Microbiology Test 2 Study Guide

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  1. The study of the evolutionary history of life
    Phylogeny
  2. The science of classifying and naming organisms
    Taxonomy
  3. Matching characteristics of an “unknown” organism to lists of known organisms
    Identification
  4. A prokaryotic domain of life that is identified by the absence of peptidoglycan in the cell wall
    Archaea
  5. The eukaryotic domain of life
    Eukarya
  6. A prokaryotic domain of life that is identified by the presence of peptidoglycan in the cell wall
    Bacteria
  7. Which of the following is false about scientific nomenclature?

    A. It was designed by Linnaeus in the 1700s
    B. The names are standardized
    C. Each name consists of a genus and specific epithet
    D. Names vary with geographical location
    E. Each name is specific
    D. Names vary with geographical location
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. Population of virions with similar characteristics that occupy a particular ecological niche
    How Viruses are classified
  9. Closely related organisms that breed among themselves
    How Eukaryotes are classified
  10. Population of cells with similar characteristics that occupy a particular ecological niche
    How Prokaryotes are classified
  11. Provides phylogenetic information on bacteria and archaea
    Bergey’s Manual of Systematic Bacteriology
  12. Population of prokaryotic cells derived from a single cell; a pure culture
    Prokaryotic clone
  13. Prokaryotic cells grown in laboratory media
    Prokaryotic culture
  14. Provides identification schemes for identifying bacteria and archaea
    Bergey’s Manual of Determinative Bacteriology
  15. Genetically different cells within a clonal population
    Prokaryotic strain
  16. Bergey’s Manual of Systematic Bacteriology differs from Bergey’s Manual of Determinative Bacteriology in that the former?

    A. Groups bacteria into species.
    B. Groups bacteria according to phylogenetic
    relationships.
    C. Groups bacteria according to pathogenic
    properties.
    D. Groups bacteria into 19 species
    E. All of the above
    B. Groups bacteria according to phylogenetic relationships.
  17. Identification method based on the type of phage that can infect the cells
    Phage Typing
  18. Identification method that uses antibodies to detect specific bacteria
    Serology
  19. Identification method based on the amount of similarity between DNA/RNA sequences
    Nucleic Acid Hybridization
  20. Determines the presence or absence of specific prokaryotic enzymes; often using special culture media
    Biochemical tests
  21. Reveals the differences in the physical and chemical properties of cells under the microscope
    Differential staining
  22. Different body characteristics used to identify eukaryotes or shapes for prokaryotes
    Morphological characteristics
  23. Bacillus and Lactobacillus are not in the same order. This indicates that which one of the following is not sufficient to assign an organism to a Taxon.

    A. biochemical characteristics
    B. Serology
    C. amino acid sequencing
    D. Morphological characteristics
    E. phage typing
    D. Morphological characteristics
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. High G+C Actinobacteria
    Gram-positive Bacteria group
  25. Domain of prokaryotic species discovered through rRNA genetic comparisons
    Domain Archaea
  26. Low G+C Firmcutes
    Gram-positive Bacteria group
  27. Nonproteobacteria
    Gram-negative Bacteria group
  28. Ribosomal RNA signature for Archaea cell wall gene that changes slowly
    Pseudomurein rRNA signature
  29. Proteobacteria
    Gram-negative Bacteria group
  30. Ribosomal RNA signature for Bacteria cell wall gene that changes slowly
    Peptidoglycan rRNA signature
  31. You have isolated a new prokaryotic cell.
    The first step to assign the correct phylogeny is a(n)

    A) flagella stain.
    B) lactose fermentation test.
    C) endospore stain.
    D) Gram stain.
    E) DNA fingerprint.
    E. DNA Fingerprint
  32. Enterobacteriales (enterics)belong to the

    A) gram-positive bacteria.
    B) green sulfur bacteria.
    C) spirochetes
    D) proteobacteria.
    E) actinomycetes.
    D) proteobacteria.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. Burkholderia was reclassified from the gammaproteobacteria to the betaproteobacteria because

    A) its rRNA sequence is similar to that of
    Neisseria.
    B) it grows in disinfectants.
    C) it is a gram-negative rod.
    D) it causes melioidosis.
    E) it causes infections in cystic fibrosis patients.
    A) its rRNA sequence is similar to that of Neisseria.
  34. Borrelia is classified as a spirochete because
    it

    A) possesses an axial filament
    B) is photoautotrophic.
    C) is a rod.
    D) is a pathogen.
    E) is transmitted by ticks.
    A) possesses an axial filament
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. Which of the following bacteria is grampositive?

    A)Lactobacillales
    B)Rickettsia
    C)Pseudomonadales
    D)Enterobacteriales (enterics)
    E)Bacteroidetes
    A)Lactobacillales
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. How do all viruses differ from bacteria?

    A) Viruses do not reproduce.
    B) Viruses are not composed of cells.
    C) Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites
    D) Viruses are filterable.
    E) Viruses do not have any nucleic acid.
    B) Viruses are not composed of cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. Virus Genus
    Herpesvirus
  38. Virus Family
    Herpesviridae
  39. Virus Species (Common Name)
    Human herpes virus
  40. Viruses with complex structures
    Complex viruses
  41. Membrane covering around some viruses
    Envelope
  42. Protrusions on the virus that bind to the host cell
    Spikes
  43. The two general shapes for viruses
    Helical and Polyhedral
  44. Viral protein coat
    Capsid
  45. Single virus particle
    Virion
  46. Period of biosynthesis after penetration when very few virus particles are detected in the patient
    Eclipse period
  47. Virus causes lysis and death of host cell
    Lytic cycle
  48. Viruses that only have a lytic cycle
    Virulent viruses
  49. Provirus DNA incorporated in host DNA
    Lysogenic cycle
  50. Viruses that have a lytic and lysogenic cycle
    Temperate viruses
  51. The process by which DNA is transferred from one bacterium to another by a virus
    Transduction
  52. Viruses must be grown in
    Living Cells
  53. Detect antibodies against viruses in a patient
    Serological tests
  54. Structural changes in host cells that are caused by viral invasion
    Cytopathic effects
  55. Detect genetic material of viruses in a patient
    Nucleic acid tests
  56. Which of the following is NOT utilized to culture viruses?

    A) embryonatedeggs
    B) bacterial cultures
    C) laboratory animals
    D) culture media
    E) animal cell cultures
    D) culture media
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. The definition of lysogeny is

    A) the period during replication when virions are not
    present.
    B) when the burst time takes an unusually long time.
    C) attachment of a phage to a cell.
    D) lysis of the host cell due to a phage.
    E) phage DNA is incorporated into host cell DNA
    E) phage DNA is incorporated into host cell DNA
  58. Budding (enveloped viruses) or rupture of cell
    Release
  59. Sites on the virus attach to complementary receptor sites on cells
    Attachment
  60. Production of nucleic acid and proteins
    Biosynthesis
  61. Nucleic acid and capsid proteins assemble
    Maturation
  62. The protein capsid is removed by viral or host cell enzymes
    Uncoating
  63. Receptor mediated endocytosis or fusion
    Penetration
  64. Assume you have isolated an unknown virus. This virus
    has a single, positive sense strand of RNA, and
    possesses an envelope. To which group does it most
    likely belong?
    A) herpesvirus
    B) papovavirus
    C) retrovirus
    D) picornavirus
    E) togavirus
    E) togavirus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. Infectious RNA particles that do not have a capsid but can replicate in cells
    Viroids
  66. Virus remains in asymptomatic host cell for long periods
    Latent infection
  67. Viruses that contain activated oncogenes (cancer promoting genes) that can cause cells to because cancerous after infection
    Oncogenic viruses
  68. Disease processes occurs over a long period
    Persistent infection
  69. Host cells that become cancerous after viral infection
    Transformed cells
  70. Proteinaceous Infectious particles that do not have a capsid but can convert normal proteins into prions
    Prions
  71. An infectious protein is a
    A) viroid.
    B) papovavirus.
    C) bacteriophage.
    D) prion.
    E) retrovirus.
    D) prion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. The sum of the chemical reactions in an organism
    Metabolism
  73. Energy storage molecule for the cell that participates in coupling reactions
    ATP
  74. Reactant molecules that bind to the active site of an enzyme
    Substrate
  75. Provides energy and building blocks for anabolism
    Catabolism
  76. Catalytic protein that lowers the activation energy for chemical reactions in the cell (names usually end in –ase)
    Enzyme
  77. Uses energy and building blocks to build large molecules
    Anabolism
  78. States that chemical reactions can occur when reactants collide and that the reaction rate can be increased by increasing the collision between reactants
    Collision Theory
  79. The energy required in a chemical reaction to bring the reactants to a transition state so that the reaction can proceed
    Activation Energy
  80. An inhibitor molecule that is similar in shape to the substrate competes for the active site on an enzyme.
    Competitive Inhibition
  81. A non-protein molecule that activates an enzyme by binding to it before a reaction occurs.
    Coenzyme
  82. Inhibition of an early enzyme in a metabolic pathway by the final end product in the pathway to regulate the activity of the pathway.
    Feedback inhibition
  83. When environmental conditions like pH or Temperature are outside of an enzyme’s optimal range, the bonds that maintain the
    3D shape of the enzyme fails and the enzyme unfolds
    Denaturation
  84. An inhibitor molecule that is not similar in shape to the substrate binds to an allosteric site and causes a change in the shape of the
    active site that prevents the substrate from binding
    Noncompetitive inhibition
  85. Catabolic reactions are generally degradative and hydrolytic.
    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  86. The use of enzymes is necessary to increase the activation energy requirements of a chemical reaction.
    A. True
    B. False
    B. False
  87. Once an enzyme has converted substrates into products, the active site reverts back to its original form.
    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  88. A reaction product that has gained an electron and energy during a redox reaction
    Reduced product
  89. A reaction product that has lost an electron and energy during a redox reaction
    Oxidized product
  90. Production of ATP during by electron transport chain that couples with an ATP synthase enzyme to convert the energy in a electrochemical gradient into stored ATP energy.
    Oxidative phosphorylation
  91. Chemical reactions where electrons are lost from one reactant and added to the other reactant making oxidized and reduced products
    Redox reactions
  92. Production of ATP during an enzyme reaction by the transfer of a phosphate group from the reaction substrate
    Substrate-level phosphorylation
  93. A cellular molecule that stores energy in phosphate groups that can be coupled with anabolic reactions so that the reactions can proceed.
    ATP
  94. Production of ATP during the light reactions of photosynthesis by using the energy from the sun to power an electron transport chain and ATP synthase enzyme.
    Photophosphorylation
  95. Uses pentose sugars (5-C sugars) and NADP+
    ; Operates with glycolysis; Produces 2 NADPH and 1 ATP
    Pentose Phosphate Pathway
  96. Found in Gram- bacteria; Does not involve glycolysis; Produces 1 NADPH, 1 NADH and 1 ATP
    Entner-Doudoroff pathway
  97. Extension of glycolysis; Does not require oxygen; organic molecule as the final electron acceptor; produces 2 ATP; Many different end products
    Fermentation
  98. Which of the following statements regarding the glycolysis pathway is FALSE?
    A. Two pyruvate molecules are generated.
    B. Two molecules of water are generated.
    C. Two NADH molecules are generated.
    D. One molecule of ATP is expended.
    E. Four ATP molecules are generated via substrate-level phosphorylation
    D. One molecule of ATP is expended.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. Stored energy created by electron transport chain from NADH and FADH2 electron carriers that is used to generate ATP
    Eletrochemical proton (H+) gradient
  100. Molecule that that is the final recipient of the electrons from the starting reactant in the metabolic pathway (O2 / aerobic; NO3–, SO4–, CO32 –/ anaerobic; organic compounds / fermentation)
    Final Electron Acceptor
  101. Enzyme that transfers the energy in an eletrochemical proton (H+) gradient to ATP
    ATP Synthase
  102. Test that contains a pH indicator to detect acid products of fermentation enzymes, and an inverted Durham tube, which is used to capture gas products of fermentation enzymes.
    Fermentation test
  103. Determines the presence or absence of specific prokaryotic enzymes; often using special culture media
    Biochemical tests
  104. Test broth contains a pH indicator that turns yellow from acids produced by glucose breakdown and an indicator that turns purple when amino acids are decarboxylated by catabolic protease enzymes
    Amino acid catabolism test
  105. Test that contains a pH indicator that detects the presence of urease enzyme by the production of basic ammonia from urea in the media.
    Urease test
  106. Test that detects H2S production by desulfanase enzymes through the
    formation of a iron precipitates in a solid peptone media.
    Peptone iron hydrogen sulfide test
  107. Electrons released from chlorophyll in by light in photosystem I return to chlorophyll after the passage along the electron transport chain and energy is transferred to ATP only.
    Cyclic Photophoshorylation
  108. Electrons released from chlorophyll in photosystem II are replaced by electrons from the hydrogen atoms of water, energy from the electron transport chain is transferred to ATP, and electrons released from photosystem I are passed to NADPH.
    Noncyclic Photophoshorylation
  109. Photosynthesis in plants, algae, and cyanobacteria that uses water as a hydrogen donor, releasing O2
    Oxygenic Photosynthesis
  110. Photosynthesis in sulfur and green sulfur bacteria use H2S as a hydrogen donor, producing sulfur granules
    Anoxygenic Photosynthesis
  111. Energy source is chemicals, carbon source is organic compounds, and examples are fermentative bacteria (Alphaproteobacteria, Firmicutes, and Actinobacteria)
    Chemoheterotroph
  112. Energy source is light, carbon source is organic compounds, and examples are green and purple nonsulfur bacteria (Phylum Chloroflexi; gram -)
    Photoheterotroph
  113. Energy source is chemicals, carbon source is CO2, and examples are iron-oxidizing bacteria (Acidithiobacillus; Betaproteobacteria)
    Chemoautotroph
  114. .Energy source is light, carbon source is CO2
    , and examples are oxygenic cyanobacteria and anoxygenic green and purple sulfur bacteria (Phylum Chlorobi; gram -)
    Photoautotroph

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Filename:
Microbiology Test 2 Study Guide
Updated:
2016-03-08 01:15:26
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