RQ-4 NG test - Classes

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  1. Where can you find regulatory guidance regarding RQ-4 specific training issues?
    AFI 11-2RQ4V1, RQ-4 Crew Training
  2. Where can you find regulatory guidance applying to RQ-4 specific operations?
    AFI 11-2RQ-4V3, RQ-4/EQ-4 Operations procedures
  3. Who has ultimate authority in the MCE during RQ-4 operations?
    The MCE Pilot
  4. What are the primary responsibilities of the sensor operator?
    Mission collection, planning, and management
  5. You must be allowed the opportunity for how many hours of uninterrupted sleep?
    8 hours
  6. Within how many hours prior to performing flight duties are you prohibited from consuming alcohol?
    12 hours
  7. What AFI establishes the minimum standards for qualifying RQ-4 pilots?
    AFI 11-2RQ-4V2, RQ-4 Crew Evaluation Criteria
  8. How is the EFM updated with the most current RAC changes?
    By running the Joing Knowledge (JK) update application.
  9. What section located in the EFM describes the mission crew duties for both the pilots and sensor operators?
    Section IV
  10. What viewing software tool allows you to view the electronic RQ-4 Technical Manual (1Q-4(R)A-2-WA-2)?
    Specview
  11. What section of the EFM contains the expanded aircraft and Common Ground Station (CGS) emergency procedures?
    Section III
  12. What navigation Button will automatically convert the expanded EFM data into an abbreviated checklist?
    The CL (Checklist) Button
  13. How are crewmembers notified of latest EFM releases?
    The FCIF release will direct crewmembers to upload the latest RAC change to the EFM
  14. When the pilot executes the Flight Control Display Emergency Shutoff Button which valve is closed in addition to the Latching Shutoff Valve?
    Engine Fuel Shutoff Valve (SV3)
  15. What component does the FADEC use to regulate the flow of fuel to the engine?
    FPMU Fuel Pump Metering Unit
  16. Which subcomponent of the Engine Oil system ensures proper oil system operation during high altitude flight?
    Auxiliary Scavenge Pump
  17. What angle should the Power Lever Angle (PLA) be at MCT (full power)?
    The Power Lever Angle should be at 75*  at maximum continuous thrust
  18. How does the IMMC compute aileron trim bias?
    The IMMC uses aileron deflection from 90 to 120 seconds after takeoff to compute aileron trim bias.
  19. In the event both boost pumps fail with engine bleed air providing fuel tanks pressurization, fuel pressure should be sufficient to feed the engine at altitudes up to?
    FL 520
  20. What data does the Integrated Mission Management Computer (IMMC) use to calculate fuel quantity remaining?
    The IMMC uses cumulative fuel flow subtracted from the initial fuel load to calculate fuel quantity remaining. Fuel flow is the primary source of fuel management.
  21. During a mission you receive a Fuel48 warning, what minimum fuel quantity remaining should you land with?
    You are recommended to land with greater than 9,000 lbs of fuel if fuel is trapped in the Aft Fuselage tank.
  22. During a Mission you receive a Fuel20 caution, what minimum fuel quantity remaining should you land with?
    Land wth more than 8,500 lbs of fuel remaining. If 857 lbs of fuel are trapped in the Aft Fuselage tank, aircraft control might not be possible with FQR less than 8,200 lbs.
  23. At approximately FL600, what would you do with an ECS137 warning and a Fuel42 caution?
    Descend below 44,000
  24. At what quantity level does onboard fuel reach its coldest temperature, making it the most susceptible to freezing?
    The wing tanks fuel is coldest about 10 to 12 hours after takeoff or when the fuel quantity remaining is between 12,000 and 9,000 lbs.
  25. During Descent, below what altitude does the fuel system vent directly to the atmosphere?
    Below FL440, the fuel system vents directly to the atmosphere
  26. At what altitude will the IMMC turn off the ISS and ASIP on Block 30 aircraft to allow two heater elements for heating?
    Above FL607
  27. How is electronic equipment cooled in the pressurized avionics compartments?
    Equipment is cooled by cool fuel running through cold plates, heat exchangers and by air circulated by forward and aft compartment fans
  28. What are the temperature limits (hot/cold) for both IMMC’s that will put the aircraft in a C3 state?
    Hot temperature limit is 160 F and cold limit is -15 F.
  29. What is the most likely cause of an avionics compartment pressurization outflow malfunction when above FL260?
    A faulty Compartment Safety Valve or Compartment Pressure Valve
  30. What action will cause fuel tank pressure to increase following a red ECS137 warning, indicating very low fuel tank pressure?
    Descending below FL440
  31. What is the minimum DC voltage necessary to ensure a flight termination command can be maintained through ground impact?
    23 vDC
  32. What is the primary source of backup DC power to the Flight Critical buses and the Start buses should the DC generator fail?
    Transformer Rectifier Unit (TRU)
  33. On which buses can you find both switched and hard-wired components?
    Start Buses
  34. The engine has failed, as well as Flight Critical bus B and Start bus B. Since the batteries need only supply power to Start bus A and Flight Critical bus A, how much additional time is available beyond the usual 45 minutes of flight time?
    Zero- 45 minutes is the maximum available when on battery power
  35. What IMMC logic will occur when the aircraft is on the backup 10 kVA generator and the landing gear is lowered?
    IMMC logic will automatically turn off the 10kVA AC generator prior to lowering the landing gear. After the landing gear is in position, the 10 kVA AC generator is reset and essential AC bus power is again available
  36. What are the UAV and CGS requirements to allow data to flow on a link?
    Ground station has a configured command link and an active transmitter. Aircraft has a configured return link and an active transmitter.
  37. What is the primary reason for masking data on the wideband communication links through the Link Mask window?
    To inhibit unnecessary data transmissions for improved data link performance.
  38. What is the reason for doing an echo test and how do you determine if the test was successful?
    Ensures data is flowing in both directions; observe Advisory Window for “Echo test successful”
  39. When using AM Relay what caution must be taken to prevent possible frequency interference?
    Ensure each AN/ARC-210 radio is set to a different frequency separated by at lease 25 MHz or use a VHF freq.
  40. What are the UAV Comms window signal state indications when a command link is present and the link was properly configured for Ku-band SATCOM and CDL/TCDL?
    A Yellow ACQ/RDY
  41. The Global Hawk contingency 3 final approach fix altitude and glide slope angle are approximately______________.
    2800 AGL and 5 1/4 degrees
  42. What should remain on until just prior to initial descent for landing to provide temperature control for the ASIP equipment?
    ASIP AC and DC power
  43. What items should be reviewed during the primary approach review?
    The approach to the runway flown plus IAF anf FAF waypoints and altitudes
  44. At what altitude is the radio altimeter powered on during descent?
    Passing approximately 17,800 feet
  45. To prevent possible injuries, what four electronic emitters must be turned off prior to allowing ground personnel to approach the aircraft?
    Radio Altimeters, IFF, CDL, Ku, Strobes  “Ricks”
  46. The actuators move the aileron control surfaces approximately how many degrees from the wing center reference?
    Approximately 15 degrees up and down
  47. What takes place in the event of a ruddervator failure?
    A differential spoiler control is enabled to regain directional control of the aircraft
  48. During Descent mode, why does the pilot return to the Airspeed Schedule?
    To provide maximum range, adequate stall margin, and gust load protection.
  49. Name the different steering modes for the RQ-4.
    Autonomous, Override, On Track, Suspend
  50. What type of contingency will cause the aircraft to transition from the override steering mode to the autonomous steering mode?
    Any contingency
  51. Most Actuator failures initiate what type of contingency?
    Contingency 2
  52. The two IMMCs operate in synchronized manner using a “Dual Master Architecture.” On a typical flight, how is the “In Charge” IMMC determined?
    IMMC A is designated “In Charge” until it fails.
  53. Which Steering mode allows the pilot to command changes to the aircraft track or heading?
    The “Override” Steering mode allows the pilot to command heading or track changes.
  54. During a C1 landing, what is the default brake rate?
    The brake rate set by the pilot prior to C1 (8 ft/s2  standard)
  55. What does a navigation quality of “0” indicate?
    The NAV system has failed, however the IMU may still be providing proper attitude information.
  56. What HPRE equates to a navigation quality of “18”?
    0-15 feet
  57. What contingency does an INS red flashing warning initiate?
    Contingency 3
  58. What is the primary wideband data link you would configure to receive aircraft command and control data and sensor image downlink to the MCE?
    Ku-Band SATCOM
  59. What communication data link configuration is controlled by LCP2?
    UHF LOS, UHF SATCOM and CDL
  60. Using the PFD, what are the two methods to open the UAV Comms window?
    The link button on the left hand side of the PFD or through the “View” pull-down menu
  61. Under what condition should the RQ-4 pilot begin the C1 Lost Communications checklist procedures?
    Before expiration of the comms timeout timer (local 120 seconds)
  62. When does the aircraft go C1?
    At the expiration of the comms timeout timer.
  63. If you are operating the DC generator and the backup 10 kVA AC generator, why does the IMMC command the generator to shut down prior to extending landing gear?
    Because the hydraulic pump provides insufficient hydraulic pressure for simultaneous landing gear and 10 kVA generator operation at low RPM
  64. How is the weight on wheels state determined if one or both main landing gear WOW switches fail?
    Determined by backup weight on wheels logic
  65. What aircraft brake system component is responsible for aircraft deceleration rate, locked wheel protection, and antiskid control?
    Brake System Control Unit (BSCU)
  66. What type of braking is used if wheel speed feedback is unavailable?
    Alternate Braking
  67. What is the status of the brakes indicator on the Flight Control display brakes indictor when the brakes are applied?
    Indicator is Red
  68. A Red Warning Gr & Brk41 inflight indicates that hydraulic pressure is less that what psi?
    Hydraulic pressure is less than 2,000 psi
  69. What has to be accomplished if the aircraft travels to the limits of the Satellite Footprint?
    The antenna may have to be adjusted
  70. What communication data links provide Beyond Line-of-Sight aircraft command and control for either the LRE or MCE?
    UHF SATCOM or INMARSAT
  71. What component separates sensor data from C2 data on the return link for the Ku-band SATCOM data link?
    Ground Communications Interface (GCI)
  72. Name all the components that are required to process the UHF LOS data link for the LRE.
    Pilot C2 Workstation, Narrow Band Interface Unit (NBIU), GCI, VIA SAT Modem, High Power Amplifier (HPA), UHF LOS ground and aircraft antenna
  73. Name the components required to process the INMARSAT data link when gaining access using the Public Switch Telephone Network (PSTN).
    Pilot C2 Workstation,  Narrowband interface unit (NBIU),  Ground Communications Interface (GCI),  Ground INMARSAT Black Assembly (GIBA), Remote LES, INMARSAT Satellite
  74. What color fault indication appears when there is a fault or failure in the Ku-band SATCOM equipment?
    Yellow Appears
  75. When using a headwind advantage in takeoff calculations, use ____% of the steady state headwind component and ______% of the gust.
    50, 0
  76. What are the RQ-4B takeoff and landing wind limits?
    -Do not takeoff or land with winds greater than 30 kts.-Maximum crosswind for takeoff and landing is 15 kts for gross weighs ³28,000 lbs; 20 kts for gross weights <28,000 lbs.-Maximum tailwind component is 20 kts.-Maximum Gust Increment is 15 kts.
  77. When must you re-compute takeoff data?
    When runway temperature changes by more than 10°F.-When pressure altitude changes by more than 1,000 ft.-When gross weight changes by more than 1,000 lbs.- When any two of the above change by 50% of the specified amounts or the RCR changes.- Runway condition changes.
  78. The en route descent is based on the airspeed schedule and glide angle. Depending on aircraft gross weight, what is the expected glide slope angle?
    2-8 degrees
  79. What is the heavyweight and lightweight glide ratios in an emergency descent with the landing gear up?
    29:1 for gear up heavy weight (4.77NM/1, 000 ft) 20:1 for gear up light weight (3.29NM/1,000 ft)
  80. During a heavy weight landing at what brake energy level should the main landing gear fuse plugs release?
    Above 11 million fbs
  81. V1 airspeed is __________________?
    40 kts with up to 10 kts tailwind component
  82. Where do you find the lineup and landing distance to obtain Runway Available and Runway Length?
    The mission planning book
  83. Under what FAA center identifier do you find the Temporary Flight Restriction for Beale AFB?
    KZOA (Oakland)
  84. What are the three basic rules for RQ-4 emergencies?
    Maintain Aircraft Control Analyze the Situation Take Proper Action
  85. Of the following contingencies (C1-C4), which is the lowest in the contingency hierarchy?
    C-1: Lost Communications
  86. If the aircraft loses communication after it was already in a C3 condition and on a C3 route, what will it do?
    It continues on the C3 routing
  87. When the aircraft is stopped after Takeoff Abort, which mode is autonomously invoked?
    The post flight or Emergency Shutdown
  88. If the aircraft completes a takeoff after a tire fails, at what altitude should the pilot select and execute gear down to disable the IMMC retraction command?
    Before passing through 3,500 feet AGL
  89. What window provides the pilot access to available divert airfields and routings for the mission
    Alternate Routes Windows
  90. Why must the TT5 temperature be before starting the ISS?
    TT5 must be colder than 80 degrees Fahrenheit to start the ISS.
  91. How many times should the pilot use ISS Software Reset procedures to attempt IS recovery?
    Once
  92. What is the field of regard for the RQ-4B ERU?
    +/- 20 degrees fore and aft
  93. What is the operating range of the RQ-4B SAR sensor?
    20 km-200 km
  94. What sensor operating state supplies 28 VDC power to the ISS for environmental control while other sensor systems are unpowered?
    Standby state
  95. After full power is applied and the ASIP is fully automatic, who controls the ASIP?
    Cooperating remote ground station (RGS)
  96. What type of SMU fault may result in the SMU failing?
    SMU temperature fault.

Card Set Information

Author:
c17ryan
ID:
318165
Filename:
RQ-4 NG test - Classes
Updated:
2016-03-30 03:59:51
Tags:
FROTH
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Description:
HAwk NG CBT/Class test
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