Systemic Pathology 2015 Archives - 1,2

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  1. 15-1-1. Which of the following is an end-stage manifestation of many processes that impede the ability of the heart to function?
    • a. Myocardial infarct
    • *b. Congestive heart failure
    • c. Cor pulmonale
    • d. Chronic pericarditis
    • e. Myocarditis
  2. 15-1-2. Which of the following events is most likely to compensate during early stages of congestive heart failure?
    • a. Myocyte necrosis
    • Xb. Catecholamine release
    • c. Coronary artery ischemia
    • d. Hyperventilation
    • e. Increased venous return
  3. 15-1-3. Decreased renal perfusion activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, leading to retention of salt and water, worsening pulmonary edema. In which of the following situations is this most likely to occur?
    • *a. Left-sided heart failure
    • b. Multiple myeloma
    • c. Cystic fibrosis
    • d. Burkitt lymphoma
    • e. Extranodal NK/T cell lymphoma, nasal type
  4. 15-1-4. Which of the following changes are seen during left-sided heart failure?
    • a. Dyspnea
    • b. Orthopnea
    • c. Hemoptysis
    • d. Rales
    • *e. All of the above
  5. 15-1-5. Rales is a discontinuous lung sound heard on auscultation, also called crackling. In which of the following diseases is it most likely to be found?
    • *a. Heart failure
    • b. Giant cell arteritis
    • c. Iron deficiency anemia
    • d. Caput Medusae
    • e. Polyarteritis nodosa
  6. 15-1-6. The highest proportion of cases of which of the following diseases has a familial (autosomal dominant) basis?
    • *a. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
    • b. Multiple myeloma
    • c. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
    • d. Legionnaire’s disease
    • e. Bronchiectasis
  7. 15-1-7. Which of the following conditions is caused by bone marrow failure?
    • a. Megaloblastic anemia
    • xb. Aplastic anemia
    • c. Multiple myeloma
    • d. Hodgkin lymphoma
    • e. Myelophthisic anemia
  8. 15-1-8. Which of the following conditions is an autorecessive disorder resulting from a mutation in beta-globin that causes deoxygenated hemoglobin to self-associate into long polymers that distort the red cell?
    • a. Iron deficiency anemia
    • b. Polycythemia
    • c. Malaria
    • d. Systemic lupus erythematosus
    • *e. Sickle cell anemia
  9. 15-1-9. Which of the following is/are clinical manifestation(s) of anemias?
    • a. Shortness of breath
    • b. Pallor
    • c. Fatigue
    • d. Lassitude
    • *e. All of the above
  10. 15-1-10. Which of the following is the most common type of lymphoid neoplasm in adults?
    • a. EBV-induced leukemia
    • b. CMV-induced leukemia
    • c. Hodgkin lymphoma
    • xd. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma derived from germinal center B cells
    • e. T-cell lymphoma
  11. 15-1-11. Which of the following pulmonary lesions is more common in women and non-smokers than in smokers?
    • *a. Adenocarcinoma
    • b. Squamous cell carcinoma
    • c. Small cell carcinoma
    • d. Emphysema
    • e. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
  12. 15-1-12. Which of the following conditions is most likely to result in deep leg vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism?
    • a. Multiple myeloma
    • b. Hodgkin lymphoma
    • *c. Right sided heart failure
    • d. Giant cell arteritis
    • e. Wegener granulomatosis
  13. 15-1-13. Generalized gingival enlargement is a manifestation of which of the following diseases?
    • xa. Acute myeloid leukemia with monocytic features
    • b. Hodgkin lymphoma
    • c. Pernicious anemia
    • d. Iron deficiency anemia
    • e. Giant cell arteritis
  14. 15-1-14. Which of the following factors cause heart failure?
    • a. Obstruction to blood flow
    • b. Regurgitation of blood flow
    • c. Cardiac conduction disorders
    • d. Disruption of continuity of the circulatory system
    • *e. All of the above
  15. 15-1-15. Which of the following changes occur in systemic hypertensive heart disease?
    • a. Increased thickness of left ventricular wall
    • b. Increased heart weight
    • c. Increased stiffness of left ventricular wall
    • d. Impaired diastolic filling
    • *e. All of the above
  16. 15-1-16. Which of the following events is most likely to cause acute cor pulmonale?
    • a. Emphysema
    • b. Chronic bronchitis
    • *c. Massive pulmonary embolism
    • d. Angina pectoris
    • e. Aplastic anemia
  17. 15-1-17. Which of the following are predisposing factors for cor pulmonale?
    • a. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
    • b. Bronchiectasis
    • c. Cystic fibrosis
    • d. Pneumoconiosis
    • *e. All of the above
  18. 15-1-18. Onion skin lesions (concentric layered thickening and narrowing of the lumen) in blood vessels are microscopic changes characteristic of which of the following conditions?
    • a. Atherosclerosis
    • *b. Hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis
    • c. Wegner’s granulomatosis
    • d. Giant cell arteritis
    • e. Pyogenic granuloma
  19. 15-1-19. What type of blood vessels are affected by atherosclerosis?
    • a. Type one capillaries
    • b. Type two capillaries
    • c. Arterioles
    • *d. Large and medium-sized arteries
    • e. Veins
  20. 15-1-20. Which of the following is/are a modifiable risk factor for atherosclerosis?
    • a. Male gender
    • b. Increasing age
    • c. Family history
    • *d. Cigarette smoking
    • e. All of the above
  21. 15-1-21. Chronic endothelial injury is the first step in the pathogenesis of which of the following diseases?
    • a. Cystic fibrosis
    • *b. Atherosclerosis
    • c. Cystic fibrosis
    • d. Takayasu arteritis
    • e. Nevus flammeus
  22. 15-1-22. Which of the following factors is most important in pathogenesis of atherosclerosis?
    • a. Creatinine
    • b. Elastin
    • *c. Oxidised low density lipids
    • d. Low blood pressure
    • e. Osseous metaplasia
  23. 15-1-23. Which of the following is most important in the stabilization of atheromatous plaques?
    • a. Cytomegalovirus necrosis
    • b. Cartilage proliferation
    • c. Osseous necrosis
    • *d. Smooth muscle proliferation
    • e. Regular vigorous exercise
  24. 15-1-24. Which of the following is/are consistent with giant cell arteritis?
    • a. Severe headache
    • b. Radiating facial pain
    • c. Blindness
    • d. Flu-like symptoms
    • *e. All of the above
  25. 15-1-25. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause fever, redness and erosion of the oral mucosa, skin rash, and cervical lymphadenopathy in small children?
    • *a. Kawasaki disease (mucocutaneous lymph node disease)
    • b. Wegener granulomatosis
    • c. Temporal arteritis
    • d. Giant cell arteritis
    • e. Buerger disease (thromboangiitis obliterans)
  26. 15-1-26. Elevated serum level of anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic autoantibodies directed against enzymes in neutrophil granules is a marker which of the following diseases?
    • a. Giant cell arteritis
    • b. Temporal arteritis
    • c. Takayasu’s arteritis
    • d. Polyarteritis nodosa
    • *e. Wegener’s granulomatosis
  27. 15-1-27. “Strawberry” gingival hyperplasia is most consistent with which of the following diseases?
    • a. Superior vena cava syndrome
    • b. Primary lymphedema
    • c. Lymphangitis
    • *d. Wegener’s granulomatosis
    • e. Primary lymphedema
  28. 15-1-28. Which of the following is a primary exaggerated central and local vasomotor response to cold or emotion; it affects 3% to 5% of the general population and has a predilection for young women?
    • a. Primary lymphedema
    • b. Secondary lymphedema
    • c. Superior vena cava syndrome
    • d. Secondary lymphedema
    • xe. Raynaud’s phenomenon
  29. 15-1-29. Rupture of which of the following lesions is most likely to cause fatal hematemesis?
    • a. Hemorrhoids (anorectal venous plexus)
    • b. Cystic hygroma
    • *c. Esophageal varicosity
    • d. Pyogenic granuloma
    • e. Capillary hemangioma
  30. 15-1-30. Which of the following is a benign vascular rapidly growing red lesion that bleeds easily and occurs on the skin and oral mucosa, particularly on the gingivae?
    • a. Hemangiopericytoma
    • b. Angiosarcoma
    • c. Hemangioendothelioma
    • xd. Pyogenic granuloma
    • e. Lymphangioma
  31. 15-1-31. Which of the following is the most common form of vascular ectasia, presenting as a light pink to deep purple flat lesion on the head or neck composed of dilated vessels, most of which ultimately regress spontaneously?
    • *a. Nevus flammeus
    • b. Lymphangioma
    • c. Kaposi’s sarcoma
    • d. Epithelioid hemangioendothelioma
    • e. Angiosarcoma
  32. 15-1-32. Which of the following lesions is an intermediate grade vascular neoplasm caused by human herpesvirus 8 (HHV8) that is highly associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?
    • a. Port wine stain
    • xb. Kaposi’s sarcoma
    • c. Bacillary angiomatosis
    • d. Cystic hygroma
    • e. Lymphedema
  33. 15-1-33. Which of the following lesions stems from blockage of a previously normal lymphatic vessel by tumors or surgery that removes lymph nodes?
    • *a. Secondary or obstructive lymphedema
    • b. Primary lymphedema
    • c. Bacillary angiomatosis
    • d. Lymphangioma
    • e. Pyogenic granuloma
  34. 15-1-34. Thrombophlebitis and phlebothrombosis are most likely to occur in which of the following sites?
    • a. Oral cavity
    • b. Small intestine
    • xc. Deep leg veins
    • d. Aorta
    • e. Carotid artery
  35. 15-1-35. Which of the following is the most common type of heart disease in children?
    • *a. Congenital
    • b. Infectious
    • c. Autoimmune
    • d. Hypersensitivity reaction
    • e. Traumatic
  36. 15-1-36. Which of the following diseases is most likely to cause congenital heart disease?
    • a. Bacillary angiomatosis
    • *b. Rubella (German measles)
    • c. Primary lymphedema
    • d. Raynaud’s phenomenon
    • e. Multiple myeloma
  37. 15-1-37. Which of the following lesions is most likely to cause sudden, severe headache?
    • a. Nevus flammeus
    • *b. Berry aneurysm
    • c. Port wine stain
    • d. Cystic hygroma
    • e. Pyogenic granuloma
  38. 15-1-38. Which of the following is/are risk factors for abdominal aortic aneurysms?
    • a. Hypertension
    • b. Connective tissue abnormalities (like Marfan’s syndrome)
    • c. Atherosclerosis
    • d. Cystic medial degeneration
    • xe. All of the above
  39. 15-1-39. Tonsils, Peyer’s patches and the appendix all contain prominent areas of which of the following tissues?
    • *a. Mucosa associated lymphoid tissue
    • b. Cartilage
    • c. Bone
    • d. Dentin
    • e. All of the above
  40. 15-1-40. Reactive lymphocytosis is most strongly associated with which of the following conditions?
    • xa. Viral infections
    • b. Bacterial infections
    • c. Acute tissue necrosis
    • d. Fungal infections
    • e. Autoimmune diseases
  41. 15-1-41. Clinical features of acute lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma include which of the following?
    • a. Fatigue
    • b. Infections
    • c. Bleeding
    • d. Generalized lymphadenopathy
    • *e. All of the above
  42. 15-1-42. Which of the following diseases is most likely to present as expanding masses within the jaws of children?
    • *a. Endemic Burkitt lymphoma
    • b. Cystic hygroma
    • c. Lymphedema
    • d. Hodgkin lymphoma
    • e. Multiple myeloma
  43. 15-1-43. Elevated serum monoclonal immunoglobulin paraprotein (M protein) is a marker for which of the following diseases?
    • xa. Multiple myeloma
    • b. Primary lymphedema
    • c. Sporadic Burkitt lymphoma
    • d. AIDS
    • e. Hodgkin lymphoma
  44. 15-1-44. Which of the following diseases is most strongly associated with EBV infection?
    • a. Cystic fibrosis
    • xb. Extranodal NK/T cell lymphoma, nasal type
    • c. Bronchiectasis
    • d. Polycythema vera
    • e. Hodgkin lymphoma
  45. 15-1-45. Which of the following clinical findings are prominent in many cases of multiple myeloma?
    • a. Elevated serum calcium
    • b. Renal dysfunction
    • c. Anemia
    • d. Bone lytic lesions
    • *e. All of the above
  46. 15-1-46. Acute myeloid leukemia is characterized by which of the following abnormalities?
    • a. Anemia
    • b. Thrombocytopenia
    • c. Neutropenia
    • d. Pancytopenia
    • xe. All of the above
  47. 15-1-47. The primary function of which of the following cells is the transport of oxygen?
    • a. Monocytes
    • b. Neutrophils
    • c. Lymphocytes
    • d. Basophils
    • *e. Erythrocytes
  48. 15-1-48. Hypovolemic shock is caused by which of the following events?
    • a. Lymphocytosis
    • *b. Acute blood loss
    • c. Anemia
    • d. Rubella (German measles)
    • e. Leukopenia
  49. 15-1-49. Radiographs of the skull of patients with which of the following diseases are most likely to show new bone formation on the outer table, producing perpendicular radiations resembling a crewcut?
    • a. Temporal arteritis
    • xb. Sickle cell disease
    • c. Cystic fibrosis
    • d. Atelectasis
    • e. Multiple myeloma
  50. 15-1-50. Megaloblastic anemia and neurologic complications are most strongly linked to which of the following abnormalities?
    • a. Elevated vitamin B12
    • xb. Deficiency of vitamin B12
    • c. Elevated alkaline phosphatase
    • d. Deficiency of alkaline phosphatase
    • e. Hypocalcemia
  51. 15-1-51. Reported clinical manifestations of megaloblastic anemia include which of the following?
    • a. Angular cheilitis
    • b. Perleche
    • c. Atrophic glossitis
    • d. Aphthous stomatitis
    • *e. All of the above
  52. 15-1-52. Autoimmune attack on the gastric mucosa and on intrinsic factor results in which of the following diseases?
    • a. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
    • b. Wegener’s granulomatosis
    • c. Langerhans cell histiocytosis
    • *d. Pernicious anemia
    • e. All of the above
  53. 15-1-53. Which of the following is most common cause of anemia in both developed and developing countries?
    • a. Folate deficiency
    • b. Viral infections
    • *c. Iron deficiency
    • d. Inherited syndromes
    • e. Sickle cell anemia
  54. 15-1-54. Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between air and blood occurs at which of the following sites?
    • a. Bronchi
    • b. Trachea
    • c. Terminal bronchioles
    • ?d. Alveoli
    • e. All of the above
  55. 15-1-55. What is the predominant type of epithelium that lines alveolar walls?
    • *a. Simple squamous
    • b. Simple columnar
    • c. Pseudostratified
    • d. Stratified squamous
    • e. Stratified columnar
  56. 15-1-56. The patency of the lumen of the passageways in the upper regions of the respiratory tract is maintained by which of the following elements?
    • a. Skeletal muscle
    • b. Myxoid connective tissue
    • c. Collagenous fibrous connective tissue
    • d. Fibrocartilage
    • xe. Hyaline cartilage
  57. 15-1-57. Which of the following pulmonary conditions is most often reversible?
    • *a. Atelectasis
    • b. Emphysema
    • c. Bronchiectasis
    • d. Honeycomb lung
    • e. Mesothelioma
  58. 15-1-58. Which of the following is the most common cause of mesothelioma?
    • a. Cigar smoking
    • b. Tobacco chewing
    • ?c. Asbestos
    • d. Hyperlipidemia
    • e. Diabetes mellitus
  59. 15-1-59. Which of the following conditions is characterized by hyaline membranes lining alveolar walls?
    • a. Emphysema
    • *b. Acute respiratory distress syndrome
    • c. Chronic bronchitis
    • d. Bronchiectasis
    • e. Bacterial pneumonia
  60. 15-1-60. Which of the following conditions is characterized by decreased expiratory flow?
    • a. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
    • b. Sarcoidosis
    • c. Abestosis
    • d. Silicosis
    • *e. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
  61. 15-2-1. Which of the following items is a component of urinary casts?
    • a. Thrombotic emboli
    • b. Malignant cellular emboli
    • c. Podocytes
    • xd. Leukocytes
    • e. Renin
  62. 15-2-2. Which of the following conditions causes multiple lesions in both liver and kidneys but is usually asymptomatic until middle-age?
    • a. alpha-1-antitrypsin disease
    • b. Cystic fibrosis
    • xc. Adult polycystic disease
    • d. Boerhaave syndrome
    • e. Bisphosphonate overdose
  63. 15-2-3. Which of the following is most likely to be responsible for nephrotic syndrome in adults?
    • a. Hyperlipidemia
    • b. Lipiduria
    • c. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
    • xd. Systemic lupus erythematosus
    • e. Pyelonephritis
  64. 15-2-4. Which of the following is the most important criterion used to define the extent of renal failure?
    • a. Pyourea
    • b. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
    • xc. Glomerular filtration rate
    • d. Electrolyte balance
    • e. Fatigue
  65. 15-2-5. Hypertension and congestive heart failure are most evident in which of the following situations?
    • a. Acute renal failure
    • b. Early renal failure
    • c. Berger disease
    • d. Minimal change disease
    • xe. End stage renal disease
  66. 15-2-6. Fibrosis is conspicuous in all of the following conditions EXCEPT which of the following?
    • a. Steatohepatitis
    • b. Cirrhosis
    • c. Chronic hepatitis
    • d. Chronic pyelonephritis
    • xe. Acute hepatitis
  67. 15-2-7. Which part of the kidney is initially affected by hypertension, systemic lupus erythematosus and diabetes mellitus?
    • a. Minor calyces
    • b. Major calyces
    • ?c. Glomerulus
    • d. Descending limb of loop of Henle
    • e. Ascending limb of loop of Henle
  68. 15-2-8. Which part of the urinary system is most susceptible to ischemic necrosis and chemical injury?
    • a. Vasa recta
    • b. Ureters
    • xc. Proximal tubules
    • d. Urinary bladder
    • e. Renal capsule
  69. 15-2-9. Azotemia may be caused by which of the following challenges?
    • a. Hemorrhage
    • b. Congestive heart failure
    • c. Shock
    • d. Dehydration
    • ?e. All of the above
  70. 15-2-10. Which of the following functional changes occur in renal failure?
    • a. Decreased tubular secretion
    • b. Decreased tubular absorption
    • c. Decreased glomerular filtration rate
    • d. Metabolic acidosis
    • xe. All of the above
  71. 15-2-11. What is the primary site of production of erythropoietin and 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol?
    • a. Stomach
    • b. Liver
    • c. Spleen
    • xd. Kidney
    • e. Pancreas
  72. 15-2-12. Low blood albumin is primarily associated with which of the following conditions?
    • a. Pyelonephritis
    • xb. Nephrotic syndrome
    • c. Portasystemic encephalopathy
    • d. Bisphosphate administration
    • e. Crohn’s disease
  73. 15-2-13. Which of the following conditions is the most likely initial consequence of an enlarged lymph node due to Hodgkin lymphoma compressing and obstructing common hepatic ducts?
    • a. Acute cirrhosis
    • xb. Ascending cholangitis
    • c. Hepatocellular sarcoma
    • d. Wilson’s disease
    • e. Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency
  74. 15-2-14. Which of the following is a genetic disease characterized by iron-induced cirrhosis?
    a. Wilson’s disease
    b. Prussian blue disease
    c. Hemochromatosis
    d. Hepatic atrophy
    e. von Willebrand’s disease
    c
  75. 15-2-15. Which of the following conditions is characterized by acute liver failure without necrosis in children whose viral infection is treated with aspirin?
    a. Steatohepatitis
    b. Reye’s syndrome
    c. Mallory’s disease
    d. Wilson’s disease
    e. Ascending cholangitis
    b
  76. 15-2-16. Gynecomastia occurs most often in which of the following conditions?
    a. Whipple’s disease
    b. Alcoholism
    c. Ulcerative colitis
    d. Crohn’s disease
    e. Tuberculosis
  77. 15-2-17. In alcoholic liver disease, sclerosis first occurs at which of the following sites?
    a. In portal areas
    b. Around central veins
    c. In common bile ducts
    d. In gall bladder
    e. Adjacent to hepatic arterioles
  78. 15-2-18. Which of the following is the most common cause of death in patients with cirrhosis?
    a. Hepatocellular carcinoma
    b. Squamous cell carcinoma
    c. Ascending cholangitis
    d. Esophageal varices
    e. End-stage renal disease
  79. 15-2-19. Which of the following is an autoimmune disease, affecting middle-aged women more often than other demographic groups, in which granulomatous destruction of bile ducts results in cirrhosis?
    a. Steatohepatitis
    b. Primary biliary cirrhosis
    c. Cholelithiasis
    d. Acute cholecystitis
    e Mallory’s disease
  80. 15-2-20. Which of the following elements replaces hepatocytes in cirrhotic livers?
    a. Vascular connective tissue
    b. Collagen
    c. Munroe abscesses
    d. Granulation tissue
    e. Cartilage
  81. 15-2-21. Which of the following is the most common serious side-effect of acetaminophen overdose?
    a. Angina pectoris
    b. Renal carcinoma
    c. Acute liver (fulminant hepatic) failure
    d. Gastric carcinoma
    e. Colon cancer
    c
  82. 15-2-22. Which of the following liver changes is most often seen in patients with type II diabetes mellitus?
    a. Hepatocalcemia
    b. Steatohepatitis
    c. Wilson’s disease
    d. Metastatic sarcoma
    e. Hepatocalcinosis
    b
  83. 15-2-23. Which of the following is the most common tumor found in the liver?
    a. Adenoma
    b. Metastasis
    c. Hepatosarcoma
    d. Primary squamous cell carcinoma
    e. Squamous cell papilloma
    b
  84. 15-2-24. What is the recovery percentage rate of individuals who contract hepatitis A infection?
    a. 1
    b. 5
    c. 9
    d. 59
    e 99
    e
  85. 15-2-25. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely to result in invasive squamous cell carcinoma?
    a. Severe epithelial dysplasia
    b. Familial adenomatous polyposis
    c. Hyperplastic polyps
    d. Systemic lupus erythematosus
    e. Pancreatic cancer
    a
  86. 15-2-26. Which of the following occurs in the highest proportion of females who are fat and over 40 years of age?
    a. Cholelithiasis
    b. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
    c. Type I diabetes mellitus
    d. CMV esophagitis
    e Gardner syndrome
    a
  87. 15-2-27. Which of the following sites is the LEAST common for tumors to occur?
    a. Gallbladder
    b. Esophagus
    c. Stomach
    d. Liver
    e. Colon
    a
  88. 15-2-28. Which of the following is the most common cause of cholecystitis?
    a. Gallstones
    b. Duodenal reflux
    c. Malignant melanoma
    d. Bisphosphonate administration
    e. Hyperemia
    a
  89. x15-2-29. Which of the following challenges is responsible for epithelial cells exhibiting multinucleation, nuclear molding (as nuclei are compressed against each other), and margination of nuclear chromatin?
    a. Sarcoma-in-situ
    b. Hepatocellulular carcinoma
    c. Acetaminophen
    d. Cytomegalovirus
    e. Herpes simplex virus
    e
  90. 15-2-30. Which of the following agents causes disease in immunosuppressed individuals but rarely does so in healthy people?
    • a. Human influenza virus A
    • b. Histoplasma capsulatum
    • c. Ebola virus
    • d. Streptococcus pneumoniae
    • e. Cytomegalovirus
  91. 15-2-31. Which of the following is the most likely cause of aspiration pneumonia?
    • a. Atelectasis
    • xb. Esophageal atresia
    • c. Barrett’s metaplasia
    • d. Adenocarcinoma
    • e. Candidiasis
  92. 15-2-32. Which of the following is the most likely consequence of autoimmune gastritis?
    • xa. Pernicious anemia
    • b. Adenocarcinoma
    • c. Lymphoma
    • d. Hyperplastic, inflammatory polyps
    • e. Obesity
  93. 15-2-33. Which of the following is characterized by projectile vomiting in infants?
    • a. Chronic gastritis
    • xb. Congenital pyloric stenosis
    • c. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
    • d. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
    • e Familial adenomatous polyposis
  94. 15-2-34. The microscopic hallmark of non-specific chronic gastritis is which of the following?
    • xa. Plasma cells
    • b. Neutrophils
    • c. Macrophages
    • d. Multinucleated giant cells
    • e. Edema
  95. 15-2-35. Microscopic examination of a peptic ulcer is likely to reveal which of the following changes?
    • a. Necrotic debris
    • b. Non-specific acute inflammation
    • c. Granulation tissie
    • d. Fibrosis
    • xe. All of the above
  96. 15-2-36. Which of the following conditions is most likely to result in intestinal infarction?
    • a. Irritable bowel syndrome
    • b. Crohn’s disease
    • c. Ileus
    • xd. Volvulus
    • e. Diverticulosis
  97. 15-2-37. Which of the following has the highest occurrence rate in people over age 60 years of age?
    • a. Ileus
    • xb. Diverticulosis
    • c. Rhabdomyositis
    • d. Intussusception
    • e. Pancreatic sarcoma
  98. 15-2-38. Which of the following is the most likely consequence of striated inguinal hernia?
    • a. Hypertrophy
    • b. Hyperplasia
    • c. Dysplasia
    • d. Carcinoma
    • xe. Necrosis
  99. 15-2-39. Which of the following diseases is most effectively managed by a change in diet?
    • xa. Celiac disease
    • b. Colon adenocarcinoma
    • c. Volvulus
    • d. Acute renal failure
    • e. End-stage renal disease
  100. 15-2-40. Which of the following agents causes intestinal malabsorption?
    • a. Acetaminophen
    • b. Ibuprofen
    • c. Staphylococcus aureus
    • xd. Trophyrema whippelii
    • e. Histoplasmosis capsulatum
  101. 15-2-41. Non-necrotizing granulomas are most evident in the highest proportion of cases of which of the following diseases?
    • a. Celiac disease
    • b. Diverticulosis
    • c. Familial adenomatous polyposis
    • xd. Crohn’s disease
    • e. Ulcerative colitis
  102. 15-2-42. Which of the following diseases is most likely to affect the oral cavity, ileum and colon?
    • a. Toxic intestinal necrolysis
    • b. Tropical sprue
    • c. Tubular adenomas
    • xd. Crohn’s disease
    • e. Legionnaire’s disease
  103. 15-2-43. Which of the following is the most common bacterial infection in hospitalized patients in the United States?
    • a. Crohn’s disease
    • b. Giardia lamlia
    • c. Entameba histolytica
    • xd. Clostridium difficile
    • e Schistosomoniasis mansoni
  104. 15-2-44. G-cell tumors in the pancreas (or in ectopic pancreatic rests in the upper G.I. tract} secrete gastrin that causes the stomach to produce excessive amounts of acid, that promotes which of the following effects?
    • a. Type I diabetes mellitus
    • b. Fulminant hepatic necrosis
    • c. Acute hepatitis
    • d. Miliary tuberculosis
    • xe. Multiple peptic ulcers
  105. 15-2-45. Lower right quadrant abdominal pain radiating to the periumbilical region, fever, and leukocytosis are most consistent with which of the following diagnoses?
    • a. Myocardial infarct
    • xb. Appendicitis
    • c. Renal failure
    • d. Esophageal carcinoma
    • e. Hepatocellular carcinoma
  106. 15-2-46. Which of the following is a common cause of pelvic inflammatory disease (that may be asymptomatic), infertility and ectopic pregnancy?
    a. Chlamydia infection
    b. Tuberculosis
    c. Drug toxicity
    d. Systemic lupus erythematosus
    e. Cystic fibrosis
    a
  107. 15-2-47. Viral proteins E6 and E7 are linked to the ability of which of the following agents to act as a carcinogen?
    a. CMV
    b. HPV
    c. Chlamydia
    d. EBV
    e. HSV
    b
  108. 15-2-48. Condyloma lata (sexually transmitted warts) occur at which of the following locations?
    a. Vulva
    b. Perineum
    c. Perianal skin
    d. Genitalia
    e. All of the above
    e
  109. x15-2-49. Which of the following is a risk factor for cervical cancer?
    a. Daily use of vitamin D
    b. Low socioeconomic status
    c. Cinnamon
    d. Alcohol abstinence
    e. Chewing tobacco use
    • b
    • # partners
    • Early intercourse
    • STDs
    • Early 1st pregnancy
    • Parity
    • Socioeconomic status
    • Cigarettes
    • Immunosuppression
    • OCPs
    • Vitamin deficiencies
    • Interval since last pap
  110. 15-2-50. What is the stage of cervical carcinoma with distant metastases?
    a. 0
    b. I
    c. II
    d. III
    e. IV
    e
  111. 15-2-51. Which of the following is the most common pelvic tumor?
    a. Rhabdomyoma
    b. Schwannoma
    c. Leiomyoma
    d. Neuroma
    e. Fibrosarcoma
    c
  112. 15-2-52. Which of the following is most common histopathologic finding in women seeking evaluation of breast lumps?
    a. Fibrocystic changes
    b. Fibroadenoma
    c. Cancer
    d. No disease
    e Benign miscellaneous lesions
    a
  113. 15-2-53. Biopsy of a breast with acute mastitis is most likely to reveal which of the following histologic changes?
    a. Epithelium-lined cysts surrounded by dense collagenous fibrous connective tissue
    b. Eosinophils and multinucleated giant cells
    c. Breast tissue infiltrated by neutrophils with necrosis
    d. Sheets of mast cells obliterating secretory units
    e. All of the above
    c
  114. 15-2-54. Which of the following is a form of poorly differentiated ductal carcinoma in situ that extends from the lactiferous ducts into the skin of the nipple?
    a. Paget’s disease
    b. Brunner’s disease
    c. Sclerotic adenocarcinoma
    d. Fibrocystic disease
    e. Phylodes tumor
    a
  115. 15-2-55. Gleason grading is employed in the assessment of cancer in which of the following sites?
    a. Oral cavity
    b. Lungs
    c. Spleen
    d. Prostate gland
    e. All of the above
    d
  116. 15-2-56. The most common cancer in men between the ages of 15 and 34 occurs at which of the following sites?
    a. Prostate gland
    b. Testes
    c. Lungs
    d. Pharynx
    e. Stomach
    b
  117. 15-2-57. Which of the following tumors contains elements of ectoderm, endoderm and mesoderm?
    a. Hepatocellular carcinoma
    b. High grade prostate sarcoma
    c. Prostate carcinoma
    d. Metastatic breast cancer
    e. Teratoma
    e
  118. 15-2-58. Which of the following statements regarding platelets is/are correct?
    • xa. Platelet production is regulated by thrombopoietin
    • b. Thrombopoietin is produced in lymph nodes
    • c. Platelets represent anuclear fragments of neutrophils
    • d. Platelets circulate for 7 to 10 minutes
    • e. All of the above
  119. 15-2-59. Excess bleeding and thrombosis coexist in which of the following conditions?
    • a. Pseudothrombocytopenia
    • Xb. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
    • c. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
    • d. Melena
    • e. All of the above
  120. 15-2-60. Thrombocytosis occurs in which of the following conditions?
    • a. Chronic inflammatory disease
    • b. Iron deficiency
    • c. Post-surgery
    • d. Infections
    • xe. All of the above

Card Set Information

Author:
neopho
ID:
324961
Filename:
Systemic Pathology 2015 Archives - 1,2
Updated:
2016-11-21 06:27:26
Tags:
SystemicPathology
Folders:
SystemicPathology
Description:
Systemic Pathology Archives 2015 First two midterms
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