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  1. The primary goal of infection control when handling and disinfecting impressions, dentures, and appliances is to:
    A. prevent contamination of the equipment in the dental laboratory
    B. protect the laboratory personnel from the patient
    C. prevent cross contamination
    D. protect the patient from the laboratory personnel
    C. prevent cross contamination
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. The term used for the setting of hydrocolloid impression materials is:
    FILL IN
  3. (T/F) Direct restorative materials are fabricated in the dental lab.
    False
  4. Air incorporated into a gypsum mix results in:
    Surface inaccuracies
  5. Why is a dental stone vibrated after mixing?
    A. the mixing is not uniform and vibration completes the mixing
    B. the vibration shakes up any remaining particles
    C. the vibration makes the mixture more dense by removing any trapped air pockets
    D. the vibration halts the reaction and allows extended pouring times
    C. the vibration makes the mixture more dense by removing any trapped air pockets
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. The Brinell and Knoop tests are used in determining:
    Hardness
  7. Model plaster is:
    A. type IV gypsum
    B. type III gypsum
    C. type I gypsum
    D. type II gypsum
    D. type II gypsum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. What is another name for a dental material's stiffness?
    Modulous of elasticity
  9. For most dental materials that include water in the composition, the onset of setting is signified by:
    A. maximum reaction heat generation
    B. change in color
    C. change in translucency
    D. loss of gloss
    D. loss of gloss
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. When an agar impression slightly contracts and exudes water, it is termed:
    A. syneresis
    B. imbibition
    C. gelation
    D. hysteresis
    A. syneresis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. Which of the following materials undergoes imbibition?
    A. alginate impression material
    B. dental wax
    C. dental amalgam
    D. dental cements
    A. alginate impression material
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. Immediately after an impression is taken, it must be rinsed under running water to remove saliva or blood. This step is essential before the impression can be disinfected.
    Both statements are true.
  13. Agar-agar transforms from a fluid paste to a rubber like solution by a (blank) process.
    a. chemical
    b. physical
    b. physical
  14. Which of the following is NOT a flexible impression material?
    A. ZOE
    B. condensation silicone
    C. polysulfide
    D. polyvinyl siloxane
    E. polyether
    A. ZOE
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. An increase in the temperature of the water used in mixing irreversible hydrocolloids will:
    shorten time to set
  16. The chief difference between model plaster powder and dental stone powder is:
    A. particle size and shape
    B. chemical formula
    C. shelf life
    D. solubility in water
    A. particle size and shape
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. Coefficient of thermal expansion is:
    A. rate of heat flow through a material
    B. a change in dimension or shape of a material due to stress
    C. measurement of change in volume in relation to change in temperature
    D. amount of material that dissolved in a given amount of liquid in a given amount of time
    C. measurement of change in volume in relation to change in temperature
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. Which of these non-aqueous impression materials is most commonly used today?
    A. polysulfide rubber
    B. polyether rubber
    C. polyvinyl siloxane
    D. silicon rubber
    C. polyvinyl siloxane
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. What is the chemical composition of set gypsum products?
    A. calcium sulfate hemihydrate
    B. calcium sulfate unhydrate
    C. calcium sulfate trihydrate
    D. calcium sulfate monohydrate
    E. calcium sulfate dihydrate
    E. calcium sulfate dihydrate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. (T/F) A liquid with high viscosity has a good wetting ability.
    False.
  21. (T/F) Another name for a dental bridge is a fixed partial denture.
    True
  22. Glass ionomers are popular because they:
    a. release fluoride
    b. have adhesive properties
    c. can be used under posterior composite restorations
    d. all of the above
    e. none of the above
    d. all of the above
  23. (T/F) When fabricating ceramic restorations, sintering changes the porcelain powder into a solid.
    True
  24. (T/F) Non-precious alloys with high melting temperatures are nickel and silver.
    False
  25. (T/F) When classifying casting alloys according to the ADA, the differences are predominantly strength and elongation.
    True
  26. (T/F) An abutment (retainer) is the portion of a fixed bridge that replaces the missing tooth.
    False
  27. (T/F) Precious metals are classified based on cost.
    True
  28. One disadvantage of dental porcelain restorations is:
    A. radioactivity
    B. matching tooth color
    C. brittleness
    D. expansion
    C. brittleness
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. The difference between an inlay and an onlay is that:
    A. an onlay should not exceed one-half the intercuspal distance, while an inlay covers the cusps
    B. there is no difference between an inlay and an onlay
    C. an inlay should not exceed one-half the intercuspal distance, while an onlay covers the cusps
    D. an inlay is made of silver; an only is made of gold
    C. an inlay should not exceed one-half the intercuspal distance, while an onlay covers the cusps
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. Which of the following is true concerning the first application of dental porcelain to a porcelain fused to metal crown?
    A. the first layer is called "body" and is very translucent
    B. the first layer is called "opaque" and effectively covers the metallic sheen of the underlying casting
    C. the first layer is called "glaze" and provides reduction of surface oxides on the metal casting
    D. the first layer is called "incisal" and provides a stable substrate for additional layers
    B. the first layer is called "opaque" and effectively covers the metallic sheen of the underlying casting
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. The casting process requires:
    A. a refractory material that expands to compensate for the shrinkage of the metal upon cooling
    B. a, b, and c only
    C. creating a wax pattern
    D. a and c only
    E. a mold space into which the molten metal flows
    B. a, b, and c only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. Which of the following groups of metallic elements would be called precious or noble for their ability to resist corrosion?
    A. copper, palladium, and silver
    B. silver, copper, and mercury
    C. silver, gold, and annealed copper-ruthenium
    D. gold, silver, and platinum
    D. gold, silver, and platinum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using a gold alloy for indirect restorations?
    A. high strength and durability
    B. lack of esthetic qualities
    C. poor biocompatibility
    D. susceptibility to corrosion and tarnish
    B. lack of esthetic qualities
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. The purpose of a temporary crown is:
    a. esthetics
    b. protection
    c. maintaining space
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  35. Which of the following materials is not used for indirect restorations?
    A. composite materials
    B. gold alloys
    C. ceramic materials
    D. amalgam alloys
    D. amalgam alloys
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. An alloy that is 50% gold by weight is what caratage?
    A. 12
    B. 24
    C. 18
    D. 8
    E. 6
    A. 12
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. In casting a restoration for a patient, the proper sequence of events is:
    A. cast, wax, polish, invest, burn out
    B. wax, invest, burn out, cast, polish
    C. wax, burn out, invest, cast, polish
    D. polish, wax, invest, burn out, cast
    B. wax, invest, burn out, cast, polish
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. An alloy that is 25% gold by weight is what caratage?
    A. 10 carat
    B. 25 carat
    C. 6 carat
    D. 12 carat
    C. 6 carat
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. Another name for a 3 unit dental bridge with two consecutive abutments and a pontic is (abutment #28, abutment #29, pontic #30):
    A. cantilever bridge
    B. single span dental appliance
    C. removable partial
    D. fixed partial denture
    A. cantilever bridge
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. An indirect restoration used when a cusp is in need of replacement but a full crown is not indicated is a/an:
    A. inlay
    B. jacket
    C. veneer
    D. only
    D. only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. What population(s) benefit from the ART technique?
    A. elderly
    B. low-income patients with no access to a traditional dental office
    C. children
    D. all choices are correct
    E. special needs patients
    D. all choices are correct
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. An example of an indirect restorative material is:
    A. composite restoration
    B. glass ionomer restoration
    C. amalgam restoration
    D. gold inlay
    D. gold inlay
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. Originally in dentistry, what did ART stand for?
    A. Atraumatic Revival of Teeth
    B. Atraumatic Restorative Technique
    C. Always Restore Teeth
    B. Atraumatic Restorative Technique
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. What is/are the benefit(s) of the ART technique?
    A. hand instruments are used
    B. simple technique to scoop out the decay
    C. affordable way to provide dental care
    D. local anesthetic is not necessary
    E. all answers are correct
    E. all answers are correct
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. Newer types of composite materials are radiographically easier to distinguished from older type composites due to the fact that the newer composite materials:
    A. contain radiopaque filler particles
    B. have improved stress and strain capabilities
    C. have improved compressive strength
    D. have improved elastic properties
    A. contain radiopaque filler particles
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. The size of the filler particles in a dental composite determines the:
    A. surface smoothness of the resulting restoration
    B. etching time before the primer and adhesive are placed
    C. technique for incremental additions
    D. polymerization reaction
    A. surface smoothness of the resulting restoration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. The specific amount of composite (thickness) that us cured by a light source is termed:
    A. depth of cure
    B. incremental polymerization
    C. incremental addition
    D. depth of addition
    E. addition polymerization
    A. depth of cure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. Which type of abrasive looks like a grayish-black sand and sometimes called "corundum"?
    A. Garnet
    B. Emery
    C. Silex
    D. Black sand
    E. Aluminum oxide
    B. Emery
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. Which type of abrasive is produced from volcanoes and is used in the laboratory to finish acrylic denture bases and on restorative materials, such as gold, amalgam, and gold foil?
    A. corundum
    B. calcium carbonate
    C. Cuttle
    D. Silex
    E. Garnet
    d. pumice
    g. aluminum oxide
    h. sand
    B. pumice
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. Which abrasive is also known as calcium carbonate?
    A. Whiting
    B. Cuttle
    C. Pumice
    D. Silex
    E. Tin oxide
    A. Whiting
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. Which of the following factors affect the rate of abrasion?
    a. Pressure
    b. Lubrication
    c. Speed
    d. Grit
    e. Size of the prophy cup
    f. Color of the polishing paste
    g. all of the above
    h. a, b, c, and e only
    i. a, b, d, and f only
    j. a, b, c, and d only
    j. a, b, c, and d only
  52. (T/F) Carbon steel burs are made by packing powdered metal pieces into a mold and then sintering. They are harder than tungsten carbide burs and retain a sharper cutting edge longer than those made of tungsten carbide.
    False
  53. (T/F) The process of producing the final shape and contour of a restoration is called cutting.
    False
  54. APF (acidulated phosphate fluoride) is not recommended for the following dental materials:
    A. composite and porcelain restorations
    B. gold, composite, and porcelain
    C. composite and glass ionomer only
    D. glass ionomer, composites, and porcelain
    D. glass ionomer, composites, and porcelain
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. The margins of a cast restorations can be altered by instrumentation with curettes, scalers, and explorers. A suggested technique for deposit removal in these areas is to use:
    A. a vertical stroke, but only with anterior instruments
    B. a vertical stroke, as used on nature tooth structure
    C. only ultrasonic scalers
    D. an oblique or horizontal stroke, with appropriate instruments
    D. an oblique or horizontal stroke, with appropriate instruments
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. What are the polishing agents of choice for polishing a gold crown intraorally?
    a. coarse prophy paste
    b. green stones
    c. white stones
    d. tin oxide
    e. silex
    f. any of the above
    g. b, d, and e
    h. d only
    i. d and e only
    i. d and e only
  57. Tarnish is:
    A. caused by insufficient drying after ultrasonic cleaning
    B. caused when two dissimilar metal touch each other
    C. caused by a wet environment
    D. caused by a corrosive attack that produces a film or surface later on a metal and may protect the metal and prevent corrosion
    D. caused by a corrosive attack that produces a film or surface later on a metal and may protect the metal and prevent corrosion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. Which of the following sterilizers is the most effective for destroying pathogenic organisms or vegetative forms?
    A. cold sterile chemical solutions
    B. unsaturated chemical vapor
    C. steal autoclave
    D. dry heat
    C. steal autoclave
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. The main components of stainless steel alloy are:
    A. iron, silver, and nickel
    B. carbon steel, tin, and nickel
    C. iron, aluminum, and nickel
    D. chromium, iron, and nickel
    E. tin, chromium, and nickel
    D. chromium, iron, and nickel
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. The standard protocol for stream autoclaving (not rapid steam heat) is:
    A. 270 degrees F and 27 psi for at least 15 minutes
    B. 270 degrees F and 20-40 psi for at least 30 mins
    C. 350 degrees F and 27 psi for at least 6 minutes
    D. 320 degrees F for 2 hours
    A. 270 degrees F and 27 psi for at least 15 minutes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. (T/F) Electropolishing is a chemical process that creates a thin layer of chromium oxide on the surface of an instrument, thus protecting that metal from corroding.
    False
  62. A successfully etched enamel surface has a (blank) appearance.
    A. frosty, chalky white
    B. shiny
    C. translucent
    D. ground glass
    A. frosty, chalky white
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. In sealant placement, etching functions to do which of the following?
    A. produce a hard, lustrous surface
    B. expose a more porous dentin
    C. increase surface tension
    D. produce micropores in the enamel surface
    D. produce micropores in the enamel surface
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. The major factor in the failure of a pit and fissure sealant is:
    A. insufficient rinsing after the resin hardens
    B. etching for longer than the recommended time
    C. salivary contamination of the etched surface
    D. omission of a post-application fluoride treatment
    C. salivary contamination of the etched surface
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. The expected life of a sealant is:
    A. one to three months
    B. ten to fifteen years
    C. depends on the patient's age
    D. three to five years
    D. three to five years
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. When mixing cements, the powder to liquid ratio depends on the:
    A. manufacturer's instructions
    B. a, b, and c
    C. a and b
    D. mixing techniques used
    E. intended use
    C. a and b
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. Zinc oxide eugenol cement is used for a:
    A. b and c
    B. sedative base
    C. base under composite restorations
    D. cement for temporary crowns
    e. all of the above
    A. b and c
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. To protect the pulp in a tooth with a tiny pulp exposure, which of the following materials is mixed and placed in the cavity preparation first?
    A. zinc phosphate
    B. ZOE
    C. calcium hydroxide
    D. copal varnish
    E. miracle mix
    C. calcium hydroxide
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. Which of the following statements is false regarding bases and liners?
    A. a liner provides good thermal insulation
    B. a liner does not provide the same strength and thermal insulation as a base
    C. a liner is relatively thin in comparison to a base
    D. a base is stronger and thicker than a liner
    A. a liner provides good thermal insulation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. Which of the following is NOT indicated for final cementation for luting of indirect restorations?
    A. zinc phosphate cement
    B. calcium hydroxide cement
    C. glass ionomer cement
    B. calcium hydroxide cement
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. Glass ionomers are popular because they:
    a. release fluoride
    b. have true adhesive properties
    c. can be used under posterior composite restorations
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  72. Cement liners are:
    A. provide adequate thermal insulation
    B. used to protect the pulp from chemical irritation
    C. used frequently today
    D. a and c
    e. all of the above
    B. used to protect the pulp from chemical irritation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. What solution should be used to clean the ZOE and other dental cements?
    A. oleic acid
    B. orange solvent
    C. water
    B. orange solvent
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. Zinc phosphate may be used as a:
    1. luting agent for permanent cementation of a full gold crown
    2. high strength base under a restoration
    3. cavity liner
    4. temporary restoration

    A. 1, 2, and 3
    B. 1 and 3
    C. 1 and 2
    d. all of the above
    C. 1 and 2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. Dental cements are used for:
    a. luting agents
    b. pulp protection
    c. temporary restorations
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  76. When used as a base, zinc phosphate's greatest physical characteristics is its:
    A. compressive strength
    B. pH
    C. solubility
    D. adhesive qualities
    A. compressive strength
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. A glass slab should be cooled when mixing zinc phosphate cement to:
    A. maintain free zinc oxide in the set cement
    B. accelerate the setting time
    C. maintain the proper acid-water ratio
    D. increase the powder-liquid ratio
    D. increase the powder-liquid ratio
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. Which of the following dental materials promotes the formation of secondary dentin?
    A. temporary cements
    B. calcium hydroxide cement
    C. composite cements
    D. silicate cements
    B. calcium hydroxide cement
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. The liquid component of polycarboxylate cement is:
    A. polyacrylic acid
    B. eugenol
    C. phosphoric acid
    A. polyacrylic acid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. Which one of the following cements will produce an exothermic reaction upon mixing?
    A. calcium hydroxide cement
    B. polycarboxylate cement
    C. glass ionomer cement
    D. zinc phosphate cement
    E. composite cements
    D. zinc phosphate cement
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. (T/F) Glass ionomer cements are the strongest and least soluble of dental cements.
    True
  82. (T/F) Glass ionomers can be used as a luting agent only.
    False
  83. A bite registration is used to record a patient's bite pattern. It is also used to position upper and lower casts in the same relationship as the supporting tissue.
    Both statements are true
  84. Tissue conditions are temporary materials because they:
    A. are not color stable over time
    B. are too expensive for permanent use
    C. are always irritating to tissues
    D. deteriorate quickly
    D. deteriorate quickly
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. The activator in the liquid component of the materials necessary to fabricate a denture is a tertiary amine. This activator is only present in cold cure components.
    Both statements are true.
  86. Which of the following should not be used to clean a cast partial denture?
    A. toothpaste
    B. mouthwash
    C. soap and warm water
    D. bleach
    D. bleach
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. Most denture teeth used today are acrylic rather than porcelain. Porcelain teeth are softer than acrylic teeth and do not cause excessive wear on natural opposing teeth.
    The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
  88. The principle advantage of ZOE cement over zinc phosphate cement is its:
    A. obtundant effect on the pulp
    B. low intraoral solubility
    C. high mechanical strength
    D. chemical reactivity with dentin
    A. obtundant effect on the pulp
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. Mandibular dentures are easier to wear than maxillary. Saliva helps to improve the suction needed to hold a denture in place.
    Both statements are true
  90. Heat activated acrylic resin systems are very similar to chemically activated systems. The major difference (or exception) is:
    A. more inhibitor is present in the liquid of heat activated systems
    B. chemical activator is present in the liquid of heat activated systems
    C. heat activated systems have much less strength than chemically activated systems
    D. no chemical activator is present in the liquid of heat activated systems
    C. heat activated systems have much less strength than chemically activated systems
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. To repair a broken denture, a thin layer is ground off. Next, monomer is applied to the surfaces so that:
    A. the setting reaction of the repair is accelerated
    B. the finishing and polishing of the repair is made easier
    C. the color of the resin powder does not change
    D. some of the set material is dissolved
    B. the finishing and polishing of the repair is made easier
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. (T/F) Cold cure denture relines are just as strong as lab relined dentures.
    False

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Author:
mckaylacarman
ID:
319489
Filename:
Hello I'm ROZ
Updated:
2016-06-07 21:48:17
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