Systemic Pathology Archives 2014

Home > Preview

The flashcards below were created by user neopho on FreezingBlue Flashcards.


  1. 14-1-1. Which of the following tissue elements does not occur in the intima of normal coronary arteries?
    • a. Endothelium
    • b. Basal lamina
    • c. Osteoid
    • d. Collagen fibers
    • e. Fibroblasts
    • c
  2. 14-1-2. Which of the following tissue elements characterizes the media of the healthy aorta?
    • a. Myxoid ground substance
    • b. Elastic lamellae
    • c. Longitudinal bundles of skeletal muscle fibers
    • d. Osteoid
    • e. Cartilage
    • b
  3. 14-1-3. Which of the following factors is most important in determining whether an individual with congenital heart disease is cyanotic?
    • a. Patient age
    • b. Left-to-right shunt
    • c. Right-to-left shunt
    • d. Gender
    • e. Left ventricular hypertrophy
    • c
  4. 14-1-4. Which of the following infections increases the risk for congenital heart disease?
    • a. Mumps
    • b. Rubella (German measles)
    • c. Influenza
    • d. Legionnaire’s disease
    • e. Tuberculosis
    • b
  5. 14-1-5. Which of the following is a congenital intracranial aneurysm?
    • a. Tetrology of Fallot
    • b. Ductus arteriosus
    • c. Fusiform aneurysm
    • d. Berry aneurysm
    • e. Strawberry aneurysm
    • d
  6. 14-1-6. A middle-aged man presents with slow-onset congestive heart failure. His heart walls lack muscle tone. (They are flabby). Cardiac chambers are markedly dilated. Biopsy reveals cardiac muscle hypertrophy and interstitial fibrosis. His father had died following a similar course of events. The terminal event had been thrombo-embolism generated by intracardiac thrombi. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for the current patient?
    • a. Cor pulmonale
    • b. Dilated cardiomyopathy
    • c. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
    • d. Acute myocardial infarct
    • e. Myocarditis
    • b
  7. 14-1-7. Which of the following is the most common cardiac valve abnormality?
    • a. Calcific aortic stenosis
    • b. Chondroid mitral annulus
    • c. Mitral valve apoptosis
    • d. Pulmonary valve osseous metaplasia
    • e. Aortic valve necrosis
    • a?
  8. 14-1-8. A hypersensitivity reaction to S. pyogenes is responsible for which of the following conditions?
    • a. Rheumatic fever
    • b. Pyogenic granuloma
    • c. Pyostomatitis vegetans
    • d. Subacute infective tonsillitis
    • e. Myocardial infarct
    • a?
  9. 14-1-9. Which of the following is the most common consequence of rheumatic fever?
    • a. Rheumatic heart disease
    • b. Sarcoidosis
    • c. Poststreptococcal pharyngitis
    • d. Anitschkow disease
    • e. Caterpillar myocarditis
    • a
  10. 14-1-10. Which of the following conditions is the most common cause of mitral stenosis?
    • a. Cor pulmonale
    • b. Tricuspid valve stenosis
    • c. Chronic rheumatic heart disease
    • d. Tetrology of Fallot
    • e. Langerhans cell histiocytosis
    • c
  11. 14-1-11. Which of the following conditions is the most significant consequence of a pre-existing cardiac valve abnormality and a bacterial infection?
    • a. Cor pulmonale
    • b. Thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger disease)
    • c. Coronary artery aplasia
    • d. Polyarteritis nodosa
    • e. Infective endocarditis
    • e
  12. 12. Which of the following is/are the most typical microscopic features of vegetations in subacute infective endocarditis?
    • a. Necrotizing granulomas
    • b. Non-necrotizing granulomas
    • c. Eosinophilic abscesses
    • d. Neutrophilic microabscesses
    • e. Fibrin, organisms, inflammatory cells and granulation tissue
    • e
  13. 13. Antibiotic prophylaxis should be administered for certain dental procedures for patients who have a previous diagnosis of which of the following conditions?
    • a. Angina pectoris
    • b. Infective endocarditis
    • c. Essential hypertension
    • d. Primary pulmonary hypertension
    • e. Reed-Sternberg disease
    • xb
  14. 14. Which of the following factors is responsible for most cases of essential hypertension?
    • a. It is idiopathic
    • b. Renal disease
    • c. Pheochromocytoma
    • d. Polyarteritis nodosa
    • e. Hyperthyroidism
    • a
  15. 15. Which of the following changes is LEAST likely to occur in systemic hypertensive heart disease?
    • a. Thickened walls of left ventricle
    • b. Stiffened walls of left ventricle
    • c. Increased diastolic filling
    • d. Hypertrophy of cardiac muscle cells with box car nuclei
    • e. Interstitial fibrosis in advanced stages of the disease
    • c
  16. 16. Which of the following structures normally occur in the pharynx, lateral wall of the oropharynx and on the base of the tongue?
    • a. Salivary stones
    • b. Glands of Serres
    • c. Peyer’s patches
    • d. Rests of Malassez
    • e. Tonsils
    • xe
  17. 17. Which of the following is the LEAST likely consequence of left-sided heart failure?
    • a. Pulmonary congestion and edema
    • b. Dyspnea
    • c. Hypoxic encephalopathy
    • d. Increased systemic perfusion
    • e. Cardiomegaly
    • d
  18. 18. Which of the following conditions is the most common cause of left-sided heart failure?
    • a. Deep leg vein thrombosis
    • b. True aneurysm
    • c. Hypertension
    • d. Thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger disease)
    • e. Hypolipidemia
    • c
  19. 19. What cell type becomes a “heart failure cell”?
    • a. Macrophage
    • b. Mast cell
    • c. Erythrocyte
    • d. Foreign body giant cell
    • e. Eosinophil
    • a
  20. 20. Rales (crackling or bubbling sounds in the thorax) are most often associated with which of the following conditions?
    • a. Hepatic hypoplasia
    • b. Lung congestion and edema
    • c. Deep leg vein thrombosis
    • d. Acute myocardial infarction
    • e. Splenomegaly
    • b
  21. 21. Which of the following is the most common cause of right-sided heart failure?
    • a. Infective endocarditis
    • b. Left-sided heart failure
    • c. Reed Sternberg disease
    • d. Coronary artery disease
    • e. Congenital heart disease
    • b
  22. 22. Which of the following is the LEAST typical consequence of uncomplicated right-sided heart failure?
    • a. Subcutaneous edema of dependent body parts
    • b. Hepatic enlargement
    • c. Splenomegaly
    • d. Pulmonary metastasis
    • e. Nutmeg liver
    • d
  23. 23. Splenomegaly, anasarca, ascites and distended neck veins are most often the consequence of which of the following conditions?
    • a. Mitral stenosis
    • b. Acute myocardial infarction
    • c. Right-sided heart failure
    • d. Deep leg vein thrombosis
    • e. Myocarditis
    • c
  24. 24. Symptoms often do not occur until what percentage of the coronary arterial lumen is blocked by atheromatous plaques?
    • a. 5%
    • b. 10%
    • c. 20%
    • d. 70%
    • e. 100%
    • d
  25. 25. High blood levels of which of the following factors reduces the risk for developing atherosclerosis?
    • a. High density lipoprotein
    • b. Low density lipoprotein
    • c. Very low density lipoprotein
    • d. Cholesterol
    • e. Total creatinine phosphokinase
    • a
  26. 26. Atherosclerosis mainly affects which of the following structures?
    • a. Large and medium sized arteries
    • b. Arteriolar capillaries
    • c. Veins
    • d. Large lymphatic vessels
    • e. Left ventricle
    • a
  27. 27. Which of the following are two of the most important modifiable risk factors for atherosclerosis?
    • a. Hyperlipidemia and cigarette smoking
    • b. Family history and male gender
    • c. Peripheral vascular disease and trauma
    • d. Diabetes insipidus and lack of exercise
    • e. Congenital defects and syphilis
    • a
  28. 28. Which of the following is the predominant component of the tissue layer covering the surface of a stable atheromatous plaque?
    • a. Collagen
    • b. Lamellar bone
    • c. Woven bone
    • d. Cartilage
    • e. Skeletal muscle
    • a
  29. 29. Which of the following changes creates the greatest risk of rupture of plaque in an atheromatous aorta?
    • a. Thickened skeletal muscle layers
    • b. Purkinje cell hypoplasia
    • c. Thin fibrous cap
    • d. Fatty streaks
    • e. Narrow lumen
    • c
  30. 30. Which of the following elements predominate in the center (core) of atheromatous plaque?
    • a. Macrophages and smooth muscle cells
    • b. Fibroblasts and mast cells
    • c. Lipoblasts and fibroblasts
    • d. Lipoblasts and lipocytes
    • e. Mast cells and collagen
    • a
  31. 31. Which of the following is the LEAST likely consequence of atherosclerotic disease?
    • a. Myocardial infarct
    • b. Stroke
    • c. Hypolipidemia
    • d. Aortic aneurysm
    • e. Peripheral vascular disease
    • c
  32. 32. Elevated serum levels of which of the following substances strongly and independently predict the risk of future myocardial infarction?
    • a. Amyloid
    • b. C-reactive protein
    • c. Myosin
    • d. Omega-3 fatty acids
    • e. Amalgam
    • b
  33. 33. Elevated blood levels of which of the following substances is the most reliable indicator of a recent myocardial infarct?
    • a. Amyloid
    • b. Actin
    • c. Myoglobin
    • d. Cardiac muscle regulatory protein troponin
    • e. Hemoglobin
    • d
  34. 34. Which of the following microscopic changes predominates in the period 2 weeks to 2 months after a myocardial infarct?
    • a. Coagulation necrosis of cardiac muscle
    • b. Liquefaction necrosis of cardiac muscle
    • c. Polymorphonuclear leukocyte infiltrate
    • d. Fibrosis associated with increasing collagen deposition
    • e. Eosinophilic abscess formation
    • d
  35. 35. How long does it take for irreversible damage to cardiac muscle fibers to occur after severe ischemia due to a myocardial infarct?
    • a. 30 seconds
    • b. One minute
    • c. 30 minutes
    • d. 24 hours
    • e. One week
    • c
  36. 36. Ischemic heart disease is LEAST associated with which of the following clinical syndromes?
    • a. Myocardial infarction
    • b. Angina pectoris
    • c. Hypervolemic shock
    • d. Chronic heart failure
    • e. Sudden cardiac death
    • c
  37. 37. Which of the following conditions is responsible for the vast majority of cases of ischemic heart disease?
    • a. Coronary atherosclerotic lesions
    • b. Mitral valve hypoplasia
    • c. Mitral valve regurgitation
    • d. Hematologic disorders
    • e. Lowered systemic blood pressure
    • a
  38. 38. What are the light microscopic changes found if an autopsy is performed on a patient who died two hours after his first myocardial infarct?
    • a. None
    • b. Cardiac muscle fibers exhibit coagulative necrosis
    • c. Cardiac muscle fibers exhibit liquefactive necrosis
    • d. Acute inflammatory cell infiltrate
    • e. Dense fibrosis
    • xa
  39. 39. Which of the following factors triggers coronary arterial occlusion but is not seen when autopsy is performed?
    • a. Atheromatous plaque with superimposed thrombus
    • b. Intralesional inflammation
    • c. Hemorrhage
    • d. Ulceration and fissuring
    • e. Vascular spasm
    • e
  40. 40. Which of the following conditions is most strongly associated with HIV infection?
    • a. Langerhans cell histiocytosis
    • b. Multiple myeloma
    • c. Burkitt lymphoma
    • d. Kaposi sarcoma
    • e. Extranodal NK/T cell lymphoma, nasal type
    • d
  41. 41. Which of the following is the most important cause of aneurysm formation in arteries?
    • a. Intimal atrophy
    • b. Medial atrophy
    • c. Adventitial atrophy
    • d. Medial hypertrophy
    • e. Adventitial hypertrophy
    • b
  42. 42. Complete obstruction of a major bronchus is most likely to result in which of the following conditions?
    • a. Resorption atelectasis
    • b. Anemia
    • c. Leukemia
    • d. Lymphoma
    • e. Cystic fibrosis
    • a
  43. 43. The highest proportion of which of the following conditions occurs in the cervical region of infants?
    • a. Basal cell carcinomas
    • b. Cavernous lymphangiomas
    • c. Varicose veins
    • d. Pyogenic granulomas
    • e. Melanomas
    • b
  44. 44. A young adult female non-smoker presents with paroxysmal cyanosis in the skin of her extremities due to exaggerated vasoconstriction. Her fingers and toes show “red-white-and-blue” color changes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
    • a. Wegener granulomatosis
    • b. Langerhans cell disease
    • c. Varicose veins
    • d. Raynaud’s phenomenon
    • e. Chronic bronchitis
    • d
  45. 45. A middle-aged female exhibits “orange peel” changes and ulcerations in the skin of her axilla and arm following surgery for breast cancer. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
    • a. Lymphedema
    • b. Varicose veins
    • c. Basal cell carcinomas
    • d. Pyogenic granulomas
    • e. Extranodal NK/T lymphoma, nasal type
    • a
  46. 46. Which of the following lesions is composed of granulation tissue. (Some pathologists regard this lesion as a capillary hemangioma)?
    • a. Glomus tumor
    • b. Varicose vein
    • c. Pyogenic granuloma
    • d. Telangiectasia
    • e. Angiosarcoma
    • c
  47. 47. Antineutrophil cytoplasmic autoantibodies are most likely to be found in serum of patients with which of the following oral changes?
    • a. Multiple mucosal vesicles
    • b. Lingual white patches
    • c. Arteriovenous malformation of the mandible
    • d. “Strawberry” gingival swellings
    • e. Bilateral parotid gland swelling
    • d
  48. 48. Which of the following changes is most characteristic of temporal (giant cell) arteritis?
    • a. Congo red-positive deposits in the arterial media
    • b. Eosinophilic abscesses throughout the adventitia
    • c. Fibrosis
    • d. Destructive granulomatous inflammation of the vessel wall
    • e. Hemorrhage
    • d
  49. 49. A 55-year-old white female complains of severe headache and radiating facial pain. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
    • a. Iron deficiency anemia
    • b. Temporal (giant cell) arteritis
    • c. Langerhans cell disease
    • d. Raynaud’s phenomenon
    • e. Wegener granulomatosis
    • b
  50. 50. Segmental necrotizing inflammation of blood vessels in the heart, kidneys and liver, associated with aneurysms, is most likely to occur in which of the following conditions?
    • a. Acute respiratory distress syndrome
    • b. Unisystem Langerhans cell histiocytosis
    • c. Raynaud’s disease
    • d. Polyarteritis nodosa
    • e. Solitary plasmacytoma
    • d
  51. 51. A 32-year-old male, who smokes heavily, develops gangrene in his legs. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
    • a. Iron deficiency anemia
    • b. Temporal (giant cell) arteritis
    • c. Sarcoidosis
    • d. Raynaud’s phenomenon
    • e. Thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger disease)
    • e
  52. 52. Marked dilatation of the veins of the head, neck and arms with cyanosis and respiratory distress are most likely to be due to which of the following conditions?
    • a. Superior vena cava syndrome
    • b. Wegener granulomatosis
    • c. Langerhans cell granulomatosis
    • d. Thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger disease)
    • e. Raynaud’s phenomenon
    • a
  53. 53. Which of the following statements best describes Kaposi sarcoma lesions?
    • a. They are derived from endothelial cells
    • b. They contain huge numbers of multinucleated giant cells
    • c. Early lesions are composed of cytologically malignant spindled cells
    • d. Advanced (late) lesions exhibit fibrosis
    • e. Aggregates of eosinophils are characteristic
    • a
  54. 54. Immunohemolytic anemia is most likely to occur in which of the following diseases?
    • a. Sickle cell disease
    • b. Systemic lupus eythematosus
    • c. Tetrology of Fallot
    • d. Iron deficiency anemia
    • e. Tuberculosis
    • b
  55. 55. Which of the following conditions is the most likely to be caused by anemia?
    • a. Sarcoidosis
    • b. Renal infarct
    • c. Cor pulmonale
    • d. Angina pectoris
    • e. Lymphedema
    • Xd
  56. 56. Which of the following structures is a biconcave disc?
    • a. Normal alveolar wall
    • b. Bronchiolar cartilage
    • c. Erythrocyte
    • d. Basophil
    • e. Renal corpuscle
    • c
  57. 57. Which of the following is the shape of abnormal red blood cells in peripheral circulation in hereditary spherocytosis?
    • a. Round
    • b. Sickle-shaped
    • c. Square
    • d. Rectangular
    • e. Biconcave
    • a
  58. 58. Which of the following conditions is the consequence of an inherited defect in erythrocyte cell membranes?
    • a. Hereditary spherocytosis
    • b. Sickle cell anemia
    • c. Thalassemia
    • d. Iron deficiency anemia
    • e. Megaloblastic anemia
    • a
  59. 59. Which of the following is the shape of abnormal red blood cells in peripheral circulation in sickle cell disease?
    • a. Round
    • b. Crescent-shaped
    • c. Square
    • d. Rectangular
    • e. Biconcave
    • b
  60. 60. Which of the following conditions is the consequence of disorder of hemoglobin synthesis?
    • a. Hereditary spherocytosis
    • b. Sickle cell disease
    • c. Aplastic anemia
    • d. Iron deficiency anemia
    • e. Megaloblastic anemia
    • b
  61. 61. Which of the following is the immediate consequence of severe acute blood loss (exceeding 30% of blood volume)?
    • a. Anemia
    • b. Hypovolemic shock
    • c. Hemodilution
    • d. Hemolysis
    • e. Bone marrow hyperplasia
    • b
  62. 62. Jaundice is most likely to occur in which of the following conditions?
    • a. Sudden severe hemorrhage
    • b. Cystic fibrosis
    • c. Iron deficiency anemia
    • d. Hemolytic anemia
    • e. Acute respiratory distress syndrome
    • d
  63. 63. Which of the following stem cells gives rise to lymphocytes?
    • a. Myeloid stem cell
    • b. Lymphoid stem cell
    • c. Pronormoblast
    • d. Promyelocyte
    • e. Megakaryocyte
  64. 64. Premature destruction of red cells, shortened red cell lifespan, elevated erythropoietin levels and a compensatory increase in erythropoiesis are found in which of the following conditions?
    • a. Aplastic anemia
    • b. All types of hemolytic anemia
    • c. Iron deficiency anemia
    • d. Anemia of chronic disease
    • e. Multiple myeloma
  65. 65. Which of the following is most likely to occur in severe hemolytic anemia?
    • a. Increased erythropoiesis
    • b. Iron deficiency
    • c. Increased erythrocyte lifespan
    • d. Release of mast cell mediators
    • e. Compensatory elevation of circulating platelets
  66. 66. Which of the following diseases is most likely to exhibit a “crew-cut” radiographic appearance of the calvarium (skull)?
    • a. Cor pulmonale
    • b. Tuberculosis
    • c. Atelectasis
    • d. Temporal (giant cell) arteritis
    • e. Sickle cell disease
  67. 67. Which of the following conditions affects approximately 10% of African-Americans in the United States?
    • a. Sickle cell trait
    • b. Sickle cell disease
    • c. Hereditary spherocytosis
    • d. Thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger disease)
    • e. Hodgkin disease
  68. 68. Which of the following conditions causes multiple infarcts, acute chest syndrome, strokes and severe pain?
    • a. Emphysema
    • b. Sickle cell disease
    • c. Sickle cell trait
    • d. Burkitt lymphoma
    • e. Secondary tuberculosis
  69. 69. The highest proportion of which of the following conditions results in honeycomb lung?
    • a. Viral pneumonia
    • b. Aortic stenosis
    • c. Histoplasmosis
    • d. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
    • e. Primary tuberculosis
  70. 70. Which of the following is a frequently fatal disease that is transmitted on an autosomal recessive basis?
    • a. Chronic bronchitis
    • b. Cystic fibrosis
    • c. Atelectasis
    • d. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
    • e. Respiratory distress syndrome of the newborn
  71. 71. The highest proportion of which of the following conditions results in right-sided heart failure?
    • a. Silicosis
    • b. Primary tuberculosis
    • c. Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia
    • d. HPV infection
    • e. Pulmonary metastases
  72. 72. A middle-aged man, with no history of heart disease, gets off a plane after a 12-hour flight and dies suddenly. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
    • a. Chronic congestive heart failure
    • b. Embola virus infection
    • c. Deep leg vein thrombo-embolism
    • d. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
    • e. Hyaline arteriolosclerosis
  73. 73. Which of the following lung tumors affects women more than men?
    • a. Squamous cell carcinoma
    • b. Adenocarcinoma
    • c. Small cell carcinoma
    • d. Large cell carcinoma
    • e. Mesothelioma
  74. 74. Which of the following agents affecting the lungs is associated with the lowest survival rate and is especially common in people with HIV infection?
    • a. Legionnaires disease
    • b. Histoplasmosis capsulatum
    • c. Pneumocystis jiroveci
    • d. Streptococcus pneumoniae
    • e. Coal dust
  75. 75. Which of the following agents is most likely to cause obliteration of pulmonary alveolar spaces by an acute inflammatory infiltrate?
    • a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
    • b. H5 N1 influenza virus
    • c. H7 N1 influenza virus
    • d. Surfactant
    • e. α1 antitrypsin
  76. 76. Which of the following conditions is a risk factor for both emphysema and chronic bronchitis?
    • a. Eotaxin hypersecretion
    • b. α1 antitrypsin deficiency
    • c. Cigarette smoking
    • d. Surfactant deficiency
    • e. Charcot-Leyden crystals
  77. 77. Deficiency of which of the following factors is most significant in the formation of hyaline membranes in pulmonary disease?
    • a. Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene
    • b. Surfactant
    • c. TGF-β1
    • d. Angiotensin-converting enzyme
    • e. IFN-γ
  78. 78. Which of the following factors is most important in the pathogenesis of obstructive chronic bronchitis?
    • a. Reid index
    • b. Bronchiolitis obliterans
    • c. Epithelioid granulomas
    • d. Asbestosis
    • e. Bronchiectasis
  79. 79. Decreased expiratory flow rate is the primary feature of which of the following conditions?
    • a. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
    • b. Emphysema
    • c. Asbestosis
    • d. Tuberculous pneumonia
    • e. Pulmonary adenocarcinoma
  80. 80. Caseous necrosis is characteristic of which of the following conditions?
    • a. Sarcoidosis
    • b. Aspiration pneumonia
    • c. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
    • d. Tuberculosis
    • e. Respiratory distress syndrome of the newborn
  81. 81. Which of the following structures are affected by hyaline arteriolosclerosis and hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis?
    • a. Venules and veins
    • b. Thoracic duct
    • c. Lymphatic capillaries
    • d. Large elastic arteries
    • e. Small arteries and arterioles
  82. 82. Which of the following conditions is linked to an autoimmune attack on gastric mucosa with loss of parietal cells?
    • a. Pernicious anemia
    • b. Lupus erythematosus
    • c. Iron deficiency anemia
    • d. Myelophthisic anemia
    • e. Spherocytosis
  83. 83. Deficiency of which of the following factors leads to megaloblastic anemia?
    • a. Iron
    • b. Nicotinamide adenosine nucleotide
    • c. Folic acid
    • d. Vitamin C
    • e. Vitamin D
  84. 84. Which of the following types of anemia is caused by extensive infiltration of bone marrow by metastases, advanced tuberculosis, or lipid storage diseases?
    • a. Pernicious anemia
    • b. Hemolytic anemia
    • c. Iron deficiency anemia
    • d. Myelophthisic anemia
    • e. Megaloblastic anemia
  85. 85. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause reactive lymphocytosis?
    • a. Viral infection
    • b. Chronic anemia
    • c. Acute myocardial infarct
    • d. Gingival abscess
    • e. Acute trauma
  86. 86. Which of the following is an end-stage manifestation of many processes that impede the heart’s ability to function?
    • a. Congestive heart failure
    • b. Infective endocarditis
    • c. Hypertensive heart disease
    • d. Congenital heart disease
    • e. Hypervolemic shock
  87. 87. Which of the following changes is LEAST likely to occur in congestive heart failure?
    • a. Cardiac arrythmias
    • b. Catecholamine release
    • c. Cardiac muscle hypertrophy
    • d. Cardiac muscle hyperplasia
    • e. Adaptive molecular and cellular remodeling
  88. 88. Chromosomal translocations are most often seen in which of the following conditions?
    • a. Lymphomas and leukemias
    • b. Fungal infections
    • c. Lymphadenitis
    • d. Pyogenic granulomas
    • e. Bacterial pneumonias
  89. 89. Which of the following changes is the most likely consequence of left-sided heart failure?
    • a. Right-to-left shunt
    • b. Diabetes mellitus
    • c. Ventricular shrinkage
    • d. Aortic valve stenosis
    • e. Hypoxic encephalopathy
  90. 90. Which of the following is a childhood type of leukemia (with an abrupt onset and a peak incidence at 6 years of age) that has the most favorable prognosis?
    • a. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma
    • b. Mycosis fungoides
    • c. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia/small lymphocytic lymphoma (CLL/SLL)
    • d. Sezary syndrome
    • e. Adult T cell leukemia
  91. 91. Which of the following conditions is a type of lymphoma that has its highest incidence in United States and Western Europe, exhibits a nodular pattern, occurs in older adults, mainly affecting lymph nodes, has a prolonged history, is not curable and may transform into a high-grade lymphoma?
    • a. Mycosis fungoides
    • b. Follicular lymphoma
    • c. Extranodal NK/T cell lymphoma, nasal type
    • d. Plasma cell leukemia
    • e. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma
  92. 92. Which of the following conditions is characterized by a “starry sky” histologic pattern” due to the presence of benign macrophages in a lymphocytic background and usually responds very well to chemotherapy when it occurs in African children?
    • a. Hodgkin disease
    • b. Burkitt lymphoma
    • c. Langerhans cell disease
    • d. Pyogenic granuloma
    • e. Multiple myeloma
  93. 93. The highest proportion of cases of which of the following diseases is strongly linked to EBV infection and causes palatal destruction?
    • a. Extranodal NK/T cell lymphoma, nasal type
    • b. Hodgkin lymphoma
    • c. Diffuse B cell lymphoma
    • d. Mycosis fungoides
    • e. Pyogenic granuloma
  94. 94. Which of the following is LEAST likely to occur in patients with multiple myeloma?
    • a. Multiple dense skeletal radiopacities
    • b. Lytic skeletal lesions
    • c. Serum monoclonal complete immunoglobulin
    • d. Urinary monoclonal free immunoglobulin light chain
    • e. Hypercalcemia
  95. 95. The highest proportion of which of the following conditions presents as jaw swellings in African children?
    • a. Hodgkin lymphoma
    • b. Burkitt lymphoma
    • c. Multiple myeloma
    • d. Mantle cell lymphoma
    • e. Mycosis fungoides
  96. 96. Which of the following diseases characteristically spreads in a stepwise fashion to anatomically contiguous lymph nodes?
    • a. Multiple myeloma
    • b. Mantle cell lymphoma
    • c. T-cell lymphoma
    • d. Follicular lymphoma
    • e. Hodgkin lymphoma
  97. 97. Which of the following cells is neoplastic in multiple myeloma?
    • a. Histiocyte
    • b. Plasma cell
    • c. Erythrocyte
    • d. Smooth muscle
    • e. T-lymphocyte
  98. 98. Which of the following conditions is characterized by the Philadelphia chromosome and is successfully treated with a tyrosine kinase inhibitor?
    • a. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
    • b. Bronchial squamous cell carcinoma
    • c. Langerhans cell histiocytosis
    • d. All childhood leukemias
    • e. All adult leukemias
  99. 99. Which of the following conditions is most likely to present as generalized gingival swelling with necrotic foci?
    • a. Multiple myeloma
    • b. Mesothelioma
    • c. Hodgkin disease
    • d. Birbeck disease
    • e. Acute myeloid leukemia with monocytic differentiation
  100. 100. Which of the following is a malignant disease in which non-neoplastic inflammatory cells usually greatly outnumber “owl eye” neoplastic cells?
    a. Multiple myeloma
    b. Squamous cell carcinoma of lungs
    c. Hodgkin disease
    d. Mesothelioma
    e. Acute myeloid leukemia

Card Set Information

Author:
neopho
ID:
324993
Filename:
Systemic Pathology Archives 2014
Updated:
2016-10-28 03:26:36
Tags:
SystemicPathology
Folders:
SystemicPathology
Description:
Systemic Pathology Archives 2014 exam-1 stopped at Q61
Show Answers:

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview