RQ-4 NG test - CBTs

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  1. Which component provides the LRE or MCE emergency electrical power is the primary and backup electrical power supplies fail or drop off line?

    A)Backup generator
    B) Environmental Control Unit (ECU)
    C) Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)
    D) Power Distribution Unit (PDU)
    C) Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. Which of the following is a function of the Environmental Control Unit (ECU)?

    A) To provide uninterrupted power to the ground station shelter.
    B) To condition the flow of electrical power to protect sensitive circuitry.
    C) To Provide temperature -controlled air for cooling sensitive shelter equipment.
    D) To provide filtered, temperature-controlled air for shelter compartment heating and cooling.
    D) To provide filtered, temperature-controlled air for shelter compartment heating and cooling.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. Which exterior support equipment provides external circuit breaker protection to the shelters?

    A) Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)
    B) Environmental Control Unit (ECU)
    C) Backup generator
    D) Power Distribution Unit (PDU)
    D) Power Distribution Unit (PDU)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. Which LRE antenna is used for line-of-sight aircraft command and control during RQ-4 launch and recovery operations?

    A) UHF LOS antenna
    B) INMARSAT antenna
    C) UHF SATCOM antenna
    D) Ku-band SATCOM antenna
    A) UHF LOS antenna
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. Which MCE antenna provides beyond line-of-sight downlink for aircraft C2 and sensor image data?

    A) Ku-band SATCOM antenna
    B) UHF LOS antenna
    C) UHF SATCOM antenna
    D) Common Data Link antenna
    A) Ku-band SATCOM antenna
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. Which is the primary method to exit the shelters in the event of an emergency?

    A) through the access hatch on top of the shelter.
    B) Through the emergency crew escape hatch at the end of the shelter.
    C) Through the front or end door on the shelter.
    D) Through the only crew door on the end of the shelter.
    C) Through the front or end door on the shelter.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. What is the purpose of the shelter door wrench?

    A) To open the shelter door manually.
    B) To adjust the exterior lock strut.
    C) To preclude access by intruders.
    D) To tighten door hinge bolts for security.
    A) To open the shelter door manually.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. Which MCE workstation contains the software to allow the sensor operator to manage ISS operations?

    A) Communication workstation
    B) Quality Control workstation
    C) Pilot workstation
    D) Data Analysis workstation
    D) Data Analysis workstation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. What is the function of the Quality Control workstation?

    A) To provide image data quality control and dissemination functions.
    B) To provide overall management of the MCE
    C) to ensure all crew members are fully qualified to perform their responsibilities.
    D) To ensure missions are completed IAW pre-planned mission directives.
    A) To provide image data quality control and dissemination functions.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. Where is the environmental control panel in the LRE or MCE shelters?

    A) the Pilot's workstation
    B) Adjacent to the crew entry door.
    C) In the ceiling of the shelter.
    D) On the environmental Control Unit.
    C) In the ceiling of the shelter.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. What is the function of the ITT (Interstage Turbine Temperature) window on the Flight Control display?

    A) To provide the temperature between teh high pressure and low pressure turbines.
    B) To provide the temperature of the fuel.
    C) To provide the engine Thrust setting.
    D) None of the above.
    A) To provide the temperature between the high pressure and low pressure turbines.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. How is the current aircraft state generally depicted on the Flight Control display button?

    A) With a red and white hashed border around the button.
    B) With a purple border around the button.
    C) As a blue button.
    D) With a gold border around the button.
    C) As a blue button.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. What does the Flight Control display N1 scale measure?

    A) high pressure turbine speed in percentage of RPM.
    B) The percentage of maximim rated thrust.
    C) Engine fan speed in percentage of RPM.
    D) RPM of hydraulic motor.
    C) Engine fan speed in percentage of RPM.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. What is the function of the Speed Override button on the Flight Control display?

    A) To allow the pilot to manually set the vertical speed.
    B) To allow the pilot to manually set the brake deceleration rate.
    C) The speed override button is disabled for Block 20/30 aircraft.
    D) To allow the pilot to manually set the spoiler postiiton.
    C) The speed override button is disabled for Block 20/30 aircraft.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. Where are the engine data indicators located on the Flight Control display?

    A) On both the upper and lower halves of the Flight Control display.
    B) On the upper half of the flight Control display.
    C) On the lower half of the Flight Control display.
    D) There are no engine data indicators on the Flight Control display.
    B) On the upper half of the flight Control display.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. The green bar in the Flight Control display Deceleration indicator shows deceleration measured by the ______.

    A) Wheel rotation speed sensors.
    B) Navigation system
    C) Brake control units
    D) Engine data system
    B) Navigation system
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. How do you cancel a red and white hashed bordered command on the Flight Control display once it has been executed?

    A) Select File, then stop from the menu bar.
    B) Select Cancel
    C) once a red and white hashed bordered command has been executed, it is irrevocable and cannot be canceled.
    D) Select the command again, wait for the purple border, and then select cancel.
    C) once a red and white hashed bordered command has been executed, it is irrevocable and cannot be canceled.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. How is the landing light controlled from the Flight Control display?

    A) By turing the navigation lights on or off.
    B) There are no landing light controls on the Flight Control display.
    C) By selecting Landing Light from the File menue.
    D) By turning the strobe lights on or off while the landing gear is down.
    D) By turning the strobe lights on or off while the landing gear is down.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. What will occur if the pilot manually enters a commanded spoiler value on the Flight Control display that exceeds a spoiler limit?

    A) The inboard spoilers will move to the commanded position, the outboard spoilers deflection is limited to prevent excessive aerodynamic loads.
    B) The spoilers return to the faired position.
    C) The IMMC decelerates teh aricraft to keep airspeed within the spoiler limits.
    D) The IMMC adjusts the spoilers to remain within spoiler limits.
    D) The IMMC adjusts the spoilers to remain within spoiler limits.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. After selecting and executing the Gear Down button of the Flight Control display, when does it turn blue?

    A) When the IMMC initiates the gear down sequence.
    B) When the IMMC acknowledges receipt of the gear down command.
    C) When the IMMC verifies that all gear are down and locked.
    D) When any one of teh gears indicate down.
    C) When the IMMC verifies that all gear are down and locked.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. Which of the following best describes a Machine Gun message? 

    A) A command that requires secondary confirmation before it may be executed.
    B) A command that is repeatedly transmitted to the aircraft until the pilot selects the Stop button.
    C) A command that performs an irrevocable action.
    D) A message that must be resent every sic seconds
    B) A command that is repeatedly transmitted to the aircraft until the pilot selects the Stop button.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. Which ground station shelter configures at least one data link for command and control prior to takeoff?

    A) MCE
    B) Both LRE and MCE
    C) Neither. A data link is not configured for command adn control prior to takeoff.
    D) LRE
    B) Both LRE and MCE
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. What is the recommended action to maintain communication with the RQ-4 if you suspect the established Ku-band SATCOM command and control link is taking hits?

    A) Link switch to None.
    B) Allow an MQ-9 ground station to take control.
    C) Recycle the LCP controlling the Ku equipment.
    D) link switch to another available Link.
    D) link switch to another available Link.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. What is the primary reason for masking data on the wideband communications links through the Link Mask window?

    A) To reduce available bandwidth for simultaneous narrow band data link operation.
    B) to enable transmission of sensor imagery data on the wideband data links.
    C) to inhibit unnecessary data transmissions for improved data link performance.
    D) To control the power level output of the wideband data link equipment.
    C) to inhibit unnecessary data transmissions for improved data link performance.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. What will happened if you attempt to configure the ARC-210 UHF/VHF radio AM voice communication to a busy communication frequency?

    A) The AN/ARC-10 radio may lock in receive only.
    B) You will receive an indication of impending interruption to voice reception.
    C) Voice communication will be interrupted.
    D) The data link shared on that frequency will drop.
    A) The AN/ARC-10 radio may lock in receive only.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. On the Gnd Comms window what indication is expected for a selected wideband link after turning on the transmitter from the UAV configuration window and activating the command link?

    A) A yellow ACQ/RDY indication
    B) A colored background behind the wide band equipment button.
    C) A green RDY/RDY indication
    D) A yellow blank/blank remains until after link sqitch.
    C) A green RDY/RDY indication
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. Which ground station antenna is shut down prior to configuring LRE TCDL for FLIR camera video data?

    A) The INMARSAT antenna
    B) Any antennas controlled by the same LCP as the TCDL.
    C) The MCE CDL antenna
    D) The narrowband LOS antennas
    C) The MCE CDL antenna
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. During aircraft ground operations, CDL and Ku-band SATCOM radiation hazards exist for ground personnel. What is the radiation danger area for the CDL/TCDL?

    A) 12 ft radius with a concentrated 5 ft diameter beam around the antenna.
    B) 10 ft radius with a conical 5 ft diameter beam concentrated down to 18 inches in the antenna's pointing direction. 
    C) 25 ft radius with concentrated 3 ft diameter beam around the antenna.
    D) 5 ft radius with a concentrated 3 ft diameter beam in the antenna's pointing direction.
    B) 10 ft radius with a conical 5 ft diameter beam concentrated down to 18 inches in the antenna's pointing direction.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. Why is only one data link designated in control for ground operations and taxi?

    A) Only one data link is available during ground operations and taxi.
    B) To ensure the lost communications timer does not begin if that data link is lost.
    C) To reduce the data links considered for lost communications logic.
    D) to reduce the time required to configure the links.
    C) To reduce the data links considered for lost communications logic.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. A ground station handoff provides positive transfer of control between ground stations depending on mission requirements. At what altitude is the Ground Station Handoff checklist generally begin?

    A) FL180
    B) FL240
    C) When aircraft ATC transfer is from NORCAL to Oakland.
    D) FL250
    A) FL180
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. Once airborne, why are all of the available links designated as in-control C?

    A) Will allow the aircraft time to respond to a C3 and provide more alternate options.
    B) To allow the IMC to consider all available links before tripping the C1 timer in the event of lost links.
    C) Makes it easier for the mission pilot to communicate with remote operating sites during the flight.
    D) To prevent the aircraft going C2 (RTB) during an EO/IR scan.
    B) To allow the IMC to consider all available links before tripping the C1 timer in the event of lost links.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. How often is the Map window image automatically updated?

    A) Every 10 seconds
    B) Every 24 seconds
    C) Every 3 seconds
    D) The image can only be manually updated
    C) Every 3 seconds
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. What button enables both the calculation of the latitude and longitude of the cursor point and the time to the assigned waypoint?

    A) Distance and Calculation
    B) Pan/Recenter
    C) Latitude or Longitude
    D) Position and Time to Go
    D) Position and Time to Go
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. Stored map areas are located under which Map Window Menu Bar?

    A) view
    B) File
    C) Options
    D) Threats
    B) File
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. What is the maximum number of characters possible in a valid Map Snapshot file name

    A) Nine
    B) Six
    C) Unlimited
    D) Eleven
    B) Six
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. What is the default corridor width display when the single corridor selection button is clicked?

    A) 50 nm
    B) 100nm
    C) 10 nm
    D) 20 nm
    A) 50 nm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. Launching the Map window is accomplished from the root directory of the _____.

    A) Primary Flight Display
    B) Map Window Control Panel
    C) Application Manager window
    D) File manager
    C) Application Manager window
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. How do you display a list of all routes on the Map window?

    A) By selecting the Alt Routes button on the Route Control Scroll panel.
    B) Click the Route Display button.
    C) Left-click on any waypoint and select Display List of ALL Routes.
    D) Select View, then Display All Routes.
    A) By selecting the Alt Routes button on the Route Control Scroll panel.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. What methodology is used to display a Waypoint or Telemetry action box?

    A) Double left-click on a symbol, graphic, or vector in the Map window Image Area.
    B) Select Action Box menu from the View pull down menu.
    C) Right-click on a symbol, graphic, or vector in the Map window Image Area.
    D) Left-Click on a symbol, graphic, or vector in teh Map window Image Area.
    D) Left-Click on a symbol, graphic, or vector in teh Map window Image Area.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. Which technique can be used to display a Hook Panel?

    A) Left or right click on a group of elements in the Map window Image Area.
    B) Richt-Click on a group of elements in the Map window image area.
    C) Right-click on an isolated element in the Map window Image Area.
    D) Select Hook Panel from teh View menu.
    A) Left or right click on a group of elements in the Map window Image Area.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. The Change Map Scale Factor button is located under which Map Window Menu Bar category?

    A) File
    B) Options
    C) Threats
    D) View
    B) Options
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. What is the component shown below? ( Ice Detector)

    A) Ice Detector
    B) Omni STAR GPS REceiver
    C) Total Air Temperature Sensor
    D) TCAS Antenna
    A) Ice Detector
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. What is the red switch shown in the picture?

    A) Nose Wheel Steering Control
    B) Engine Compartment Lights
    C) Brake Control Unit
    D) Emergency Locator Beacon Remote Switch.
    D) Emergency Locator Beacon Remote Switch.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. What indication should be on the landing gear emergency extension nitrogen storage bottle gauge?

    A) 1800-2000 psi.
    B) 3000-3200 psi
    C) 2000-2500 psi.
    D) 3500-4000 psi
    B) 3000-3200 psi
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. Opening the right engine access panel reveals several key components. What component is identified in the picture below?

    A) Fuel/Ram-Air Heat Exchanger.
    B) Fuel Filter
    C) Hydraulic Reservoir
    D) Engine Oil Tank
    C) Hydraulic Reservoir
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. With the engine on, Which of the following actions is disabled once the ground safety pin is installed?

    A) Brake release and taxi.
    B) Landing gear retraction
    C) Communication System and Synthetic Aperture Radar high power transmissions.
    D) All of the above are disabled when the ground safety pin is installed.
    D) All of the above are disabled when the ground safety pin is installed.
  47. What indication are you looking for when inspecting the hydraulic filters in the lower aft compartment?

    A) Check the indicators display a black X on a white circle in the window.
    B) Check the indicators have a green ready indication.
    C) Check the indicators are popped and protrude past the top of the filter.
    D) Check the indicators are not Popped and are flush with the top of the filter.
    D) Check the indicators are not Popped and are flush with the top of the filter.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. What is the minimum acceptable pressure gauge reading on the hydraulic accumulator?

    A) 2200 psi
    B) 1500 psi
    C) 1900 psi
    D) 2600 psi
    C) 1900 psi
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. When checking the rear wheel wells, what are you verifying concerning the brake system?

    A) Check for excessive cracks on the brake rotor.
    B) check the brake shoe discoloration
    C) check that the brake wear indicator pin is protruding.
    D) Check that the break wear indicator pin is not visible.
    C) check that the brake wear indicator pin is protruding.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. How do you determine that the fuel cap is properly closed?

    A) It is screwed down with the arrow forward.
    B) It is latched flush with the arrow to the rear.
    C) It is screwed down with the arrow to the rear.
    D) It is latched flush with the arrow forward.
    D) It is latched flush with the arrow forward.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. What is the component below? (TAT pipe)

    A) TCAS Antenna
    B) Total Air Temperature Sensor
    C) SCAT-1 DGPS Receiver
    D) Ice Detector
    B) Total Air Temperature Sensor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. What is the wingspan for the RQ-4B?

    A) 130 feet, 10 inches
    B) 120 feet, 8 inches
    C) 110 feet, 10 inches
    D) 145 feet, 11 inches
    A) 130 feet, 10 inches
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. Which antenna has a small danger area but poses a particular hazard because ground crews operate very close to it when installing the chocks and landing gear downlocks?

    A) Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR)
    B) Radio Altimeters
    C) Ku-Band SATCOM
    D) Common Data Link
    B) Radio Altimeters
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. What data link is used with the antenna shown below? (White T antenna on top)

    A) UHF SATCOM
    B) Common Data Link
    C) UHF Line of Sight
    D) OmniSTAR Differential GPS
    A) UHF SATCOM
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. How many degrees can the ailerons move in either direction?

    A) 25*
    B) 20*
    C) 15*
    D) 12*
    C) 15*
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. Where are the static discharge wicks located?

    A) Trailing edge of each wingtip and ruddervator.
    B) On the ventral fairings
    C) On the upper engine cowling
    D) Wing and ruddervator leading edges
    A) Trailing edge of each wingtip and ruddervator.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. How is the landing gear on the RQ-4B extended?

    A) Electrically with hydraulic back-up
    B) Hydraulically with pneumatic back-up
    C) Electrically with pneumatic back-up
    D) Hydraulically with electrical back-up
    B) Hydraulically with pneumatic back-up
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. Behind which panel can you access the hydraulic fluid level indicator?

    A) Right engine access panel
    B) Right side maintenance panel.
    C) Left engine access panel
    D) Left side maintenance panel
    A) Right engine access panel
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. Which antennas are mounted under the wing and provide both data link and AM Relay voice communication with air traffic control?

    A) TCAS
    B) SCAT-1
    C) UHF LOS
    D) Common Data Link
    C) UHF LOS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. What subsystem of the Integrated Sensor System (ISS) consists of a transmitter, receiver/exciter/controller, and a scanning antenna?

    A) SAR
    B) Solid State Recorder
    C) Data Processing
    D) EO/IR Sensor
    A) SAR
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. Which of the following data links support aircraft FLIR camera video downlink, and aircraft command and control (C2)?

    A) Tactical Common Data Link (TCDL)
    B) UHF SATCOM
    C) INMARSAT
    D) UHF LOS
    A) Tactical Common Data Link (TCDL)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. Which LRE data link provides beyond line-of-sight (BLOS) for aircraft command and control and aircraft status?

    A) UHF SATCOM
    B) TCDL
    C) UHF LOS
    D) CDL
    A) UHF SATCOM
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. Which of the following components within the LRE passes data between the Ground Communications Interface (GCI) and the Pilot C2 Workstation over the 1553 bus?

    A) VIA SAT Modem
    B) Pilot Octane Workstation
    C) Ground Communications Interface (GCI)
    D) Narrowband Interface Unit(NBIU)
    D) Narrowband Interface Unit(NBIU)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. What component provides the digital interface to enable connection with the bandwidth efficient modem?

    A) VIA SAT Modem
    B) Telco Patch Panel
    C) high Power Amplifier
    D) Ku SATCOM Patch Panel
    D) Ku SATCOM Patch Panel
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. Name the component within the MCE that provides a storage location for sensor data?

    A) Origin 3800
    B) Image Processor and RAID
    C) Image QC Workstation
    D) Wideband Interface unit (WBIU)
    B) Image Processor and RAID
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. Which of the following components enables encoded telephone connectivity with an INMARSAT Land Earth Station (LES)?

    A) Ground INMARSAT Black Assembly (GIBA)
    B) Pilot C2 Workstation
    C) High Power Amplifier
    D) VIA SAT Modem
    A) Ground INMARSAT Black Assembly (GIBA)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. Which of the following components is required to process the Ku-band SATCOM data when using the link’s reachback (remote split operations ) capability?

    A) VIA SAT Modem
    B) TIGDL II(CPGE)
    C) Ground INMARSAT Black Assembly (GIBA)
    D) ATM converter
    D) ATM converter
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. Which component catalogs all imagery received from the WBIU?

    A) Image Processor and RAID
    B) QC workstation
    C) High Power Amplifier (HPA)
    D) Origin 3800
    D) Origin 3800
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. Which of the following links is primarily used to pass sensor data (SAR IMINT and GMTI) to an External Node?

    A) CDL LOS
    B) UHF SATCOM
    C) Ku-SATCOM
    D) INMARSAT
    A) CDL LOS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. What DoD program is considered an integral part of the team which enables the RQ-4 to perform dynamic, integrated and fused intelligence?

    A) Deployable Transit-cased System (DTS)
    B) Tasking Processor Exploitation and Dissemination (TPED)
    C) Distributed Common Ground System (DCGS)
    D) Tactical Exploitation System (TES)
    C) Distributed Common Ground System (DCGS)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. What is the composition of the RQ-4B Block 30 aircraft mission equipment?

    A) Sensor Management Unit, Integrated Sensor System, LR-100 Electronic Support Measures system, and Solid-State Recorder system.
    B) Sensor Management Unit, Integrated Sensor System, Airborne Signals Intelligence Payload system, and Solid-Sate Recorder subsystem.
    C) CAMA, Integrated Sensor System, LR-100 Electronic Support Measures system, and Solid-State Recorder system.
    D) Sensor Management Unit, Integrated SEnsor System, and LR-100 Electronic Support Measures system.
    B) Sensor Management Unit, Integrated Sensor System, Airborne Signals Intelligence Payload system, and Solid-Sate Recorder subsystem.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. In a RQ-4B Block 30i, what is the purpose of the SMU?

    A) Facilitates the integration and operation of the ISS.
    B) Interfaces the ISS to the aircraft communication system.
    C) Mediates all ISS command and control signals.
    D) All of the Above
    D) All of the Above
  73. What is the function of the Integrated Sensor System (ISS)?

    A) Provides reconnaissance and surveillance capability to the operational mission via precise high-altitude terrain mapping and optical imagery.
    B) Provides digital data and image recording, storage, and playback functions.
    C) Provides signals intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance information.
    D) Interfaces teh mission equipment to the aircraft communication system.
    A) Provides reconnaissance and surveillance capability to the operational mission via precise high-altitude terrain mapping and optical imagery.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. Which sensors utilize the same viewing window and common optical components?

    A) Infrared and Synthetic Aperture Radar sensors.
    B) Electro-Optical and Synthetic aperture Radar sensors
    C) Electro-Optical and Infrared sensors.
    D) non of the above.
    C) Electro-Optical and Infrared sensors.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. Which of the following are specific SAR components?

    A) Transmitter, Antenna/Gimbal, and Receiver/Exciter/Controller
    B) Sensor Electronics Unit, Antenna, and Transmitter
    C) Integrated Sensor Processor, Sensor Electronics Unit, and Receiver/Exciter/Controller
    D) Antenna, Integrated Sensor Processor, and Sensor Electronics Unit
    A) Transmitter, Antenna/Gimbal, and Receiver/Exciter/Controller
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. What is one of the functions of the Integrated Sensor Processor (ISP)?

    A) Controls the temperature within the ERU
    B) Interfaces with INS for the SAR and EO/IR sensors
    C) Processes and digitizes analog video from the IR sensor
    D) Receives and executes the collection plan
    D) Receives and executes the collection plan
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. Which of the following is true regarding the Solid-State Recorder (SSR)?

    A) The SSR provides data storage for mission collected sensor data in case of deferred or lost transmission of that data to the MCE.
    B) The SSR, under control of the SMU, is not capable of providing time stamped ISS sensor data
    C) The SSR memory canisters are stored in the MCE
    D) The SSR, under control of the CAMA, is capable of providing time stamped ISS sensor data
    A) The SSR provides data storage for mission collected sensor data in case of deferred or lost transmission of that data to the MCE.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. After full power is applied and the ASIP is fully automatic, who controls the ASIP system?

    A) The pilot
    B) The pilot and sensor operator
    C) The pilot and the cooperating remote ground station
    D) The cooperating remote ground station
    D) The cooperating remote ground station
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. What controls are available to the pilot to restart the SMU if it shuts down?

    A) Reset buttons on the SMU
    B) Reset buttons on the SSR
    C) On and Off power buttons on the SMU DEtailed status window.
    D) On and Off power buttons on the SSR Detailed Status window.
    D) On and Off power buttons on the SSR Detailed Status window.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. When the ISS is turned off before the SMU power is removed in a Block 30i/30m aircraft, what occurs to the ISS when the SMU is turned on again?

    A) The ISS power is automatically reestablished by the IMMC.
    B) The ISS cannot be restarted
    C) The ISS power is reestablished by the SMU.
    D) The ISS remains powered until the CGS turns it back on or it is turned on through an action point command.
    D) The ISS remains powered until the CGS turns it back on or it is turned on through an action point command.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. On which fuel tank are the two 28 VDC fuel boost pumps attached?

    A) Forward Fuselage tank
    B) Aft Fuselage tank
    C) Sump Tank
    D) Root Tank
    C) Sump Tank
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. What function does the HX1 engine bleed air-fuel heat exchanger provide during high altitude flight?

    A) Reduces air temperature for avionics compartment and fuel tank pressurization
    B)Keeps hydraulic fluid temperature within acceptable limits.
    C) Regulates the flow of engine bleed air for fuel tank pressurization
    D) Control the aft compartment air temperature
    A) Reduces air temperature for avionics compartment and fuel tank pressurization
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. Where does jet pump JP1 move fuel when a boost pump is on?

    A) From the Aft Fuselage tank to the Forward Fuselage tank.
    B) From the Aft Fuselage tank to the Root Tank
    C) Through the wing vent line
    D) From the Forward Fuselage tank to the Aft tank
    A) From the Aft Fuselage tank to the Forward Fuselage tank.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. How much fuel must be subtracted from the total onboard fuel quantity to determine usable fuel for engine consumption?

    A) 350 lbs
    B) 39 lbs
    C) 100 lbs
    D) 262 lbs
    D) 262 lbs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. Which fuel tank shutoff valve(s) cycle open and close in conjunction with forward fuselage tank float switches FS2 and FS6 and cause jet pump JP1 to cycle on and off?

    A) SV1
    B) SV3
    C) SV4 and SV5
    D) SV2 and SV6
    D) SV2 and SV6
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. Which fuel tanks should be empty when FQR is approximately 10,000 lbs?

    A) The Wing fuel tanks
    B) The Root tank and Aft Fuselage fuel tank
    C) The Forward and Aft Fuselage Fuel tanks
    D) The Ullage and Aft Fuselage fuel tanks.
    C) The Forward and Aft Fuselage Fuel tanks
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. What is the largest producer of heat in the forward and aft pressurized avionics compartment?

    A) Engine eighth-Stage bleed air.
    B) Fuel returning from the fuel-air exchanges.
    C) Ambient air during ground operations
    D) Electronic equipment
    D) Electronic equipment
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. Why is fuel routed through the forward avionics compartment fuel-air heat exchanger?

    A) to transfer heat from the warmed hydraulic fluid to the cold fuel in the ECS circulation loop.
    B) To maintain air temperature for air-cooled equipment
    C) To reduce fuel temperature through exposure to ram air.
    D) To warm the fuel by heat transfer from teh AC generator oil.
    B) To maintain air temperature for air-cooled equipment
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. If Shutoff Valve 5 fails, how would the IMCC transfer ECS return fuel and to which fuel tank?

    A) The center portion of the Root tank through SV4
    B) The outer portion of the Root tank through selector valve SV12
    C) The outboard Wing fuel tanks through selector valve SV12
    D) The forward Fuselage fuel tank through SV1
    A) The center portion of the Root tank through SV4
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. Which fuel tank gravity feeds into the root tank and is replenished from the aft fuselage fuel tank?

    A) The Forward fuselage fuel tank
    A) The Forward fuselage fuel tank
  91. Which portion of the electrical system on the RQ-4 is considered the most critical?

    A) ISS PDU
    B) DC System
    C) TRU
    D) AC System
    B) DC System
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. Should all the generators fail, how long will the three lithium-ion batteries continue to provide emergency power?

    A) 30 minutes
    B) 60 minutes
    C) 20 minutes
    D) 45 minutes
    D) 45 minutes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. What two components monitor and control the aircraft’s overall electrical system operation?

    A) GCUs
    B) IMMCs
    C) Generators
    D) PDCs
    B) IMMCs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. What component takes IMMC inputs and line voltage and converts it to meet the specific electrical power requirements of individual components?

    A) TRU
    B) GCU
    C) PDC
    D) VTC
    C) PDC
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. Complete the following sentence. The DC generator ____.

    A) is the source of power for the Battery 3 charger
    B) is hard-wired to the DC Generator bus
    C) is mounted on the engine Accessory Drive Gearbox (ADG)
    D) provides 10 kilovolt-ampere (kVA), 115-volt, three-phase, 400Hz DC power
    C) is mounted on the engine Accessory Drive Gearbox (ADG)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. Which of the following is NOT one of the RQ-4B DC-powered buses?

    A) Start Bus
    B) Flight Critical bus
    C) Battery Bus
    D) Payload Bus
    C) Battery Bus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. The ASIP is wired to which bus on the Block 30 version of the RQ-4B?

    A) Flight Critical DC bus
    B) Start DC bus
    C) Payload AC bus
    D) None of the above
    C) Payload AC bus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. Complete the following sentence. The primary function of the 25 kVA AC generator is to _____.

    A) provide backup power for the DC system
    B) power the FADECs
    C) power the ECS fans
    D) power the Payload and Essential AC busses
    D) power the Payload and Essential AC busses
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. What is the source of power for the Battery 3 charger?

    A) The Static inverter
    B) The Payload AC bus
    C) The Essential AC bus
    D) The Transformer Rectifier Unit
    C) The Essential AC bus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. Which of the following buses contain both hardwired equipment and switched equipment controlled by a Power and Discrete Controller (PDC)?

    A) Flight Critical bus A
    B) Payload AC bus
    C) Start bus A
    D) Payload DC bus
    C) Start bus A
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. The RQ-4B electrical power system operates under three basic modes or conditions. Which of the following is NOT one of those conditions?

    A) Emergency operation
    B) Standby operation
    C) Normal operation
    D) Backup Operation
    B) Standby operation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. What operating mode is the aircraft in if the DC generator has failed and the DC Generator bus is receiving power form the TRU?

    A) Partial operation
    B) Normal operation
    C) Backup operation
    D) Ground operation
    C) Backup operation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. How do you access the Primary Flight Display?

    A) Drag the Primary flight Display icon to the mission folder
    B) Drag the mission folder from the File Manager window onto the Primary flight Display icon
    C) Double click on the Flight Control icon
    D) Double click the mission window and enter the aircraft tail number.
    B) Drag the mission folder from the File Manager window onto the Primary flight Display icon
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. Which of the following indicators is NOT included on the Primary Flight Display?

    A) Heading Indicator
    B) Radio Altimeter
    C) WOW indicator
    D) Altimeter Indicator
    C) WOW indicator
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. How do you access the Navigation Quality and Control window from the Primary Flight Display?

    A) It is accessed through the File pull down menu on the Primary flight Display
    B) By clicking on the PAYLD shortcut button
    C) Via the Nav Quality selection on the Primary Flight Display View dropdown menu
    D) By right-clicking on the NAV indication label
    C) Via the Nav Quality selection on the Primary Flight Display View dropdown menu
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. Which Select Button opens on input box to change the transition altitude or level?

    A) MAR VAR
    B) BARO
    C) LEVEL
    D) SUSPEND
    C) LEVEL
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. What indicator appears right of the Attitude Indicator’s aircraft symbol only when it’s check box is selected?

    A) Cross Track Error Indicator
    B) Radio Altimeter Indicator
    C) Vertical Velocity Indicator
    D) Altitude Error Indicator
    D) Altitude Error Indicator
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  108. What is indicated if the magenta climb or descend up or down arrows appear on the altitude indicator?

    A) Nothing, the arrows are always on teh indocator.
    B) The aircraft is climbing or descending depending on the direction of the arrow
    C) The commanded altitude is above or below the current aircraft altitude and is outside the altitude indicator scale.
    D) The arrows appear after a left select in the altitude indicator allowing altitude to be changed by dragging the arrow to the desired altitude.
    C) The commanded altitude is above or below the current aircraft altitude and is outside the altitude indicator scale.
  109. Which indicator shows aircraft pitch and bank?

    A) Airspeed Indicator
    B) Heading Indicator
    C) Altitude Indicator
    D) Attitude Indicator
    D) Attitude Indicator
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  110. What is indicated in the Communication Information Area, if the specified data link’s background displayed next to the label LINK is yellow?

    A) The data link is interrupted
    B) The data link is in standby
    C) Data link selection is required.
    D) The data link is established
    A) The data link is interrupted
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  111. Where can you find the Operational and Guidance modes data?

    A) In the Communications area
    B) In the Navigation/Waypoint Information area.
    C) Under the AVS shortcut button
    D) In the Fuel/RAT Information area
    B) In the Navigation/Waypoint Information area.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  112. What indication label on the Primary Flight Display is boxed blue during autonomous or suspend modes and boxed yellow in override or on track mode?

    A) Navigation mode label
    B) Operational mode label
    C) Flight mode label
    D) Steering mode label
    D) Steering mode label
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. What flight control surfaces are actively controlled by IMMC B on channel B in the Secondary configuration?

    A) Left and right inboard
    B) Left and right outboard
    C) Right inboard and left outboard
    D) Left inboard and right outboard
    B) Left and right outboard
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  114. Which RQ-4 flight control surface component maintains pitch and yaw control?

    A) Ailerons
    B) Spoilers
    C) Ruddervators
    D) Rotary Actuator
    C) Ruddervators
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  115. What flight control surface provides roll control for the aircraft?

    A) Spoilers
    B) Ailerons
    C) Actuators
    D) Ruddervators
    B) Ailerons
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  116. What type of Steering mode is the Taxi Guidance mode considered?

    A) On Track
    B) Override
    C) Suspend
    D) Autonomous
    D) Autonomous
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  117. At what ground speed after landing does the RQ-4 transition to the taxi mode?

    A) Slower than 15 knots
    B) Slower than 25 knots
    C) Slower than 10 knots
    D) Slower than 20 knots
    D) Slower than 20 knots
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  118. Which of the following is NOT considered an In-flight mode?

    A) Ready for Taxi
    B) Taxi
    C) Flare
    D) Engine Out
    A) Ready for Taxi
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  119. Which mode is the aircraft in when the pilot first establishes a link?

    A) Taxi
    B) Prelaunch mode
    C) Ready for Taxi
    D) Power Up
    B) Prelaunch mode
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  120. What additional transition modes are available after the pilot executes the Taxi command, but before takeoff?

    A) Takeoff and Takeoff Abort
    B)There are no additional transition modes available during this phase of flight.
    C) Stop Taxi and Emergency Shutdown
    D) Stop Taxi and Takeoff
    C) Stop Taxi and Emergency Shutdown
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  121. What is the maximum spoiler limit above FL500?

    A) 45 degrees
    B) 40 degrees
    C) 65 degrees
    D) 50 degrees
    A) 45 degrees
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  122. On the workstation windows, what color indicated a button or field has been selected but the command has not yet been executed?

    A) Yellow
    B) Blue
    C) Red
    D) Purple
    D) Purple
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  123. Which work station window provides the pilot with normal flight instrument data for vertical and horizontal situational awareness through attitude, airspeed, altitude, vertical velocity, and heading indications?

    A) Primary Flight Display
    B) Nav Quality and control window
    C) Detailed Status window
    D) Subsystem status panel
    A) Primary Flight Display
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  124. Which shortcut button on the Primary Flight Display is selected to open the UAV Sensor Monitor Window?

    A) ATC...
    B) Link...
    C) Sensors
    D) Payld
    D) Payld
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  125. What interface window provides color-coded indicators of each aircraft system operating condition?

    A) Desktop Manager
    B) The Detailed Status window for the particular system
    C) Advisory window
    D) Subsystem Status panel
    D) Subsystem Status panel
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  126. What display, accessed through the Map window, provides access to available routes in a mission plan and de-clutter of the primary mission navigation plan route based on waypoint selection?

    A) General Response area
    B) Hide/Show panel
    C) Draw panel
    D) Route Control Scroll panel
    D) Route Control Scroll panel
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  127. What display provides a log of clear text messages from the aircraft or the ground station and appears automatically on the right side monitor after each login?

    A) Hide/Show panel
    B) Machine Gun display
    C) Advisory window
    D) Subsystem Status panel
    C) Advisory window
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  128. What window provides the state of Ku-band SATCOM, UHF SATCOM, UHF LOS, CDL, DGPS, and ground-based shelter equipment transmission signals?

    A) UAV Sensor Monitor window
    B) UAV IFF/ATC window
    C) Nav Quality and Control
    D) Ground Communications window
    D) Ground Communications window
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  129. On the Application Manager, what window opens when you drag and drop the mission folder on the Kickoff icon?

    A) Display Mission
    B) Mission Startup
    C) Admin Applications
    D) Mission kickoff
    D) Mission kickoff
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  130. What is the main interface window that provides pathways, directories, and folders containing mission navigation plans, collections plans, communications plans, map data and configuration data to support a mission?

    A) Application Manager
    B) Primary Flight Display
    C) File Manager
    D) CGS office
    C) File Manager
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  131. What interface provides a miniature graphical representation of all open windows on the available desktops?

    A) Map Display
    B) Detailed Status Window
    C) Audio Path Bar
    D) Front Panel
    D) Front Panel
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  132. Which propulsion system component provides support and drive capability for engine accessories?

    A) Engine
    B) Accessory-drive gearbox
    C) Fuel pump and metering unit
    D) Bleed valves
    B) Accessory-drive gearbox
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  133. Which engine section mixes inlet air and fuel to provide a uniform high-temperature gas flow to the turbine?

    A) Fan section
    B) Compressor airflow
    C) Combustion Section
    D) Exhaust section
    C) Combustion Section
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  134. During engine start, what engine component opens and closes to prevent engine surge during engine acceleration to ground idle?

    A) Fan bypass air
    B) High pressure turbine
    C) Compressor variable geometry guide vanes
    D) Bleed air manifold valves
    D) Bleed air manifold valves
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  135. Which ADG component provides primary electrical power to the FADEC’s?

    A) PMA
    B) 25 kVA AC Generator
    C) FPMU
    D) DC Generator
    A) PMA
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  136. What component ensures proper oil system pressure operation during high altitude flight?

    A) Oil Filter bypass valve
    B) Pressure and scavenge pumps
    C) Auxiliary scavenge pump
    D) Hydraulic pump
    C) Auxiliary scavenge pump
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  137. What engine control system component manages engine thrust and control?

    A) Hydraulic pump and pressure/scavenge pump
    B) AC and DC generator
    C) Auxiliary oil pump and auxiliary scavenge pump
    D) FADECs A and B
    D) FADECs A and B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  138. What is considered a normal oil temperature indication?

    A) Below 260* Fahrenheit
    B) 70* Fahrenheit
    C) 260* Fahrenheit
    D) Above 260* Fahenheit
    A) Below 260* Fahrenheit
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  139. How does the FADEC shut down the engine to prevent engine overspeed?

    A) The FADEC sends a command to the IMMC
    B) The FADEC closes the FPMU fuel metering control valve
    C) The FADEC cannot shutdown the engine.
    D) The FADEC opens the FPMU fuel metering control valve
    B) The FADEC closes the FPMU fuel metering control valve
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  140. What is the maximum oil pressure for continuous engine operation?

    A) 48 psi
    B) 65 psi
    C) 95 psi
    D) 34 psi
    C) 95 psi
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  141. Which statement is true when the aircraft experiences an emergency and transitions to a Contingency 3?

    A) The IMMC will autonomously begin squawking 7700.
    B) The pilot should set the IFF/SIF system to squawk 7700
    C) The IMMC will autonomously begin sending X-pulse signals to the controller
    D) The IMMC will maintain the current mode 3 code and will IDENT for 30 seconds
    A) The IMMC will autonomously begin squawking 7700.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  142. What components make up the air data system? (longest answer)

    A) Two air data pressure transducers located in teh aft compartment, two pitot tubes located on the leading edge of the v-tails, and one total air temperature transducer located on the forward right fuselage
    B) Two pitot tubes on the leading edge of the v-tails with temperature transducers, two air data computers, and a static port on the side of the fuselage
    C) Two air data computers in the ruddervators, and a single vibrating temperature transducer on the side of the fuselage.
    D) Four INS units, combined with GPS and DGPS updates, used to calculate airspeed and altitude data.
    A) Two air data pressure transducers located in teh aft compartment, two pitot tubes located on the leading edge of the v-tails, and one total air temperature transducer located on the forward right fuselage
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  143. When is information from the Radio Altimeter System used by the IMMCs for navigation inputs?

    A) At altitudes of 750 feet and below
    B) At altitudes of 2500 feet and below
    C) Once the aircraft crosses the FAF.
    D) At altitudes below 18,200 during climb and below 17,800 feet on descent
    A) At altitudes of 750 feet and below
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  144. What mode must the aircraft be in to conduct a Flight Terminate Test?

    A) Ready for Taxi
    B) Taxi
    C) Takeoff
    D) Stop Taxi
    A) Ready for Taxi
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  145. Which of the following statements is true regarding the FLIR camera?

    A) Touching the glass in front of the camera lens may affect image quality.
    B) The camera is pressurized using 8th stage bleed air from the engine through the environmental control system.
    C) The camera lens can rotate up to 35 degrees horizontally and 29 degrees vertically to aid in detection of other aircraft.
    D) The camera is controlled by the sensor operator.
    A) Touching the glass in front of the camera lens may affect image quality.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  146. When activated, how long does the Emergency Locator Transmitter transmit a modulated satellite signal?

    A) 8 hours
    B) 12 hours
    C) Every 50 seconds for 72 hours
    D) Every 50 seconds for 24 hours
    D) Every 50 seconds for 24 hours
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  147. Why is it important to check IFF button positions and transponder codes before pressing executing the command?

    A) The IFF system will squawk 7700 with a steady red fault.
    B) The IFF system  sends a single command to change all setting simultaneously.
    C) The IFF system is also used to arm the Flight Terminate system
    D) The IFF system will default to the Standby position each time the window is opened.
    B) The IFF system  sends a single command to change all setting simultaneously.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  148. How does the Ice Detector report icing to the pilot?

    A) By initiating a flashing red "DangerIce" machine gun report is intiated.
    B) By a yellow ICeDEt01 caution message on the flight monitor.
    C) By a red "ICE" message next to the relative air temperature readout.
    D) By a message in the flight status window.
    C) By a red "ICE" message next to the relative air temperature readout.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  149. How is the aircraft landing light controlled?

    A) It is controlled by toggling the Nav Light buttons.
    B) It is on automatically any time the landing gear is down.
    C) It is dimmed automatically when the FLIR Camera is in use.
    D) It is controlled with the Strobes Light buttons
    D) It is controlled with the Strobes Light buttons
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  150. Where can the pilot view the outputs the IMMC receives from the air data system?

    A) The Primary flight Display
    B) The UAV IFF/ATC window
    C) The Flight Control Display
    D) The Advisory window
    A) The Primary flight Display
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  151. The left and right main landing gear brakes are electrically actuated and independently controlled by which of the following?

    A) Brake system control unit
    B) Speed transducers
    C) Emergency brake accumulator
    D) Autobrake Valves
    A) Brake system control unit
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  152. Which component listed below is powered by the RQ-4 hydraulic system?

    A) Auxiliary oil Scavenge Pump
    B) DC Generator
    C) 10 kVA AC generator
    D) Ruddervators
    C) 10 kVA AC generator
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  153. What is the primary purpose of the hydraulic fluid/fuel heat exchanger (HX4)?

    A) To transfer excess heat from the fuel system to the hydraulic system
    B) To transfer excess heat from the fuel system to the engine oil system.
    C) To transfer excess heat from the engine oil system to the fuel system
    D) To transfer heat from the hydraulic fluid to the fuel
    D) To transfer heat from the hydraulic fluid to the fuel
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  154. What are the three types of Failure Mode Braking?

    A) Alternate, maximum force, or autonomous
    B) Light, medium,  and brake hold
    C) Light, medium, and maximum force
    D) Light, medium, and override
    A) Alternate, maximum force, or autonomous
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  155. When is differential braking available?

    A) When braking is initiated at groundspeeds faster than 20 knots
    B) During taxi at taxi speeds
    C) During takeoff abort when the abort is initiated slower than 20 knots groundspeed.
    D) When braking is initiated at groundspeeds slower than 20 knots
    A) When braking is initiated at groundspeeds faster than 20 knots
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  156. What is the status of the Flight Control display brakes indicator when the brakes are off?

    A) The Brakes indicator is red when the brakes are off
    B) The Brakes Bar indicator fills with green to indicate the brakes are off.
    C) The Brakes indicator is green when the brakes are off
    D) The Brake Selection indicator indicates the letter A when the brakes are off.
    C) The Brakes indicator is green when the brakes are off
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  157. At what minimum speed are antilock brakes available during landing?

    A) Below 10 kts
    B) Above 20 kts
    C) Below 25 Kts
    D) Above 25 kts
    D) Above 25 kts
  158. What appears on the Flight Control display that indicates that weight is not on the wheels (false)?

    A) The WOW indicator appears as a red circle with flashing square indicator
    B) The WOW indicator appears as a white circle.
    C) The WOW indicator appears as a green circle
    D) The WOW indicator appears as a blue circle.
    B) The WOW indicator appears as a white circle.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  159. What is the course of action for the IMMC in the event that the strut remains hiked for over 15 seconds after the first de-hike command?

    A) The IMMC issues no additional de-hike command
    B) No action required until after 20 seconds has elapsed
    C) The IMMC issues two additional de-hike commands
    D) The IMMC issues one additional de-hike command
    C) The IMMC issues two additional de-hike commands
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  160. What is the default brake rate during a Contingency 1 landing?

    A) 12 FPS2
    B) 8 fps2
    C) 4 fps2
    D) The default brake rate is the brake set by the pilot prior to the Contingency 1.
    D) The default brake rate is the brake set by the pilot prior to the Contingency 1.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

Card Set Information

Author:
c17ryan
ID:
318127
Filename:
RQ-4 NG test - CBTs
Updated:
2016-04-03 18:05:58
Tags:
Froth
Folders:

Description:
Froth MQF
Show Answers:

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