Exam 2 Quiz Questions

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  1. Why can't bacteria grow in solutions with very high concentrations of sugar?
    A. Sugar lowers the solution's pH
    B. Sugar lowers the solution's osmolarity
    C. Sugar raises the solution's pH
    D. Sugar raises the solution's osmolarity
    E. Bacteria cannot digest pure sugar
    D. Sugar raises the solution's osmolarity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. You find that a microorganism has optimum growth at pH 9 and a temperature of 15°C, this organism is a:
    A. neutrophilic mesophile
    B. neutrophilic psychorophile
    C. acidophilic thermophile
    D. alkalophilic psychorophile
    E. alkalophilic mesophile
    g. acidophilic mesophile
    D. alkalophilic psychorophile
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. Which of the following is/are true?
    a. peripheral membrane proteins span through the membrane
    b. integral membrane proteins sits on the surface of the membrane
    c. the membrane is a very rigid monolayer structure that encapsulates the cell
    d. LPS is found in Gram- inner and outer membranes
    e. None of the above are correct
    e. None of the above are correct
  4. Archaea resemble eukaryotes in all of the following EXCEPT
    A. Nuclear membrane
    B. introns
    C. RNA polymerase
    D. DNA polymerase
    E. ribosomal proteins
    A. Nuclear membrane
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. The primer in DNA replication is ____ starter sequence with a free ____ group.
    A. a DNA; 5' OH
    B. an RNA; 5' OH
    C. a DNA; 3' OH
    D. an RNA; 3' OH
    D. an RNA; 3' OH
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. If the sequence of one strand of DNA is 5'TCGATC3', what is the sequence of the complementary strand?
    A. 5' AGCTAG 3'
    B. 5' CTAGCT 3'
    C. 5' GCTAGC 3'
    D. 5' GATCGA 3'
    D. 5' GATCGA 3'
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. A fluorophore used in fluorescence microscopy that absorbs light at 260 nm would most likely fluoresce at:
    A. 400 nm
    B. 1000 nm
    C. 100 nm
    D. 200 nm
    E. 260 nm
    A. 400 nm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. Similar genes within the same organism that have different functions are called:
    A. orthologs
    B. homologs
    C. paralogs
    D. homogenous
    C. paralogs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. Which of the following processes is sensitive to exracellular DNases?
    A. Transformation
    B. Conjugation
    C. Transduction
    d. Two of the above
    A. Transformation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. If the genetic code was in quadruplets instead of triplets, there would be ____ codons.
    A. 256
    B. 81
    C. 64
    D. 182
    A. 256
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. Gene transfer from one bacterium to another by means of bacteriophage is called ____, whereas _____ involves the transfer of DNA following cell-to-cell contact.
    A. transduction; transformation
    B. transformation; conjugation
    C. transduction; conjugation
    D. conjugation; transformation
    E. conjugation; transduction
    C. transduction; conjugation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. The sigma factor is directly required for
    A. translation eleongation
    B. transcription initiation
    C. transcription elongation
    D. translation initiation
    B. transcription initiation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. Which of the following statements about microbes and temperature is FALSE?
    A. thermophiles are microbes that grow at temperatures between 40°C and 80°C
    B. Microbes have mechanisms to control their temperature
    C. Within a specific range, the microbial growth rate roughly doubles for every 10°C rise in temperature
    D. changes in temperature affect membrane fluidity, and thus nutrient transport
    B. Microbes have mechanisms to control their temperature
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. A mutation changes the codon UAC (Tyr) to UAA (stop). This is an example of
    A. Transition and missense mutations
    B. Transition and nonsense mutations
    C. Transversion and missense mutations
    C. Transversion and missense mutations
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. Pyrimidine dimers are caused by
    A. Base analogs
    B. Gamma rays
    C. Ultraviolet rays
    D. Intercalators
    E. X-rays
    C. Ultraviolet rays
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. Error-proof repair pathways include all the following EXCEPT
    A. base excision repair
    B. photoreactivation
    C. nonhomologous end joining
    D. nucleotide excision repair
    C. nonhomologous end joining
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. The simplest transposable elements are
    A. Transformasomes
    B. Insertion sequences
    C. Transposons
    D. Shine-Dalgarno sequences
    B. Insertion sequences
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. Why is recombination advantageous?
    a. It allows cells to use DNA donated by others of the same species to repair damaged genes
    b. It enhances the competitive fitness of the cell
    c. It is an internal method of DNA repair
    d. All of the above
    d. All of the above
  19. The protein ___ is the activator of the SOS response.
    A. LigD
    B. RecA
    C. UvrD
    D. LexA
    B. RecA
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. Without ____, the core RNA polymerase binds and releases DNA at random.
    A. sigma factor
    B. Shine-Dalgarno sequence
    C. peptidyltransferase
    D. initiation factor
    A. sigma factor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. Which of the following can be used to control sigma factors?
    a. proteolysis
    b. anti-sigma factors
    c. anti-anti-sigma factors
    d. two of the above
    e. all of the above
    e. all of the above
  22. Transcription is prevented when ____ bind to a regulatory sequence, and stimulated when ____ bind to a regulatory sequence.
    A. activators; repressors
    B. repressors; inducers
    C. repressors; activators
    D. inducers; corepressors
    E. regulators; repressors
    C. repressors; activators
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. Error-proof repair pathways include all the following EXCEPT
    A. nucleotide excision repair
    B. base excision repair
    C. photoreactivation
    D. nonhomologous end joining
    D. nonhomologous end joining
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. Transcription initiation of the lac operon is enhanced when ___ interacts with RNA polymerase
    A. LacI protein
    B. allolactose
    C. cAMP receptor protein
    D. glucose
    E. lactose
    C. cAMP receptor protein
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. Attenuation is a common regulatory strategy used to control the transcription of operons that code for
    A. amino acid biosynthesis
    B. amino acid degradation
    C. carbohydrate degradation
    D. carbohydrate biosynthesis
    A. amino acid biosynthesis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. What is the phenotype of an Escherichia coli strain with a mutation in the lac operator that prevents the lac repressor from binding? Assume glucose is absent.
    A. transcription of the lac operon is high in the presence of lactose, and low in its absence
    B. transcription of the lac operon is low in the presence of lactose, and high in its absence
    C. transcription of the lac operon is very low
    D. transcription of the lac operon is very high
    D. transcription of the lac operon is very high
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. A transmembrane sensor kinase protein sense an environmental condition outside ____ bacteria or in the periplasm of a(n) ____ bacteria.
    A. Gram-negative; Gram-positive
    B. prokaryotic; archaean
    C. prokaryotic; eukaryotic
    D. Gram-positive; Gram-negative
    E. Gram-positive; acid-fast
    D. Gram-positive; Gram-negative
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. Which form of control is the least reversible and most drastic?
    A. posttranslational modification
    B. control of transcription
    C. translational control
    D. alterations of DNA sequence
    D. alterations of DNA sequence
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. ___ RNAs bind to complementary sequences of target transcripts and stimulate or prevent translation.
    a. Ribosomal
    b. transfer
    c. messenger
    d. antisense
    e. small
    • d. antisense
    • e. small
  30. A quorum-sensing gene system requires the accumulation of a secreted small molecule called a(n):
    A. repressor
    B. inducer
    C. corepressor
    D. autoinducer
    E. activator
    D. autoinducer
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. What kind of mutation is produced by transposable elements?
    A. deletion
    B. insertion
    C. inversion
    D. substitution
    e. none of the above
    B. insertion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. Sets of genes in operons are coordinately regulated by all of the following EXCEPT:
    A. protein repressors
    B. irreversible changes in the DNA sequence
    C. activators
    D. sigma factors
    E. small RNAs
    B. irreversible changes in the DNA sequence
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. When both glucose and lactose are added to the growth medium, Escherichia coli will have a growth curve that:
    A. grows more quickly than with glucose alone
    B. grows more slowly than with glucose alone
    C. does not change
    D. grows slowly and then, halfway through, grows faster
    E. grows, levels off, and then grows again
    E. grows, levels off, and then grows again
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. Operon fusions are used to determine the ____ control of a target gene.
    A. translational
    B. replicational
    C. posttranslational
    D. transcriptional
    D. transcriptional
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. A western blot is used to visualize _____, whereas a northern blot is used for ____.
    A. RNA; protein
    B. protein; DNA
    C. protein; RNA
    D. DNA; RNA
    E. RNA; DNA
    C. protein; RNA
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. A northern blot is used to visualize ____, whereas a Southern blot is used for ____.
    A. RNA; protein
    B. protein; DNA
    C. DNA; RNA
    D. RNA; DNA
    E. protein; RNA
    D. RNA; DNA
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. The electromobility shift assay (EMSA) is used to monitor molecular interactions between
    A. Two lipid molecules
    B. DNA and protein
    C. DNA and RNA
    D. Two DNA molecules
    E. lipid and protein
    B. DNA and protein
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. What occurs when an inducer is added to a medium containing an organism with a metabolic pathway controlled by an activator?
    A. the inducer combines with the substrate and blocks induction
    B. The inducer combines with the activator and inactivates it
    C. The inducer combines with the activator and activates it
    D. the inducer combines with the substrate and activates induction
    C. The inducer combines with the activator and activates it
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. Two-hybrid analysis is used to
    A. purify proteins from a cell extract
    B. determine DNA-protein contacts
    C. identify transcriptional start sites
    D. reveal protein-protein interactions
    D. reveal protein-protein interactions
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. Phage display technology can be used to identify
    A. the level of protein expression in the presence of an inducer
    B. where in a cell a protein is expressed
    C. the total number of proteins that make up the capsid
    D. optimal protein sequence that binds to a target molecule
    D. optimal protein sequence that binds to a target molecule
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

Card Set Information

Author:
tulipyoursweety
ID:
317249
Filename:
Exam 2 Quiz Questions
Updated:
2016-03-14 17:26:00
Tags:
microbiology
Folders:
microbiology
Description:
Microbiology Exam 2 Quiz Questions
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