Rad Study

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  1. (T/F) Slow growing lesions, such as cysts, will usually move teeth.
    True
  2. Fractures of the mandible that are not overlapped will:
    A. not be seen on pa films
    B. not be seen during the first 24 hours
    C. appear as radiolucent lines
    D. appear as radiopaque lines
    C. appear as radiolucent lines
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. The best projection to visualize a sialolith of the submandibular duct is a:
    A. right-angle mandibular occlusal projection
    B. mandibular molar pa projection
    C. lateral oblique projection
    D. posterior anterior projection
    A. right-angle mandibular occlusal projection
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. A malignant tumor of bone will appear (RL/RO) on radiographs.
    Radiopaque
  5. Implants will appear (RL/RO) on radiographs.
    Radiopaque
  6. Complete displacement of a tooth from alveolar bone.
    Avulsion
  7. Abnormal displacement of teeth.
    Luxation
  8. An injury produced by external force.
    Trauma
  9. Abnormal displacement of teeth into bone.
    Intrusion
  10. Abnormal displacement of teeth out of bone.
    Extrusion
  11. The breaking of a part.
    Fracture
  12. Root tips will appear (RL/RO) on radiographs.
    Radiopaque
  13. (T/F) A malignant lesion will usually have an irregular border.
    True
  14. (Some T/F) Paget's disease, certain types of anemia and hyperparathyroidism are all examples of metabolic conditions that manifest themselves with changes of the trabecular pattern and lamina dura of bone in the mandible and maxilla. The dental hygienist's role is not to diagnose these diseases but rather to recognize the change from normal as seen on the radiographs.
    Both statements are true.
  15. Caries that radiographically involve the dentin are classified as: 
    A. advanced
    B. incipient
    C. early
    D. late
    A. advanced
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. As for periodontal prognoses, teeth that have anatomically short roots will:
    A. have a poorer prognosis when it comes to periodontal disease
    B. have a better prognosis when is comes to periodontal disease
    C. be more resistant to caries
    D. be less resistant to caries
    A. have a poorer prognosis when it comes to periodontal disease
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. (T/F) All calculus will be seen radiographically.
    False
  18. Interproximal caries often appears as:
    A. a moon or wedge shaped radiolucency
    B. a radiopaque extension or "spur"
    C. a radiolucent line around the root of the tooth
    D. a moon or wedge shaped radiopacity
    A. a moon or wedge shaped radiolucency
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. Radiographically, a newer composite restoration is (RL/RO).
    Radiopaque
  20. (T/F) Occlusal caries will be seen earlier radiographically than can be found during a clinical examination.
    False
  21. (T/F) Gingivitis is easily seen on radiographs.
    False
  22. (T/F) All caries viewed radiographically appear as a radiolucency.
    True
  23. Define the term 'triangulation'.
    Widening of the periodontal ligament space at the crest of the interproximal septum.
  24. The healthy periodontal ligament surrounding a normal tooth appears radiographically as a/an:
    A. radiopaque line on the lateral sides of the root only
    B. radiolucent line around the apical portion of the root only
    C. unbroken radiopaque line around the tooth root
    D. unbroken radiolucent line around the tooth root
    D. unbroken radiolucent line around the tooth root
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. Radiographically, calculus is (RL/RO).
    Radiopaque
  26. Radiographically, gold is (RL/RO).
    Radiopaque
  27. Interproximal caries is frequently found in which area of the tooth?
    A. at or slightly apical to the contact point
    B. just apical to the pulp chamber
    C. at or slightly coronal to the contact point
    A. at or slightly apical to the contact point
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. An example of caries that is almost never seen on radiographs is:
    A. incisal
    B. interproximal
    C. lingual
    D. incipient
    C. lingual
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. Interproximal decay and early bone loss is seen best on (blank) radiographs.
    A. occlusal
    B. periapical
    C. panoramic
    D. bitewings
    D. bitewings
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. Radiographically, amalgam is (RL/RO).
    Radiopaque
  31. Exposure of a radiograph on a child:
    A. requires more time than an adult
    B. should never be taken
    C. requires less time than an adult
    D. requires the same times as an adult
    C. requires less time than an adult
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. A typical number of films needed when taking a FMS on an edentulous patient is:
    A. 18
    B. none
    C. 13
    D. 22
    E. 8
    C. 13
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. If an impacted third molar seems to have moved mesially on the second film when the horizontal angulation is increased distally (the PID moved distally), the impaction might be:
    (Buccal or lingual)
    Buccal
  34. Another name for a 'right angle' occlusal film is:
    A. the right angle is not the preferred technique
    B. cross sectional film
    C. a bite-wing radiograph
    B. cross sectional film
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. (T/F) As a general rule, it is best to use the smallest film size that can be accommodated comfortably by the patient.
    False
  36. (T/F) If the need for taking a FMS on a 5 year old child should arise, it would be best to take 12 size 1 films.
    False
  37. How do you best provide client management when taking radiographs?
    Maintain a light touch, build rapport, be professional and explain the procedures
  38. Placebo techniques very often work with...
    patients who have a tendency to gag
  39. If a patient gags while taking radiographs, what is the best thing to do?
    Recommend accupressure, breathing through nose, and distract the patient
  40. Which of the following is probably the least reliable way to localize an impaction in the bucco-lingual plane:
    Localization by definition
  41. When taking an edentulous series using intraoral size 2 film, the exposure time is reduced by:
    1/4
  42. The gag reflex is:
    A body defense system
  43. (T/F) It is very difficult to use the paralleling technique on a patient who has large exostoses on the buccal surface of the jaws.
    False
  44. The tube shift technique is useful clinically in:
    Localizing objects in the third plane
  45. When taking a FMS on children, the exposure is generally reduced by what of an adult dose?
    1/3
  46. The condition where a patient cannot open their mouth due to infection or trauma.
    Trismus
  47. (T/F) It is permissible for a caregiver or parent to be in the operatory when radiographs are taken of a patient with a disability.
    True
  48. (Some T/F) With an edentulous patient, the exposure is decreased by a factor of 4. 18 impulses would be reduced to 14 impulses.
    Both statements are true
  49. What items does the clinician look for with an edentulous patient when taking radiographs?
    A. cysts
    B. all answers are correct
    C. retained root tips
    D. pathologic conditions
    E. impacted teeth
    B. all answers are correct
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. Bitewing projections cannot be used to detect:
    • Periapical pathology
    • Condensing osteitis
    • Root fracture
    • Hypercementosis
  51. Bone sclerosis appears (RL/RO).
    Radiopaque
  52. Pulpal sclerosis appears (RL/RO) on radiographs.
    Radiopaque
  53. The pulp chambers and canals of teeth in older patients tend to be....
    A. enlarged
    B. calcified
    C. inflammed
    D. necrotic
    B. calcified
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. (T/F) Physiologic resorption is the resorption of teeth not associated with normal shedding of primary teeth.
    False
  55. (T/F) Another name for a pulp denticle is a pulp stone.
    True
  56. Both internal and external idiopathic root resorption result in:
    A. root fracture
    B. tooth movement
    C. pulp necrosis
    d. all of the above
    C. pulp necrosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. (T/F) A periapical cyst is also known as a radicular cyst.
    True
  58. (T/F) Sclerotic bone is associated with a non-vital tooth.
    False
  59. (T/F) During the acute phase of a periapical abscess there will be no radiographic change.
    True
  60. (T/F) A radiographic sign of pulpitis is a thickening of the apical periodontal ligament space.
    False
  61. Hypercementosis is:
    a. an excess deposition of cementum on the root surface
    b. not attached to the cementum
    c. associated with patients who have Paget's disease
    d. a and b
    e. a and c
    an excess deposition of cementum on the root surface and associated with patients who have Paget's disease (a and c)
  62. The first detectable sign of periapical pathology is:
    Thickening of the PDL
  63. Which of the following appear radiolucent on a radiograph?
    a. periapical granuloma
    b. first stage periapical cemental dysplasia
    c. pulp necrosis
    a and c only
  64. How do a periapical cyst and a periapical granuloma appear radiographically?
    a. they may appear identical
    b. a cyst is always larger
    c. a cyst is always smaller
    d. none of these answers
    They may appear identical (a)
  65. All cysts located in bone will be see as (RL/RO) areas.
    Radiolucent
  66. Periapical abscesses appear on a radiograph as (RL/RO).
    Radiolucent
  67. A mesiodens is always:
    a. nonvital
    b. found in the midline
    c. found distal to the last molar
    d. to be extracted
    found in the midline (b)
  68. Teeth with dens invaginatus will:
    A. have a poor prognosis
    B. with time will return to normal
    C. be resistant to decay
    D. look normal clinically
    A. have a poor prognosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. When teeth chip easily and radiographs reveal short roots and early pulp calcification, what is present?
    Dentinogenisis imperfecta
  70. The teeth in the area of fissural cysts usually test (vital/nonvital).
    Vital
  71. A club shaped root is usually a sign of:
    cemental dysplasia
    hypercementosis
    concrescence
    pathology
    Hypercementosis
  72. (T/F) Concresence is the anomaly known as 'tooth within a tooth' and is most often seen on a lateral incisor.
    False
  73. (T/F) Permanent distortion of the shape and relationship of the root of a tooth is called 'dens invaginatus'.
    False
  74. The dental papilla radiographically will resemble:
    foramina
    condensing osteitis
    periaplical pathology
    stage three PCD
    Periapical pathology
  75. (T/F) Another name for an enamel pearl is an enameloma.
    True
  76. Complete absence of teeth is known as:
    Anodontia
  77. A fused incisor will appear radiographically to have:
    A. one large crown and one root canal
    B. two crowns and two root canals
    C. two crowns and one large root canal
    D. one large crown and two root canals
    D. one large crown and two root canals
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. In magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), the powerful magnetic field in which the patient is placed:
    A. produces the signal
    B. temporarily realigns the tissue protons
    C. causes ionization of tissue
    d. all of the above
    B. temporarily realigns the tissue protons
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. Digital radiography requires less radiation than conventional radiography because:
    A. the sensor is more sensitive to xrays
    B. the sensor is larger than the film
    C. the pixels sense transmitted light quickly
    D. the exposure time is increased
    A. the sensor is more sensitive to xrays
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. (T/F) Two types of direct sensors are CCD (charged coupling device) and PSP (phosphor storage plates).
    False
  81. In computed tomography (CT) the image is formed by the:
    computer
  82. The definition seen on a digital image compared to film is:
    slightly less
  83. In comparison to the CCD or direct digital sensor, one advantage of the storage phosphor plate is that the PSP is:
    A. larger
    B. slightly more flexible
    C. more sensitive to radiation
    D. smaller
    B. slightly more flexible
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. (T/F) The energy source used for computed tomography is ionizing radiation.
    True
  85. (T/F) Indirect digital radiography involves two steps that result in an instantaneous image.
    False
  86. (T/F) In the optical scanning method, one starts with the finished, processed film.
    True
  87. (T/F) Direct digital radiography uses storage phosphor plates to record the image.
    False
  88. MRI can be used for:
    a. pregnant patients
    b. nursing patients
    c. menopausal patients
    d. all of the above
    e. none of the above
    all of the above
  89. The computer used for digital imaging:
    A. can be used for other functions
    B. is nonessential hardware
    C. cannot be used for other office functions
    D. is the most expensive component of the system
    A. can be used for other functions
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. (T/F) The magnetic resonance imaging technique is better for visualization of hard tissue, such as bone.
    False
  91. If the patient fails to hold the dorsal surface of his tongue on the roof of the mouth, what will happen?
    A large black shadow will be present between the tongue and the palate, the roots of the maxillary teeth may be obscured, and and airway shadow will result.
  92. What is true regarding panoramic image production?
    • Panoramic image production is based upon the principle of tomography
    • Structures positioned within the focal trough will be seen clearly on the final radiograph and structures positioned outside will be blurred.
  93. What best describes a disadvantage of panoramic imaging?
    Panoramic films have overlapping of interproximal  surfaces in the premolar area
  94. In positioning the patient for a pano, what will happen if the patient is too far forward?
    The upper and lower anterior teeth will be blurred
  95. A white inverted v-shaped radiopacity on the bottom of the film is most likely caused by:
    Lead apron artifact
  96. (T/F) Panoramic films are recommended for periodontal disease
    False
  97. When the patient's chin is tipped too far downward for a panoramic radiograph:
    The radiographic image appears to 'smile'
  98. Ghost images are a major disadvantage of panoramic radiographs. They generally are:
    • Blurred, magnified, and distorted images on the film
    • Located above and on the opposite side of the original image
  99. Which of the following anatomic structures is usually not seen on intraoral periapical radiographs, but is seen on pantomographs?
    A. median palatine suture
    B. mylohyoid ridge
    C. mandibular foramen
    D. coronoid process
    E. mental foramen
    C. mandibular foramen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. Intensifying screens function to convert:
    X-ray photons into light photons
  101. In a panoramic image, widening of the anterior teeth along with ghosting of the contralateral rami occur when the patient is positioned:
    Too far backward
  102. When one condyle is higher and bigger than the other in the panoramic image, the patient's head is:
    Tilted

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Author:
mckaylacarman
ID:
316794
Filename:
Rad Study
Updated:
2016-10-29 19:36:11
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Description:
Radiology
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