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The study of the evolutionary history of life
Phylogeny
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The science of classifying and naming organisms
Taxonomy
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Matching characteristics of an “unknown” organism to lists of known organisms
Identification
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A prokaryotic domain of life that is identified by the absence of peptidoglycan in the cell wall
Archaea
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The eukaryotic domain of life
Eukarya
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A prokaryotic domain of life that is identified by the presence of peptidoglycan in the cell wall
Bacteria
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Which of the following is false about scientific nomenclature?
A. It was designed by Linnaeus in the 1700s
B. The names are standardized
C. Each name consists of a genus and specific epithet
D. Names vary with geographical location
E. Each name is specific
D. Names vary with geographical location (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
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Population of virions with similar characteristics that occupy a particular ecological niche
How Viruses are classified
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Closely related organisms that breed among themselves
How Eukaryotes are classified
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Population of cells with similar characteristics that occupy a particular ecological niche
How Prokaryotes are classified
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Provides phylogenetic information on bacteria and archaea
Bergey’s Manual of Systematic Bacteriology
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Population of prokaryotic cells derived from a single cell; a pure culture
Prokaryotic clone
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Prokaryotic cells grown in laboratory media
Prokaryotic culture
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Provides identification schemes for identifying bacteria and archaea
Bergey’s Manual of Determinative Bacteriology
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Genetically different cells within a clonal population
Prokaryotic strain
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Bergey’s Manual of Systematic Bacteriology differs from Bergey’s Manual of Determinative Bacteriology in that the former?
A. Groups bacteria into species.
B. Groups bacteria according to phylogenetic
relationships.
C. Groups bacteria according to pathogenic
properties.
D. Groups bacteria into 19 species
E. All of the above
B. Groups bacteria according to phylogenetic relationships.
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Identification method based on the type of phage that can infect the cells
Phage Typing
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Identification method that uses antibodies to detect specific bacteria
Serology
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Identification method based on the amount of similarity between DNA/RNA sequences
Nucleic Acid Hybridization
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Determines the presence or absence of specific prokaryotic enzymes; often using special culture media
Biochemical tests
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Reveals the differences in the physical and chemical properties of cells under the microscope
Differential staining
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Different body characteristics used to identify eukaryotes or shapes for prokaryotes
Morphological characteristics
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Bacillus and Lactobacillus are not in the same order. This indicates that which one of the following is not sufficient to assign an organism to a Taxon.
A. biochemical characteristics
B. Serology
C. amino acid sequencing
D. Morphological characteristics
E. phage typing
D. Morphological characteristics (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
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High G+C Actinobacteria
Gram-positive Bacteria group
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Domain of prokaryotic species discovered through rRNA genetic comparisons
Domain Archaea
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Low G+C Firmcutes
Gram-positive Bacteria group
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Nonproteobacteria
Gram-negative Bacteria group
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Ribosomal RNA signature for Archaea cell wall gene that changes slowly
Pseudomurein rRNA signature
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Proteobacteria
Gram-negative Bacteria group
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Ribosomal RNA signature for Bacteria cell wall gene that changes slowly
Peptidoglycan rRNA signature
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You have isolated a new prokaryotic cell.
The first step to assign the correct phylogeny is a(n)
A) flagella stain.
B) lactose fermentation test.
C) endospore stain.
D) Gram stain.
E) DNA fingerprint.
E. DNA Fingerprint
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Enterobacteriales (enterics)belong to the
A) gram-positive bacteria.
B) green sulfur bacteria.
C) spirochetes
D) proteobacteria.
E) actinomycetes.
D) proteobacteria. (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
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Burkholderia was reclassified from the gammaproteobacteria to the betaproteobacteria because
A) its rRNA sequence is similar to that of
Neisseria.
B) it grows in disinfectants.
C) it is a gram-negative rod.
D) it causes melioidosis.
E) it causes infections in cystic fibrosis patients.
A) its rRNA sequence is similar to that of Neisseria.
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Borrelia is classified as a spirochete because
it
A) possesses an axial filament
B) is photoautotrophic.
C) is a rod.
D) is a pathogen.
E) is transmitted by ticks.
A) possesses an axial filament (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
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Which of the following bacteria is grampositive?
A)Lactobacillales
B)Rickettsia
C)Pseudomonadales
D)Enterobacteriales (enterics)
E)Bacteroidetes
A)Lactobacillales (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
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How do all viruses differ from bacteria?
A) Viruses do not reproduce.
B) Viruses are not composed of cells.
C) Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites
D) Viruses are filterable.
E) Viruses do not have any nucleic acid.
B) Viruses are not composed of cells (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
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Virus Family
Herpesviridae
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Virus Species (Common Name)
Human herpes virus
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Viruses with complex structures
Complex viruses
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Membrane covering around some viruses
Envelope
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Protrusions on the virus that bind to the host cell
Spikes
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The two general shapes for viruses
Helical and Polyhedral
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Viral protein coat
Capsid
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Single virus particle
Virion
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Period of biosynthesis after penetration when very few virus particles are detected in the patient
Eclipse period
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Virus causes lysis and death of host cell
Lytic cycle
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Viruses that only have a lytic cycle
Virulent viruses
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Provirus DNA incorporated in host DNA
Lysogenic cycle
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Viruses that have a lytic and lysogenic cycle
Temperate viruses
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The process by which DNA is transferred from one bacterium to another by a virus
Transduction
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Viruses must be grown in
Living Cells
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Detect antibodies against viruses in a patient
Serological tests
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Structural changes in host cells that are caused by viral invasion
Cytopathic effects
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Detect genetic material of viruses in a patient
Nucleic acid tests
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Which of the following is NOT utilized to culture viruses?
A) embryonatedeggs
B) bacterial cultures
C) laboratory animals
D) culture media
E) animal cell cultures
D) culture media (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
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The definition of lysogeny is
A) the period during replication when virions are not
present.
B) when the burst time takes an unusually long time.
C) attachment of a phage to a cell.
D) lysis of the host cell due to a phage.
E) phage DNA is incorporated into host cell DNA
E) phage DNA is incorporated into host cell DNA
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Budding (enveloped viruses) or rupture of cell
Release
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Sites on the virus attach to complementary receptor sites on cells
Attachment
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Production of nucleic acid and proteins
Biosynthesis
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Nucleic acid and capsid proteins assemble
Maturation
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The protein capsid is removed by viral or host cell enzymes
Uncoating
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Receptor mediated endocytosis or fusion
Penetration
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Assume you have isolated an unknown virus. This virus
has a single, positive sense strand of RNA, and
possesses an envelope. To which group does it most
likely belong?
A) herpesvirus
B) papovavirus
C) retrovirus
D) picornavirus
E) togavirus
E) togavirus (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
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Infectious RNA particles that do not have a capsid but can replicate in cells
Viroids
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Virus remains in asymptomatic host cell for long periods
Latent infection
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Viruses that contain activated oncogenes (cancer promoting genes) that can cause cells to because cancerous after infection
Oncogenic viruses
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Disease processes occurs over a long period
Persistent infection
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Host cells that become cancerous after viral infection
Transformed cells
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Proteinaceous Infectious particles that do not have a capsid but can convert normal proteins into prions
Prions
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An infectious protein is a
A) viroid.
B) papovavirus.
C) bacteriophage.
D) prion.
E) retrovirus.
D) prion (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
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The sum of the chemical reactions in an organism
Metabolism
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Energy storage molecule for the cell that participates in coupling reactions
ATP
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Reactant molecules that bind to the active site of an enzyme
Substrate
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Provides energy and building blocks for anabolism
Catabolism
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Catalytic protein that lowers the activation energy for chemical reactions in the cell (names usually end in –ase)
Enzyme
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Uses energy and building blocks to build large molecules
Anabolism
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States that chemical reactions can occur when reactants collide and that the reaction rate can be increased by increasing the collision between reactants
Collision Theory
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The energy required in a chemical reaction to bring the reactants to a transition state so that the reaction can proceed
Activation Energy
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An inhibitor molecule that is similar in shape to the substrate competes for the active site on an enzyme.
Competitive Inhibition
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A non-protein molecule that activates an enzyme by binding to it before a reaction occurs.
Coenzyme
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Inhibition of an early enzyme in a metabolic pathway by the final end product in the pathway to regulate the activity of the pathway.
Feedback inhibition
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When environmental conditions like pH or Temperature are outside of an enzyme’s optimal range, the bonds that maintain the
3D shape of the enzyme fails and the enzyme unfolds
Denaturation
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An inhibitor molecule that is not similar in shape to the substrate binds to an allosteric site and causes a change in the shape of the
active site that prevents the substrate from binding
Noncompetitive inhibition
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Catabolic reactions are generally degradative and hydrolytic.
A. True
B. False
A. True
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The use of enzymes is necessary to increase the activation energy requirements of a chemical reaction.
A. True
B. False
B. False
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Once an enzyme has converted substrates into products, the active site reverts back to its original form.
A. True
B. False
A. True
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A reaction product that has gained an electron and energy during a redox reaction
Reduced product
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A reaction product that has lost an electron and energy during a redox reaction
Oxidized product
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Production of ATP during by electron transport chain that couples with an ATP synthase enzyme to convert the energy in a electrochemical gradient into stored ATP energy.
Oxidative phosphorylation
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Chemical reactions where electrons are lost from one reactant and added to the other reactant making oxidized and reduced products
Redox reactions
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Production of ATP during an enzyme reaction by the transfer of a phosphate group from the reaction substrate
Substrate-level phosphorylation
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A cellular molecule that stores energy in phosphate groups that can be coupled with anabolic reactions so that the reactions can proceed.
ATP
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Production of ATP during the light reactions of photosynthesis by using the energy from the sun to power an electron transport chain and ATP synthase enzyme.
Photophosphorylation
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Uses pentose sugars (5-C sugars) and NADP+
; Operates with glycolysis; Produces 2 NADPH and 1 ATP
Pentose Phosphate Pathway
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Found in Gram- bacteria; Does not involve glycolysis; Produces 1 NADPH, 1 NADH and 1 ATP
Entner-Doudoroff pathway
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Extension of glycolysis; Does not require oxygen; organic molecule as the final electron acceptor; produces 2 ATP; Many different end products
Fermentation
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Which of the following statements regarding the glycolysis pathway is FALSE?
A. Two pyruvate molecules are generated.
B. Two molecules of water are generated.
C. Two NADH molecules are generated.
D. One molecule of ATP is expended.
E. Four ATP molecules are generated via substrate-level phosphorylation
D. One molecule of ATP is expended. (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
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Stored energy created by electron transport chain from NADH and FADH2 electron carriers that is used to generate ATP
Eletrochemical proton (H+) gradient
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Molecule that that is the final recipient of the electrons from the starting reactant in the metabolic pathway (O2 / aerobic; NO3–, SO4–, CO32 –/ anaerobic; organic compounds / fermentation)
Final Electron Acceptor
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Enzyme that transfers the energy in an eletrochemical proton (H+) gradient to ATP
ATP Synthase
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Test that contains a pH indicator to detect acid products of fermentation enzymes, and an inverted Durham tube, which is used to capture gas products of fermentation enzymes.
Fermentation test
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Determines the presence or absence of specific prokaryotic enzymes; often using special culture media
Biochemical tests
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Test broth contains a pH indicator that turns yellow from acids produced by glucose breakdown and an indicator that turns purple when amino acids are decarboxylated by catabolic protease enzymes
Amino acid catabolism test
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Test that contains a pH indicator that detects the presence of urease enzyme by the production of basic ammonia from urea in the media.
Urease test
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Test that detects H2S production by desulfanase enzymes through the
formation of a iron precipitates in a solid peptone media.
Peptone iron hydrogen sulfide test
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Electrons released from chlorophyll in by light in photosystem I return to chlorophyll after the passage along the electron transport chain and energy is transferred to ATP only.
Cyclic Photophoshorylation
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Electrons released from chlorophyll in photosystem II are replaced by electrons from the hydrogen atoms of water, energy from the electron transport chain is transferred to ATP, and electrons released from photosystem I are passed to NADPH.
Noncyclic Photophoshorylation
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Photosynthesis in plants, algae, and cyanobacteria that uses water as a hydrogen donor, releasing O2
Oxygenic Photosynthesis
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Photosynthesis in sulfur and green sulfur bacteria use H2S as a hydrogen donor, producing sulfur granules
Anoxygenic Photosynthesis
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Energy source is chemicals, carbon source is organic compounds, and examples are fermentative bacteria (Alphaproteobacteria, Firmicutes, and Actinobacteria)
Chemoheterotroph
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Energy source is light, carbon source is organic compounds, and examples are green and purple nonsulfur bacteria (Phylum Chloroflexi; gram -)
Photoheterotroph
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Energy source is chemicals, carbon source is CO2, and examples are iron-oxidizing bacteria (Acidithiobacillus; Betaproteobacteria)
Chemoautotroph
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.Energy source is light, carbon source is CO2
, and examples are oxygenic cyanobacteria and anoxygenic green and purple sulfur bacteria (Phylum Chlorobi; gram -)
Photoautotroph
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