach lighting crossbar, landing threshold, a barrette of the TDZ).
  43. What is the Planning Minima for Destination Aerodrome Other Than an Isolated Destination Aerodrome?
    -RVR/visibility (VIS) specified in accordance with Subchapter 8.1.3

    -for an NPA or a circling operation, the ceiling at or above MDH


    two destination alternate aerodromes are selected.
  44. What is the Planning Minima for a Destination Alternate, Isolated, Fuel En-Route Alternate (Fuel ERA) or En-Route Alternate (ERA) Aerodrome?
    Image Upload
  45. In planning phase, if weather forecast which is including "BECMG" or “TEMPO” is below the minima, it  ___ be classified as below minima.

    If weather forecast which is including "PROB", “PROB 30/40” or “PROB TEMPO” is below the minima, it ___ be classified as below minima.

    For operations within the Commonwealth of Independent States (C.I.S) and PRC with forecasts containing the prefix “TEMPO” ___ be classified as below minima.

    A) shall not - shall not - shall
    B) shall - shall not - shall not
    C) shall not - shall - shall
    D) shall - shall - shall not
    B) shall - shall not - shall not
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. The reserve fuel consisting of 4 items below;
    -contingency fuel;

    -alternate fuel, if a destination alternate aerodrome is required;

    -final reserve fuel; and

    -additional fuel, if required by the type of operation; and
  47. What is the required fuel for 10 min taxi and 1 hour APU for B737?

    A) 120 - 120
    B) 105 - 120
    C) 120 - 105
    D) 105 - 105
    C) 120 - 105
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. Contingency fuel which shall be the higher of:
    • 1. Either:
    •  a.5 % of the planned trip fuel or, in the event of in-flight re-planning, 5% of the trip fuel for the remainder of the flight;

     b.not less than 3 % of the planned trip fuel or, in the event of in-flight re- planning, 3% of the trip fuel for the remainder of the flight, provided that an ERA is available

    2. or an amount to fly for 5 minutes at holding speed at 1 500 ft (450 m), above the destination aerodrome in standard conditions.
  49. What is Final reserve fuel?
    Final reserve fuel, which shall be fuel to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions, calculated with the estimated mass on arrival at the destination alternate aerodrome or the destination aerodrome, when no destination alternate aerodrome is required.
  50. How to calculate location of the fuel ERA aerodrome for purposes of reducing contingency fuel to 3%?
    Image Upload
  51. What are the fuel planning procedures?
    Basic Procedure

    Reduced Contingency Fuel (RCF) Procedure

    Predetermined Point (PDP) Procedure

    Isolated Aerodrome Procedure
  52. In cold weather operations Takeoff is prohibited if any of the following conditions exist  (4):
    (1) snow, ice or frost deposits are adhering to the wings, control surfaces, engines or propellers and any other stabilizing surfaces of the aeroplane including horizontal and vertical stabilizers;

    (2)  heavy fall of wet snow with ambient temperature around freezing point;

    (3)  moderate or heavy freezing rain;

    (4)  the runway braking action is reported as "poor" (braking coefficient less than 0.25).
  53. Lowest Operational Use Temperature (LOUT) is:
    (1) The lowest temperature at which the fluid meets the aerodynamic acceptance test for a given type of aeroplane or

    (2) The freezing point of the fluid plus the freezing point buffer of 10 °C (18 °F) for Type I fluid and 7 °C (13 °F) for Type II, III or IV fluids.
  54. Explain Strategic Lateral Offset Procedures (SLOP):
    (A) Certain airspaces make use of SLOP and specific guidelines exist in these cases. Flight crews should familiarise themselves with these procedures; in brief there are only three positions that an aeroplane may fly; on centreline, 1 NM or 2 NM right of centerline. Aeroplane without automatic offset programming capability must fly the centerline. For details refer to OM Part C (LIDO Route Manual).

    (B) In other areas where SLOP are not in use and where Commander considers a higher than normal potential for traffic conflict exists such as:

    (1)  African routes, where In-flight Broadcast Procedures (IFBP) are in use,

    (2)  While climbing or descending on airways, where it is known that bidirectional traffic exists, 1.0 nm right offset may be flown. This offset navigation procedure is subject to the following restrictions:

    • (a)  the aeroplane is not operating below MSA;
    • (b)  the aeroplane is not following SIDs, STARs or radar vectors;
    • (c)  the aeroplane is not operating in designated European B-RNAV airspace or routes, or in any area where RNP5 or better is required;
    • (d)  navigation accuracy is assured; and
    • (e)  subject to prior ATC approval.
  55. In RVSM, at intervals of approximately 1 hour, cross checks between the primary altimeters shall be made. A minimum of two will need to agree within ____.

    A) 250'
    B) 300'
    C) 200'
    D) 150'
    C) 200'
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. The response to a GPWS/TAWS warning may be limited to that which is appropriate for a caution, only if: 8.3.5
    (1)  The aeroplane is being operated by day in clear visual conditions, and

    (2)  It is immediately clear to the Commander that the aeroplane is in no danger in respect of its configuration, proximity to terrain or current flight path.

    (3) It is emphasized that even if a warning is anticipated or suspected to be false or nuisance, immediate and aggressive action is required by the flight crew unless it is beyond doubt that the items under (1) and (2) above can be complied with.
  57. For “commitment to stay”, the following 4 requirements must be fulfilled:
    (1) an EAT (Expected Approach Time) must be received from ATC so that the Commander may calculate that the remaining fuel after landing will be more than the final reserve fuel;

    (2)  two separate (not intersecting) and suitable runways are available;

    (3)  the weather conditions at EAT will be at or above the applicable minima for the intended approach for both suitable runways;

    (4) any limitation related to one engine inoperative operations are taken into account.
  58. Weather Radar echoes shall be avoided according to the following table:
    Image Upload
  59. If storm clouds have to be overflown, always maintain at least ___ ft vertical separation from cloud tops.

    A) 1500
    B) 3000
    C) 1000
    D) 5000
    D) 5000
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. When flying in an area where thunderstorm(s) exists and is unavoidable, the following preparations should be made following 5 items;
    (1)  monitor weather radar;

    (2)  if possible, advise cabin crew in advance about the adverse weather ahead and switch on the seat belt signs;

    (3) fasten shoulder harnesses;

    (4) switch on flight deck lighting to high intensity to avoid dazzling by lightning in thunderstorm; and

    (5) aeroplane should be flown in accordance with turbulence penetration procedures laid out on OM Part B and applicable FCOM.
  61. Icing conditions exist when OAT (on the ground) or TAT (in-flight) is:
  62. 10C or below (except when SAT is below -40C) and visible moisture (clouds, fog/mist with visibility of 1600m (one mile) or less, rain, snow, sleet, ice crystals) is present, or ice, snow, slush or standing water Is present on the ramps, taxiways or runways.
  63. When encountering ash cloud the following 6 procedures are recommended;
    (1)  fly on the upwind side,

    (2)  declare an emergency,

    (3)  do not climb in order to overfly the ash cloud,

    (4)  try to escape the ash cloud by descending and flying a 180 degrees turn (if terrain clearance permits),

    (5)  Plan to land at the nearest suitable airport.

    (6)  If the visibility through the windshield is impaired a runway with autoland capabilit should be considered.
  64. In falling or blowing snow, landing lights should be used with caution as the reflected light may actually reduce the effective visibility and even cause false impression of drift during flare and roll-out. TRUE or FALSE?
  65. What is the minimum wake turbulance separation?
    • Non-radar separation:
    • Image Upload

    • Radar separation:
    • Image Upload
  66. What is the meaning of Alert High? 8.4.1
  67. A specified radio height, based on the characteristics of the aeroplane and its fail-operational landing system. In operational use, if a failure occurred above the alert height in one of the required redundant operational systems in the aeroplane (including, where appropriate, ground roll guidance and the reversionary mode in a hybrid system), the approach would be discontinued and a go around executed unless reversion to a higher decision height is possible. If a failure in one of the required redundant operational systems occurred below the alert height, it would be ignored and the approach continued.
  68. What are meanings of Fail-Passive and Fail-operational? 8.4.1
    Fail-Passive Flight Control System: a flight control system is fail-passive if, in the event of a failure, there is no significant out-of-trim condition or deviation of flight path or attitude but the landing is not completed automatically. For a fail-passive automatic flight control system the pilot assumes control of the aircraft after a failure.

    Fail-Operational Flight Control System: a flight control system is fail-operational if, in the event of a failure below alert height, the approach, flare and landing can be completed by the remaining part of the automatic system, which becomes a fail-passive system.
  69. During LVTO:

    _1_ is PF;

    expect icing conditions in cold weather conditions;

    use _2_ thrust; and

    use _3_ before entering the runway to check the approach area is clear.


  70. When LVP are not in progress, the lowest RVR authorized for take-off is ___ m or higher as published in the OM – Part C (Lido Route Manual).

    A) 350
    B) 250
    C) 125
    D) 400
    D) 400
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. What is the LVTO RVR by the facillities?
    Image Upload

    Note 1:The reported RVR value representative of the initial part of the take-off run can be replaced by pilot assessment.

    Note 2:Multi-engined aeroplanes that in the event of an engine failure at any point during take- off can either stop or continue the take-off to a height of 1 500 ft above the aerodrome while clearing obstacles by the required margins. 

    Note 3: The required RVR value to be achieved for all relevant RVRs.
  72. An LVTO with an RVR below 150 m but not less than 125 m may be commenced if: (3 items)
    (1) high intensity runway centre line lights spaced 15 m or less apart and high intensity edge lights spaced 60 m or less apart that are in operation;

    (2) a 90 m visual segment that is available from the flight crew compartment at the start of the take-off run; and

    (3) the required RVR value is achieved for all of the relevant RVR reporting points.
  73. Auto-land is ___ for CAT III approaches
    Auto-land is ___ for CAT II approaches.

    A) recommended recommended
    B) mandotary recommended
    C) mandatory mandatory
    D) recommended mandatory
    B) mandotary recommended
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. CAT II operation is a precision instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS with:

    (1)  a decision height (DH) below ___ but not lower than ___; and

    (2)  an RVR not less than ___


  75. For Category II (CAT II) operation the following visual references shall be available: (3 items)
    (1) standard runway day markings and approach and the following runway lights: runway edge lights, threshold lights and runway end lights;

    (2) for operations in RVR below 450 m, additionally touch-down zone and/or runway centre line lights;

    (3) for operations with an RVR of 400 m or less, additionally centre line lights.
  76. What are the Category III (CAT III) Operation minima?
    • CAT III
    • (1)  a DH lower than 100ft and
    • (2)  RVR not less than 200m.

    • CAT IIIB
    • (1)  a DH lower than 50ft or no DH and
    • (2)  RVR less than 200m but not less than 75m
  77. Where the DH and RVR do not fall within the same category, the DH should determine in which category the operation is to be considered. TRUE or FALSE?

    • The RVR should determine in which category the operation is to be considered
  78. What is the lowest RVR to be used for CAT III, CAT IIIB approach and fail-passive, fail-operational systems?
    Image Upload
  79. An approach below the published minima shall not be continued unless visual reference containing one of the following elements is attained and can be maintained for a CAT IIIA approach or a CAT IIIB approach with a fail-passive system: (4 items)
    (1)  at least 3 consecutive lights from:

    a.the centerline of the approach lights; or

    b.touch down zone lights; or

    c.runway centre line lights; or

    d.runway edge lights;

    (2)  or a combination of the above.
  80. An approach below the published CAT III minima with a fail-operational system shall not be continued unless a visual reference containing one of the following elements is attained and can be maintained: (2items)
    (1) CAT III fail-operational operations - with a DH

    (a) the pilot should be able to see at least one centre line light.

    (2) CAT III fail operational operations - with no DH:

    (a) the pilot is not required to see the runway prior to touchdown. The permitted RVR is dependent on the level of aircraft equipment.

    (b) A CAT III runway may be assumed to support operations with no DH unless specifically restricted as published in the AIP or NOTAM.
  81. What are the CAT II/ III autoland wind limits? 8.4.7
  82. HEADWIND: 25KT
    • TAILWIND: 10KT
  83. Braking action for autoland c. TRUE or FALSE 8.4.7

    • Braking action for autoland must be “GOOD” or above.
  84. In LVO, If the reported RVR/VIS is less than the applicable minimum the approach shall not be continued below ___ ft above the aerodrome; or into the final approach segment in the case where the DA/H or MDA/H is more than ___ ft above the aerodrome. 

    If, after passing ___ ft above the aerodrome, the reported RVR/VIS falls below the applicable minimum, the approach may be continued to DA/H or MDA/H. 8.4.10
  85. For LVO, The touchdown zone RVR shall always be controlling. If reported and relevant, the midpoint and stop-end RVR shall also be controlling. The minimum RVR value for the midpoint is ___ or the RVR required for the touchdown zone if less, and ___ for the stop-end. For airplane equipped with a rollout guidance or control system, the minimum RVR value for the midpoint shall be ___ . 8.4.10


Card Set:
Chapter 8
2016-03-10 12:05:37
OM Part A
OM Part A Chapter 8
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