MIC CT Registry Q

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  1. Small focal spots make possible:
    (1) thin slices
    (2) high resolution
    (3) low resolution

    A) 1,2
    B) 3 only
    C) 1,3
    D) 1 only
    A) 1,2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. Most commands from the CT tech are received by the:

    A) operator's console
    B) array processor
    C) CT gantry
    D) host computer
    A) operator's console
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. What is the Anode target material out made of?

    A) tungsten
    B) titanium
    C) bismuth
    D) carbon fiber
    A) tungsten
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. In order for an x-ray photon to be measured it must:
    (1) enter the detector chamber
    (2) be absorbed by the detector material
    (3) be converted to a measurable event

    A) 1 only
    B) 2 only
    C) 1,2,3
    D) 3 only
    C) 1,2,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. Which is TRUE regarding solid state detectors?
    (1) x-ray photons cause the detectors to generate a flash of light
    (2) they are the detector type used on most CT scanners today
    (3) they can be used in both 3rd and 4th Generation CT systems

    A) 1,2
    B) 1,2,3
    C) 1 only
    D) 2,3
    B) 1,2,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. The CT x-ray tube rotates around the patient to:
    (1) keep the tube cool
    (2) generate projection views at different angles
    (3) minimize the x-ray dose to the patient

    A) 2 only
    B) 2,3
    C) 1 only
    D) 3 only
    A) 2 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. For MDCT, the collimator selects the thickness of the x-ray beam which spreads over multiple rows of detectors. What determines the final slice thickness?

    A) pitch
    B) pre-patient collimation
    C) prospective synchronization
    D) image recon
    D) image recon
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. True/False: MDCT collect information from multiple anatomical slices in each rotation of the x-ray tube.
    True
  9. CT tube voltages ranges between ____ kV.

    A) 90 - 140
    B) 80 - 120
    C) 100 - 160
    D) 70 - 100
    A) 90 - 140
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. Which does NOT affect the quantity of x-rays that completely penetrates the patient?
    (1) the distance that the x-ray photons must travel on their course through the body
    (2) the molecular composition of the tissues through which they pass through
    (3) the type of detector material used

    A) 1,2
    B) 1 only
    C) 1,2,3
    D) 3 only
    D) 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. Which statement is FALSE regarding occurrences after an x-ray photon penetrates the detector aperture?
    (1) photon can pass through the detector unmeasured
    (2) photon is converted completely into an electron
    (3) the measured signal is enhanced by an amplifier

    A) 1 only
    B) 2 only
    C) 3 only
    D) 1,2,3
    B) 2 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. Which system component converts the projection attenuation data into the proper digital form for the array processor?

    A) array processor
    B) photodiode
    C) ADC
    D) host computer
    C) ADC
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. Tungsten is used as the target material on the tube's anode because it has a ___ atomic number and a ___ melting point.

    A) low, high
    B) low, low
    C) high, high
    D) high, low
    C) high, high
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. ___ allow(s) remote authorized individuals to connect to a server in a secure fashion using the routing infrastructure provided on a public network (ie internet).

    A) VPN
    B) T1 lines
    C) DICOM
    D) increased bandwidth
    A) VPN
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. What is the purpose of the pre-patient collimator in MDCT?

    A) reduce patient dose
    B) reduce patient safety
    C) increase voltage
    D) slice thickness
    A) reduce patient dose
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. CT consists of an anode and a cathode, which is positive and which is negative?

    A) +, -
    B) -, neutral
    C) neutral, +
    D) -, +
    A) +, -
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. Which are NOT commonly used on today's commercially available CT Scanners?
    (1) xenon detectors
    (2) 4th Generation technology
    (3) continuous rotation technology

    A) 2,3
    B) 1,3
    C) 1,2,3
    D) 1,2
    D) 1,2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. The number of electrons that flow from the cathode to the anode in the tube is controlled by:

    A) collimation
    B) mA
    C) anode
    D) kVp
    B) mA
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. CT is commonly referred to as all of the following EXCEPT:

    A) computerized axial tomography
    B) computerized tomography
    C) CAT-scan
    D) digital subtraction angiography
    D) digital subtraction angiography
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. Which is/are characteristic radiation?
    (1) collision between an incoming electron and the nucleus of the target atom
    (2) slowing down of an incoming electron due to the effect of passing close to the positive charge of the nucleus or target atom
    (3) collision between an incoming electron and an inner-shell electron of a target atom

    A) 1,2
    B) 1,2,3
    C) 3 only
    D) 2,3
    C) 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. X-ray photons are produced by a fast-moving electron:
    (1) colliding with an atomic nucleus
    (2) passing close to an atomic nucleus
    (3) colliding with an electron within an atom and ejecting it

    A) 1,3
    B) 1,2
    C) 2,3
    D) 1,2,3
    D) 1,2,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. Which is a component NOT normally located in the gantry of a modern CT system?

    A) pre-patient collimator
    B) array processor
    C) solid state detector
    D) x-ray tube
    B) array processor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. Increased ___ will increase the likelihood that a given x-ray will penetrate a material.
    (1) kV
    (2) mA
    (3) exposure time

    A) 2,3
    B) 1,2
    C) 1 only
    D) 1,2,3
    C) 1 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. Which is the standard that's used to achieve compatibility for image transfer between various imaging modalities viewing stations, and printers in a hospital?

    A) TCP/IP
    B) DICOM
    C) T1
    D) PACS
    B) DICOM
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. CT images can be directly scanned in planes other than transverse by:
    (1) orienting the patient's body part so that it is not perpendicular to the x-ray beam
    (2) tilting the gantry
    (3) changing the x-ray beam angle

    A) 1,2,3
    B) 1 only
    C) 1,2
    D) 2 only
    C) 1,2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. What control does the operator have over the x-rays in a CT exam?

    A) the phase and frequency of the x-rays can be adjusted
    B) the energy level and quantity of the x-rays can be selected
    C) the temperature and color of the x-rays can be tuned
    D) the volume and tone of the x-rays can be dialed
    B) the energy level and quantity of the x-rays can be selected
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. The slip ring on continuous rotation CT scanners:
    (1) prevents high voltage cables from winding up
    (2) allows the exam to commence more rapidly
    (3) eliminates the need for the reversal of gantry frame rotation

    A) 2,3
    B) 1,3
    C) 1,2,3
    D) 1,2
    C) 1,2,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. Which generation scanner did NOT use a fan beam?

    A) 2nd Gen
    B) 3rd Gen
    C) 4th Gen
    D) 1st Gen
    D) 1st Gen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. What did the 1st Generation CT scanner use?

    A) cone beam
    B) fan beam
    C) pencil beam
    D) square beam
    C) pencil beam
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. The patient table:

    A) may move continuously during the scan
    B) only moves after each slice is completed
    C) can never be positioned automatically by software due to safety precautions
    D) remains stationary throughout the exam once it is initially positioned
    A) may move continuously during the scan
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. Which is NOT part of the CT tube?

    A) filament
    B) rotating anode
    C) tungsten target
    D) collimator
    D) collimator
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. Breamsstrahlung radiation does NOT include:
    (1) collision between an incoming electron and target atom's nucleus
    (2) collision between an incoming electron and the target atom's inner shell electron
    (3) slowing down of an incoming electron due to the effect of passing close to the target atom's positively-charged nucleus

    A) 1 only
    B) 1,2,3
    C) 3 only
    D) 2 only
    D) 2 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. Which is NOT a function of a PACS?

    A) long-term data storage
    B) recon of the image from raw data
    C) image display for the radiologists
    D) digital distribution of images
    B) recon of the image from raw data
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. Which statement is FALSE regarding the collection of CT data?

    A) the recon process used to create the image occurs in the array processor
    B) long scan times are more desirable because they average out motion artifacts
    C) the detectors measure x-rays which completely penetrate the patient
    D) to collect the complete set of CT data, x-rays must be passed through the body at many different angles
    B) long scan times are more desirable because they average out motion artifacts
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. The mA determines the:

    A) attentuation of low energy photons
    B) energy level of the x-ray photons
    C) quantity of x-ray photons
    D) slice thickness
    C) quantity of x-ray photons
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. Collimation:

    A) affects scan time
    B) is accomplished by electronically blocking x-rays
    C) is accomplish by physically blocking x-rays
    D) limits the low energy x-ray photons and passes the high energy photons
    C) is accomplish by physically blocking x-rays
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. Which statement(s) is TRUE?
    (1) kV is the voltage potential between the tube cathode and anode while mA ultimately controls the filament current and, thus, the temperature of the filament
    (2) kV controls the energy level of the x-ray photons and mA controls the number of x-ray photons emitted from the x-ray tube
    (3) although kV and mA affect the operation of the x-ray tube, the two have NO bearing on the image quality

    A) 1,3
    B) 2,3
    C) 1,2
    D) 1,2,3
    C) 1,2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. Which statement(s) is FALSE regarding CT systems?
    (1) they are limited to non-oblique transverse scanning
    (2) they cannot generate a straight coronal or sagittal image
    (3) they have no moving parts

    A) 2,3
    B) 1,3
    C) 1,2,3
    D) 1,2
    C) 1,2,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. X-rays are used in CT because:

    A) they are less harmful than the heating effects of microwave radiation
    B) they penetrate the body according to specific attenuation characteristics of each tissue
    C) they are easily produced by the high frequency generator
    D) the FDA imposes no limit on the patient dose
    B) they penetrate the body according to specific attenuation characteristics of each tissue
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. Scatter radiation is caused by:

    A) x-ray generated spontaneously in the ambient atmosphere
    B) improper patient positioning
    C) deflections from the original trajectory of an x-ray photon through the patient
    D) miscalibrated detector
    C) deflections from the original trajectory of an x-ray photon through the patient
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. The main purpose of the detector is to:

    A) amplify signal
    B) provide additional collimation
    C) limit patient dose
    D) capture x-ray photons and convert them to a measurable signal
    D) capture x-ray photons and convert them to a measurable signal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. The operator's console may include:
    (1) monitor
    (2) keyboard
    (3) graphic input device
    (4) Gantry

    A) 2,3,4
    B) 1,3,4
    C) 1,2,3,4
    D) 1,2,3
    D) 1,2,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. ___ scanner design was the first to acquire 4 slices in a single rotation.

    A) continuous rotation
    B) 4th Gen
    C) 3rd Gen
    D) multi-row detector
    D) multi-row detector
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. X-rays are produced when fast moving electrons collide with a target material and ___ energy.

    A) distribute
    B) maintain
    C) gain
    D) lose
    D) lose
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. The cathode filament:

    A) lights up the tube for service
    B) helps determine the size of the focal spot
    C) releases the x-ray photon
    D) focuses x-rays onto the anode target
    B) helps determine the size of the focal spot
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. On a SDCT scanner, what technical factor determines the slice thickness?

    A) pre-patient collimator
    B) kVp
    C) focal spot
    D) post-patient collimator
    A) pre-patient collimator
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. X-rays are produced whenever fast-moving electron collide with any form of matter because it:
    (1) splits into 2 x-ray photons of equal energy upon impact
    (2) loses kinetic energy which is converted into the emission of an x-ray photon
    (3) converts the electron it collides with into an x-ray photon

    A) 1 only
    B) 1,2,3
    C) 3 only
    D) 2 only
    D) 2 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. Which is TRUE regarding MDCT scanners?
    (1) the size of the detector arrays along the z-direction may be different
    (2) the attenuation information from adjacent detector arrays may be added together to generate thicker slices
    (3) all of the detector arrays may or may not be used

    A) 2,3
    B) 1,3
    C) 1,2,3
    D) 1,2
    C) 1,2,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. Tube interscan delay time refers to:

    A) the time required for the tube to make a complete 360 degree rotation
    B) the length of time required for the production of photons to begin after applying the tube voltage
    C) the time between the end of one scan and the beginning of the next scan during which the tube will cool
    D) a QA test performed daily by the CT Tech
    C) the time between the end of one scan and the beginning of the next scan during which the tube will cool
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. ___ made helical imaging possible.

    A) 3rd Gen
    B) 4th Gen
    C) multi-row scanners
    D) continuous rotation scanners
    D) continuous rotation scanners
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. Which technology do MDCT scanners employ?

    A) 2nd Gen
    B) 1st Gen
    C) 3rd Gen
    D) 4th Gen
    C) 3rd Gen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. Which CT scanner designs does NOT use an x-ray tube?

    A) multi-row scanners
    B) electron beam CT
    C) PET/CT
    D) 1st Gen
    B) electron beam CT
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. In a radiology department, a ___ is an example of a "client" on a network.
    (1) CT scanner
    (2) viewing console
    (3) printer for Dx images

    A) 1,2
    B) 1,3
    C) 1,2,3
    D) 2,3
    C) 1,2,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. The enormous heat that builds up in the tube is caused by the:

    A) x-ray filter in the tube which absorbs the lower energy photons before they can enter the patient
    B) intensity of the x-rays emitted from the tube
    C) electron beam between the cathode and anode
    D) collision of the electron beam with the tungsten target
    D) collision of the electron beam with the tungsten target
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. On a SDCT scanner, collimation:
    (1) controls the slice thickness
    (2) minimizes the patient dose
    (3) reduces the detection of scatter radiation

    A) 3 only
    B) 2 only
    C) 1,2,3
    D) 1 only
    C) 1,2,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. ___ is the mathematical process used by SDCT scanners to reconstruct CT images from raw data.

    A) weighted averaging
    B) fourier transform
    C) integration of the area under the curve
    D) filtered back projection
    D) filtered back projection
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. MDCT scanners capable of collecting 64 slices in a single rotation do NOT:

    A) perform helical CT scans
    B) perform localizer scans
    C) use filtered back projection as their method of image reconstruction
    D) perform conventional CT scans
    C) use filtered back projection as their method of image reconstruction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. The x-ray beam used in CT scanning is ___ the patient's tissues.
    (1) reflected off of
    (2) attenuated by
    (3) generated by

    A) 1,2,3
    B) 2 only
    C) 3 only
    D) 1 only
    B) 2 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. A retrospective recon, in which the recon FOV is varied, uses:

    A) raw data
    B) a reconstructed image in the SAG plane
    C) more photons
    D) image data
    A) raw data
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. CTA images come from ___ scan.
    (1) conventional/serial
    (2) helical
    (3) localizer

    A) 2 only
    B) 1,3
    C) 1,2
    D) 2,3
    A) 2 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. The actual attenuation data measured by the detector from all projections during a scan is contained in the CT ___ data.
    (1) image
    (2) convoluted
    (3) raw

    A) 3 only
    B) 2 only
    C) 1,2,3
    D) 1 only
    A) 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. Using ___ recon filter would decrease the appearance of noise in a CT image.
    (1) no
    (2) sharp
    (3) smooth

    A) 1,2,3
    B) 1 only
    C) 2 only
    D) 3 only
    D) 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. A kernel is a:

    A) component of the x-ray tube
    B) filter applied to the raw data
    C) post-processing filter applied to image data
    D) type of detector
    B) filter applied to the raw data
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. Iterative recon is:

    A) typically performed on helical image data, to generate image in orientations other than those that can easily be directly acquired with CT
    B) a 2nd recon process performed after the initial recon in which a set of modified parameter is used
    C) the type of image recon method used in CT before MDCT scanners became available
    D) a complex cycle of correction calculations applied during image recon in order to reduce noise in the image
    D) a complex cycle of correction calculations applied during image recon in order to reduce noise in the image
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. From which of the following can the most Dx MPR be generated?
    (1) stacked transverse images from a helical scan
    (2) stacked transverse images from a conventional scan
    (3) stacked localizer scans

    A) 1 only
    B) 1,2,3
    C) 2 only
    D) 3 only
    A) 1 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. A pixel is a:

    A) single 2D picture element within the image plane
    B) range of gray levels on a CT image
    C) bright artifact on film
    D) single 3D volume element within a volume of anatomical data
    A) single 2D picture element within the image plane
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. If an image matrix has 360 rows and 360 columns, how many pixels are there in the image?
    129,600

    #pixels = 360x360 = 129,600
  68. Important clinical benefits of iterative recon include:
    (1) ability to reduce radiation dose without compromising image quality
    (2) no longer needing to perform MPR recons
    (3) reduction in noise seen in the image

    A) 1,3
    B) 2,3
    C) 1,2
    D) 1,2,3
    A) 1,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. Which statement is FALSE regarding 3D SSD?

    A) the volume data is created by combining transverse, SAG, and COR recons
    B) patient motion during the scan is detrimental to the quality of the 3D images
    C) the tissue surface may be selected by using a threshold value equal to the tissue's CT number
    D) helical image data is well suited because there is minimal misregistration or gaps
    A) the volume data is created by combining transverse, SAG, and COR recons
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. A helical scan performed on a 64 slice MDCT scanner is recon'd with:

    A) no recon filter
    B) back projection
    C) cone beam recon
    D) simple recon because it is a single projection scan
    C) cone beam recon
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. A CT system manufacturer has a scanner in which the focal spot of the x-ray beam can move to two, slightly separated, distinct locations. What benefit does the dual focal spot provide compared to an identical scanner with a single focal spot?
    (1) #projections is doubled
    (2) #rays in a single projection is doubled
    (3) the patient dose is halved

    A) 2 only
    B) 1 only
    C) 1,2,3
    D) 3 only
    B) 1 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. A ___ scan uses only a single projection.
    (1) conventional
    (2) helical
    (3) localizer

    A) 1,2,3
    B) 3 only
    C) 1,3
    D) 2,3
    B) 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. What does convolution do to the image quality when it is added to the back projection recon process?

    A) normalizes the attenuation coefficients to ensure tissues are displayed with correct CT numbers
    B) improves contrast resolution by reducing scatter
    C) enhances important characteristics of attenuation profiles thus reducing streak and star artifacts
    D) increases the #projections thereby reducing streaking artifacts
    C) enhances important characteristics of attenuation profiles thus reducing streak and star artifacts
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. The ___ move(s) during a helical scan on a 3rd Gen scanner.
    (1) x-ray tube
    (2) patient table
    (3) detector elements

    A) 1,2,3
    B) 1,3
    C) 2,3
    D) 1,2
    A) 1,2,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. Which is a recon technique applied to the raw data after the primary recon has already been accomplished?

    A) MPR
    B) VR
    C) MIP
    D) retrospective recon
    D) retrospective recon
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. A smooth, or low-pass, recon filter is typically NOT selected for a(n) ___ exam.

    A) IAC
    B) liver
    C) kidneys
    D) pituitary
    A) IAC
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. Which is NOT an advantage of helical study compared to a conventional CT study?

    A) minimal anatomical misregistration sometimes caused by inconsistent breath-holding
    B) offers the best image quality for a brain exam
    C) shorter total exam time
    D) can retrospectively reconstruct a slice at any arbitrary position
    B) offers the best image quality for a brain exam

    cuz gantry tilt cutting off bony streaking
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. An increase in ___ does NOT occur in the resulting images when applying a sharp, or high-pass, recon filter during the image recon of the raw data.
    (1) contrast resolution
    (2) edge enhancement
    (3) the appearance of noise

    A) 1,3
    B) 1,2
    C) 1 only
    D) 1,2,3
    C) 1 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. Which utilizes convolution?
    (1) 3D SSD
    (2) fourier transform
    (3) filtered back projection

    A) 1,3
    B) 3 only
    C) 2,3
    D) 1,2
    B) 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. ___ yields an image that appears 3D but also shows anatomical details above and below the 3D surface.

    A) MIP
    B) MPR
    C) SSD
    D) VP
    D) VP
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. __ may have to be edited from the data set to get a Dx MIP of a CTA.

    A) bones
    B) iodinated contrast media
    C) air
    D) vessels of interest
    A) bones
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. In which technique are tissues other than the surface of a structure excluded by setting a threshold value and eliminating pixels above or below that threshold?

    A) VR
    B) 3D SSD
    C) MIP
    D) MPR
    B) 3D SSD
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. True/False: The amplified electrical signal obtained from the detectors must be digitized.
    True
  84. True/False: Digital CT images are numerical representations of cross-sectional anatomy.
    True
  85. True/False: Digital signals may be formed by sampling analog signals at discrete time intervals.
    True
  86. MPR recons are performed on:
    (1) image data
    (2) raw data
    (3) attenuation data

    A) 1 only
    B) 1,2
    C) 1,3
    D) 1,2,3
    A) 1 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. ___ allows helical data to be converted into planar raw data.

    A) retrospective recon
    B) interpolation
    C) convolution
    D) cone beam recon
    B) interpolation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. Image Upload
    In the diagram, which x-ray tube position will produce a lateral localizer image?
    C
  89. Which may occur during the interscan delay of a conventional scan on a continuous rotation scanner?
    (1) table position incremented
    (2) tube continues to rotate in the same direction as during the scan
    (3) tube assembly makes a 360* rotation

    A) 2,3
    B) 1,3
    C) 1,2
    D) 1,2,3
    D) 1,2,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. On a 3rd Gen SDCT scanner, if there are 715 detectors and there are 900 projections in a full scan, how many samples of attenuation data are collected for the raw data of a single slice if the scan calls for an overscan of 400* rotation?
    715,000

    [explanation] 900/360 = 2.5x400 = 1000x715 = 715,000
  91. The ___ determines the intensity of the laser beam in a laser camera.

    A) magnifying power of the lens
    B) pixel values in the image data
    C) all of the above
    D) intensifying grid
    B) pixel values in the image data
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. The pencil thin section of the x-ray fan beam that strikes a single detector is called:

    A) ray
    B) projection
    C) line
    D) view
    A) ray
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. 3D SSD displays are performed on CT:
    (1) image data
    (2) raw data
    (3) attenuation data

    A) 2 only
    B) 3 only
    C) 1,2,3
    D) 1 only
    A) 2 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. Which is TRUE regarding the slice thickness of an image recon'd from a helical scan?
    (1) on a MDCT scanner, the thickness is equal to the beam collimation
    (2) on a SDCT scanner, the thickness can be varied retrospectively
    (3) on a SDCT scanner, the thickness is equal to the beam collimation

    A) 3 only
    B) 1,2,3
    C) 1 only
    D) 2 only
    A) 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. MIP images:

    A) are most accurate when a large volume is selected
    B) do NOT demo detail beneath the brightest pixel
    C) can NOT be run in a cine loop
    D) are most frequently used for visualizing air-filled spaces
    B) do NOT demo detail beneath the brightest pixel
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. Which determinants of CT image quality is responsible for how grainy or speckled a CT image appears?

    A) linearity
    B) contrast
    C) resolution
    D) noise
    D) noise
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. An increase in ___ will result in hardening of the x-ray beam.
    (1) tissue density
    (2) kVp
    (3) tissue thickness

    A) 2,3
    B) 1,3
    C) 1,2,3
    D) 1,2
    C) 1,2,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. Which are possible results of partial voluming?
    (1) decreased edge sharpness
    (2) increased resolution
    (3) misleading CT numbers

    A) 2,3
    B) 1,3
    C) 1,2,3
    D) 1,2
    B) 1,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. Resolution is NOT dependent on:
    (1) matrix size
    (2) recon FOV
    (3) scanned FOV

    A) 1,2,3
    B) 2 only
    C) 1 only
    D) 3 only
    D) 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. Which is NOT directly proportional to mAs?

    A) the mean energy of the x-ray photons leaving the tube
    B) #x-ray photons leaving the x-ray tube
    C) x-ray tube heating
    D) patient dose
    A) the mean energy of the x-ray photons leaving the tube
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. Which technique has the highest patient dose assuming all other parameters remain the same?

    A) mA=150, time=3sec
    B) mA=200, time=2sec
    C) mA=100, time=4sec
    D) mA=400, time=1sec
    A) mA=150, time=3sec
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. Which will result in an increased voxel size?
    (1) decreased recon FOV
    (2) increased matrix
    (3) increased slice thickness

    A) 3 only
    B) 2 only
    C) 1,2,3
    D) 1 only
    A) 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. Which is the conversion equation from CT Number to Hounsfield unit?

    A) CT number = 0.5 x HU
    B) CT number = HU^2
    C) CT number = HU
    D) CT number = 2 x HU
    C) CT number = HU
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. If the radiologist requires 2mm thick contiguous slices through the pituitary, and 2.4cm of coverage, how many slices are needed?
    12 slices

    2.4cm x 10mm/1cm = 240mm/2mm = 12 slices
  105. CT numbers ___ would appear black if a window width of 400 and window level of -100 are used.
    below -300

    • 400/2 = ±200
    • (right side/low end): -200 + (-100) = -300
    • (left side/high end): +200 + (-100) = +100
  106. If a recon FOV of 32cm and a 512x512 matrix are used, the pixel size is ___mm
    0.625 x 0.625

    pixel = DFOV/matrix = (320mm)/(512) = 0.625mm
  107. Which is a reason to increase pitch?
    (1) greater volume of anatomy can be covered in a given time
    (2) radiation dose to patient can be increased
    (3) given volume of anatomy can be covered faster

    A) 1,2
    B) 1,3
    C) 2,3
    D) 1,2,3
    B) 1,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  108. Which would be used to better visualize low contrast resolution?
    (1) decreased mAs
    (2) sharp recon filter
    (3) narrow window with

    A) 3 only
    B) 2 only
    C) 1 only
    D) 1,2,3
    A) 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  109. If a thin slice is used, which would help reduce the apparent image noise?

    A) decreasing mAs
    B) increasing kVp
    C) increased mAs
    D) increasing pitch
    C) increased mAs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  110. A set of images is recon'd with 150mm recon FOV. Keeping all other parameters constant, a 2nd set of images is recon'd with a 300mm recon FOV, and then magnified so that the anatomical structures in the 1st and 2nd set appear the same size. Which statement(s) is FALSE?
    (1) the resolution of the 2nd set is better than the 1st set
    (2) the patient dose of the 1st set of images is higher than 2nd set
    (3) the apparent noise in the 2nd set is more pronounced than the 1st set

    A) 2 only
    B) 1,2,3
    C) 3 only
    D) 1 only
    B) 1,2,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  111. The ___ determines how penetrating the x-ray beam will be.

    A) table increment
    B) pitch
    C) mAs
    D) kVp
    D) kVp
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  112. The smallest object that can be resolved if a recon FOV of 24cm and a 512x512 matrix are used is ___mm.

    A) 0.5
    B) 0.47
    C) 1.2
    D) 1
    B) 0.47
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. Which parameter(s) affects the contrast of an image?

    A) pitch
    B) kVp
    C) mAs
    D) slice thickness
    B) kVp
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  114. Which pitch value would stretch the x-ray helix the most?

    A) 1.2
    B) 1.5
    C) 2.0
    D) 0.5
    C) 2.0
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  115. There are ___ total pixels in a 1024x1024 matrix.

    A) 104,857
    B) 2,048
    C) 1,048,576
    D) 2,097,152
    C) 1,048,576
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  116. True/False: For a given distance of coverage, as recon FOV increases, patient dose increases.
    False
  117. True/False: For a given distance of coverage, as slice thickness increases, patient dose decreases.
    True
  118. True/False: For a given distance of coverage, as pitch increases, patient dose decreases.
    True
  119. True/False: Magnification requires raw data.
    False
  120. True/False: Increasing magnification increases resolution.
    False
  121. True/False: Magnification decreases the size of displayed anatomy.
    False
  122. Compared to a CT scan protocol without iterative recon applied, when using iterative recon, which scan parameter is reduced?

    A) kVp
    B) time
    C) mAs
    D) pitch
    C) mAs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  123. A CT Number Calibration Test should be performed:

    A) monthly
    B) weekly
    C) annually
    D) daily
    D) daily
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  124. ___ the window ___ will make the image appear darker so that bony structures can be evaluated.

    A) increasing, width
    B) decreasing, width
    C) decreasing, level
    D) increasing, level
    D) increasing, level
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  125. Which is the expected result of a CT Number Calibration Test performed on a water phantom?

    A) 0 ± 5
    B) 1000 ± 3
    C) 100 ± 5
    D) 0 ± 3
    D) 0 ± 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  126. ___ affects the CT number of water.

    A) slice thickness
    B) pitch
    C) table increment
    D) no imaging parameter
    D) no imaging parameter
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  127. Which parameter allows adjacent slices to be overlapped without increasing patient dose?

    A) pitch
    B) table increment
    C) slice thickness
    D) reconstruction interval
    D) reconstruction interval
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  128. Which can be changed retrospectively?
    (1) slice thickness from an MDCT
    (2) slice overlap from a SDCT
    (3) slice thickness from a SDCT

    A) 2,3
    B) 1,2
    C) 1,2,3
    D) 1 only
    B) 1,2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  129. Which would be used in a high resolution study of the temporal bones?
    (1) reduced slice thickness
    (2) reduced recon FOV
    (3) sharp recon filter

    A) 3 only
    B) 1,2,3
    C) 2 only
    D) 1 only
    B) 1,2,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  130. The ability to scan a moving organ without seeing motion artifacts on the images is an example of an exam with high:

    A) temporal resolution
    B) linearity
    C) spatial resolution
    D) contrast resolution
    A) temporal resolution
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  131. On a conventional CT scan, if we want 5mm slices with 1mm overlap, the table increment should be ___ mm.

    A) 1
    B) 3
    C) 2
    D) 4
    D) 4
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  132. On MDCT, the final recon'd slice thickness is determined by the:

    A) recon interval
    B) #detector rows and the detector size whose attenuation data gets combined
    C) pitch
    D) collimation
    B) #detector rows and the detector size whose attenuation data gets combined
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  133. Which parameter is responsible for partial voluming?

    A) table increment
    B) slice thickness
    C) no imaging parameter
    D) pitch
    B) slice thickness
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  134. The distance that the table travels between slices is called ___.
    table increment
  135. Which parameter causes helical slices to be recon'd so they overlap?

    A) recon interval
    B) table increment
    C) pitch
    D) slice thickness
    A) recon interval
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  136. Which does NOT occur when recon FOV is decreased?
    (1) spatial resolution is increased
    (2) pixel size is increased
    (3) noise is increased

    A) 1 only
    B) 3 only
    C) 2
    D) 1,2,3
    C) 2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  137. If a calcification with a CT number of +300 appears pure white on an image, which could be the window settings selected?
    (1) WL = 0, WW = 500
    (2) WL = +300, WW = 500
    (3) WL = +100, WW = 300

    A) 1,2,3
    B) 1 only
    C) 2 only
    D) 1,3
    D) 1,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  138. A BUN of ___ mg/dl is considered outside the normal range.
    (1) 10
    (2) 18
    (3) 32

    A) 1 only
    B) 1,2,3
    C) 2 only
    D) 3 only
    D) 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  139. To modify a standard CT protocol so that it is appropriate for children, which parameter(s) should be decreased?
    (1) pitch
    (2) kVp
    (3) mAs

    A) 1,3
    B) 2,3
    C) 3 only
    D) 1 only
    B) 2,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  140. Which does NOT minimize the patient dose?

    A) pre-patient collimation
    B) decreasing distance between x-ray beam and patient
    C) filtration of low energy photons from the beam
    D) increasing pitch
    B) decreasing distance between x-ray beam and patient
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  141. Air in the pleural space causes the lung to collapse, which is termed:

    A) hemothorax
    B) pneumothorax
    C) pleural effusion
    D) empyema
    B) pneumothorax
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  142. Which medical device is most often used in oxygen delivery?

    A) bi-pap
    B) ETT tube
    C) nasal cannula
    D) tracheostomy tube
    C) nasal cannula
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  143. True/False: A pulse oximeter works by passing a beam of red and infrared light through the capillary bed.
    True
  144. True/False: Normal O2 saturation is 85-100%
    • False
    • Normal O2 range = 95-100%
  145. Which does NOT test for renal function:

    A) creatinine
    B) GFR
    C) BUN
    D) PTT
    D) PTT
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  146. The most sensitive trimester for a developing fetus/embryo is:
    1st trimester
  147. Platelets are small:

    A) cell fragments used in bile production
    B) cell fragments necessary for cloating
    C) cell fragments necessary for kidney cleaning
    D) small pieces of cells that help create RBCs
    B) cell fragments necessary for cloating
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  148. A creatinine level of 3.1 mg/dl indicates the:
    (1) kidneys are not removing waste products from urine
    (2) value is above the normal range
    (3) contraindicated for IV contrast injection

    A) 3 only
    B) 1 only
    C) 2,3
    D) 2 only
    C) 2,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  149. True/False: The patient should be removed from the CT suite to treat cardiac arrest.
    False
  150. Which PT are considered outside the normal range?
    (1) 8s
    (2) 18s
    (3) 25s

    A) 1,2
    B) 2,3
    C) 1,2,3
    D) 1 only
    B) 2,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  151. True/False: A claustrophobic patient can arrive for the CT scan prepared with a prescription sedative.
    True
  152. True/False: Monitoring patient during a scan or procedure is unnecessary if prior history or condition does not indicate the need for monitoring.
    False
  153. If the mA of a 2sec brain scan is doubled and all other parameters are constant, the dose is:
    doubled
  154. Renal function refers to which organ?
    kidneys
  155. Which reduces patient dose at the expense of increasing apparent noise?

    A) kVp
    B) table increment
    C) pitch
    D) mAs
    D) mAs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  156. During a CT scan, the patient must be monitored:

    A) by RN
    B) visually and verbally
    C) sometimes
    D) with a pulse oximeter
    B) visually and verbally
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  157. ___ offers standardized lab values indicating the blood's ability to coagulate for patients taking anticoagulant medications.

    A) PT
    B) BUN
    C) PTT
    D) INR
    D) INR
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  158. When reviewing the images from a helical scan, a subtle suspicious area of possible pathology is noticed. What could be done WITHOUT increasing patient dose?
    (1) re-scan the region using thinner slices
    (2) retrospectively reconstruct the slices so that they overlap
    (3) repeat scan but decrease pitch

    A) 1,2,3
    B) 1 only
    C) 2 only
    D) 3 only
    C) 2 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  159. True/False: Metformin has the same precautions as Glucophage, Glucovance, and Glucagon.
    False.

    Only same as first two, not Glucagon.
  160. Which is NOT typical indication of shock?

    A) seizures
    B) grayish skin tone
    C) tachycardia
    D) hypotension
    A) seizures
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  161. CPR must be administered to a cardiac arrest victim within a maximum of ___ minute(s) before there is risk of brain damage.
    4
  162. ___ mmHg is within the normal range of diastolic pressure for adults.
    (1) 60
    (2) 80
    (3) 90
    (4) 100

    A) 1,2,4
    B) 2,3,4
    C) 1,2,3
    D) 1,3,4
    C) 1,2,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  163. The most important consideration in the care of an unconscious patient is to ensure the ___ are clear and open.
    air passages
  164. What is the normal adult respiration per minute range?

    A) 15-30
    B) 25-50
    C) 12-20
    D) 10-25
    C) 12-20
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  165. Which lab tests often indicates the necessity for a CTA or NM to rule out pulmonary embolism?
    D-dimer
  166. What is the normal O2 blood saturation?

    A) 75-85%
    B) 95-100%
    C) 85-99%
    D) 90-96%
    B) 95-100%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  167. Which vital sign is considered abnormal?

    A) rectal temperature of 99.5*F
    B) adult BP of 165/98
    C) pediatric pulse of 140 bpm
    D) adult pulse of 85 bpm
    B) adult BP of 165/98
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  168. The ARRT Code of Ethics is considered a ___, while the Rule of Ethics is a ___.

    A) guideline, non-liable
    B) law, guideline
    C) guideline, changeable per state
    D) conduct guideline, enforceable
    D) conduct guideline, enforceable
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  169. Which is a good effective dose estimate for a CT Head scan?

    A) 2 mSv
    B) 0.2 mSv
    C) 20 Gy
    D) 0.3 mSv
    A) 2 mSv
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  170. What does the lab test PTT stand for?
    partial thromboplastin time
  171. Which lab tests should be considered before administering IV contrast?
    (1) BUN
    (2) GFR
    (3) creatinine
    (4) PT

    A) 1,2,3
    B) 2,3,4
    C) 1,2,3,4
    D) 1,2
    C) 1,2,3,4
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  172. In a normal EKG, the ___ wave represents atrial contraction.

    A) QRS
    B) P
    C) S
    D) R
    B) P
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  173. ON a MDCT scanner, a radiation penumbra may be found:

    A) on every slice
    B) only on the trailing edges of the slices
    C) on every other slice
    D) on 1st and last slices of the slice volume
    D) on 1st and last slices of the slice volume
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  174. Which technique minimizes the patient dose in a coronary calcium scoring exam?

    A) retrospective synchronization
    B) prospective synchronization
    C) decreasing pitch
    D) no synchronization
    B) prospective synchronization
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  175. Which radiation dose measurement accounts for helical studies on MDCT scanners and considers the total volume of irradiated tissues?

    A) DLP
    B) CTDIvol
    C) MSAD
    D) CTDI
    A) DLP
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  176. A normal pulse rate for an infant is ___ bpm.

    A) 170
    B) 200
    C) 90
    D) 80
    A) 170
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  177. What are the radiation shields used in CT made out of?
    (1) tungsten
    (2) lead
    (3) bismuth

    A) 1,3
    B) 2 only
    C) 3 only
    D) 1 only
    A) 1,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  178. What should be done if extravasation is noticed at the injection site?

    A) slap infiltrated area to get it working
    B) apply a heat compress while injection continues
    C) immediately stop injection
    D) apply ice and continue exam
    C) immediately stop injection
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  179. Which phase of IV contrast enhancement will occur first?

    A) bolus, equilibrium, non-equilibrium
    B) non-equilibrium, equilibrium, bolus
    C) equilibrium, non-equilibrium, bolus
    D) bolus, non-equilibrium, equilibrium
    D) bolus, non-equilibrium, equilibrium
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  180. Which oral contrast is better for opacifying the distal small intestine?
    (1) barium sulfate
    (2) non-ionic iodine
    (3) ionic iodine

    A) 1,2,3
    B) 1 only
    C) 1,2
    D) 2 only
    B) 1 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  181. The definition of osmolality is the ___ the contrast agent solution.

    A) rate of injection of
    B) thickness of
    C) measure of dissociation of
    D) concentration of molecular particles in
    D) concentration of molecular particles in
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  182. When a contrast agent is injected directly into the joint space it is termed:

    A) intraarticular
    B) intrathecal
    C) intracranial
    D) intravenous
    A) intraarticular
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  183. Which characteristics of an IV contrast affects patient tolerance?
    (1) iodine concentration
    (2) viscosity
    (3) osmolality

    A) 1,2,3
    B) 2 only
    C) 3 only
    D) 1 only
    A) 1,2,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  184. An IV contrast media viscosity can be reduced by ___.
    heating
  185. The heating unit on a power injector is for ___ of the contrast agent.

    A) decreasing osmolality
    B) decreasing the viscosity
    C) increasing the iodine concentration
    D) increasing the viscosity
    B) decreasing the viscosity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  186. A difference of ___ HU between the aorta and IVC would indicate the non-equilibrium enhancement phase.

    A) 45
    B) 35
    C) 15
    D) 25
    D) 25
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  187. A delay about ___ sec after the start of IV injection should be used for a CT Chest exam.

    A) 20
    B) 40
    C) 50
    D) 30
    D) 30
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  188. Iodine oral contrast would be selected instead of barium sulfate because:
    (1) it passes through GI more quickly
    (2) the trauma patient may have a perforated bowel
    (3) the contrast stays more dense in the distal GI tract

    A) 1 only
    B) 1,2,3
    C) 1,2
    D) 3 only
    C) 1,2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  189. The most common gauge range of IV catheter used in CT is ___.
    18-22
  190. If there is doubt regarding the sterility of the contrast media, the contrast should be ___.
    discarded
  191. An indication of IV contrast injection is to rule out:
    (1) mastoiditis
    (2) meningioma
    (3) sinusitis
    (4) Grave's disease

    A) 2,3
    B) 1,2,3,4
    C) 1,2
    D) 2 only
    D) 2 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  192. The osmolality of plasma is ___ mOsm/kg.
    (1) less than LOCM at 285
    (2) less than LOCM at 300
    (3) less than HOCM at 285
    (4) less than HOCM at 400

    A) 1,3,4
    B) 1 only
    C) 2 only
    D) 3 only
    B) 1 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  193. True/False: The standard peripherally inserted central catheter, like those used for chemotherapy, are required for CT IV contrast studies.
    False
  194. A delay of about ___ sec after the start of IV contrast injection should be used for a CT Neck.

    A) 30
    B) 35
    C) 50
    D) 90
    B) 35
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  195. True/False: According to ACR guidelines, under no circumstances should IV contrast be administered to a pregnant patient.
    False
  196. True/False: According to ACR guidelines, IV contrast may be administered when it is not prudent to wait to obtain the clinical information until after the pregnancy.
    True
  197. True/False: According to ACR guidelines, IV contrast may be administered if the clinical information obtained will affect the care of the patient and fetus during pregnancy.
    True
  198. What is the appropriate care to give to a diabetic patient?
    (1) if the patient is using Metformin, advice them to stop its use 48hrs before IV contrast injection.
    (2) if the patient is using Metformin, advise them to resume its use 48hrs after IV contrast administration only after kidney function has been reassessed and determined to be normal
    (3) if IV contrast is required, use LOCM

    A) 1,2,3
    B) 2,3
    C) 1,2
    D) 1,3
    A) 1,2,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  199. Which may help reduce adverse reactions resulting from IV contrast injection?
    (1) use HOCM
    (2) increase flow rate
    (3) administer an antihistamine prior to the exam

    A) 1 only
    B) 2 only
    C) 3 only
    D) 1,2,3
    C) 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  200. To best visualize the stomach wall, what should the patient drink last?
    (1) water
    (2) iodine
    (3) barium sulfate
    (4) CO2

    A) 1,2,4
    B) 2,3
    C) 1 only
    D) 1,2
    C) 1 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  201. There is significant enhancement of the liver compared to tumors during the ___ phase, but during the ___ phase, there is the possibility of tumor enhancement, which may make hepatic tumors isodense with liver tissue.

    A) non-equilibrium, bolus
    B) non-equilibrium, equilibrium
    C) equilibrium, non-equilibrium
    D) bolus, equilibrium
    B) non-equilibrium, equilibrium
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  202. Exams to rule out ___ would indicate the need for IV contrast in the chest.
    (1) pneumothorax
    (2) hilar mass
    (3) aortic dissection

    A) 1,2,3
    B) 2,3
    C) 1,3
    D) 3 only
    B) 2,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  203. The typical scan delay for a pancreas study is:

    A) 8-9min
    B) 50-60 sec
    C) 70-80 sec
    D) 80-90 sec
    B) 50-60 sec
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  204. Why is the cephalic vein a less desirable site for injection than the basilic vein?

    A) the blood has to travel through the head before reaching the heart
    B) it's a deep vein and hard to find
    C) it's a small vein with poor blood flow
    D) the flow is impeded with the patient's arms raised
    D) the flow is impeded with the patient's arms raised
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  205. How long does it take to inject 150 mL with a flowrate of 2cc/sec?

    A) 80 sec
    B) 60 sec
    C) 75 sec
    D) 50 sec
    C) 75 sec
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  206. Viscosity is a measure of a fluid's ___.

    A) concentration
    B) thickness
    C) flow rate
    D) temperature
    B) thickness
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  207. Which is a result of injecting a hypertonic solution into the vascular space?

    A) there is net movement of water into the vascular space
    B) there is no net movement out or into the vascular space of contrast or water
    C) there is net movement of water out of the vascular space
    D) contrast resolution
    A) there is net movement of water into the vascular space
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  208. The portal venous phase occurs about ___ after IV contrast injection.

    A) 80-90 sec
    B) 70-80 sec
    C) 50-60 sec
    D) 60-90 sec
    D) 60-90 sec
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  209. An injection rate of ___ cc/sec will maintain a dense bolus of IV contrast for a CTA exam and will be tolerated by most patients.

    A) 1-2
    B) 5-6
    C) 4-5
    D) 2-3
    C) 4-5
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  210. Iodinated IV contrast perfuse normal:
    (1) liver
    (2) brain
    (3) lymph
    (4) kidney

    A) 1,4
    B) 1,2
    C) 1,2,3,4
    D) 2,3
    A) 1,4
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  211. Which is associated with a bi-phasic study of the liver?
    (1) using two contrast injection rates
    (2) having 2 images per slice position
    (3) lesion differentiation with arterial and portal venous blood supplies
    (4) arterial occurs in the equilibrium phase, while portal venous happens during the non-equilibrium phase

    A) 2,3
    B) 1,2,4
    C) 1,2,3,4
    D) 2,3,4
    A) 2,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  212. A CT Brain exam to visualize MS plaques may be made more sensitive by using ___ delay after the contrast injection.

    A) 8-9min
    B) 2-5min
    C) 45 min
    D) 15 min
    C) 45 min
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  213. Low osmolar contrast media:
    (1) typically has the same concentration of particles as plasma
    (2) typically has the higher concentration of particles than plasma
    (3) tends to cause more adverse reaction than HOCM
    (4) is the preferred contrast type for diabetics over HOCM

    A) 2,4
    B) 1,3,4
    C) 2,3
    D) 2,3,4
    A) 2,4
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  214. The hepatic arterial phase occurs about __ sec after IV contrast injection.

    A) 50-70
    B) 5-20
    C) 20-40
    D) 40-60
    C) 20-40
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  215. Which is NOT a typical adverse reaction to oral contrast?

    A) hives
    B) abdominal cramping
    C) gas
    D) diarrhea
    A) hives
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  216. What type of "negative" contrast is administered rectally for virtual colonoscopy exams?

    A) barium sulfate
    B) CO2
    C) iodine
    D) water
    B) CO2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  217. Which statement is TRUE regarding barium sulfate contrast used in CT exams?

    A) the same concentration is used in conventional radiology
    B) it's completely different than that used in conventional radiology
    C) less concentration is used for CT than for conventional radiology
    D) it's exactly the same as that used in conventional radiology
    C) less concentration is used for CT than for conventional radiology
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  218. The contrast between a lesion and the surrounding tissue may ___ following injection of contrast media.
    (1) improve
    (2) remain unchanged
    (3) be degraded

    A) 2 only
    B) 3 only
    C) 1,2,3
    D) 1 only
    C) 1,2,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  219. Contrast agents containing barium sulfate:
    (1) enhance structures because they are absorbed into the blood stream
    (2) enhance structures because they are absorbed through the small intestine
    (3) remain unchanged as they travel through the body

    A) 3 only
    B) 2,3
    C) 1,2
    D) 1,3
    A) 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  220. Which types of contrast has NO application for a CT T-Spine?
    (1) oral
    (2) IV
    (3) intrathecal

    A) 3 only
    B) 1 only
    C) 2 only
    D) 1,2,3
    B) 1 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  221. In which studies might cranial nerve XI be visualized?

    A) lumbar spine
    B) IAC
    C) soft tissue neck
    D) supratentorium
    C) soft tissue neck
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  222. In order to generate a 3D SSD rendering of the hips, the ___ data is used directly by the 3D recon software.

    A) raw
    B) unrecon'd
    C) image
    D) projection
    C) image
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  223. Which is the appropriate range of coverage for a coronal sinus study?

    A) from clivus to anterior clinoid process
    B) from spheniod sinus to 4th ventricle
    C) from IACs to ethmoid sinus
    D) from anterior aspect of frontal sinus to dorum sella
    D) from anterior aspect of frontal sinus to dorum sella
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  224. Which is NOT a reason for using thinner slices in the posterior fossa compared with the more superior regions of the brain?
    (1) improve spatial resolution
    (2) decrease patient dose
    (3) reduce streak artifacts

    A) 1 only
    B) 1,3
    C) 3 only
    D) 2 only
    D) 2 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  225. A localizer image in which orientation(s) should be used to set up axial slices so that they can be parallel to the plane of a specific lumber disk?

    A) transverse
    B) oblique
    C) AP
    D) lateral
    D) lateral
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  226. Which is TRUE regarding CT spine exams?
    (1) IV contrast is usually not needed to r/o herniated disk(s)
    (2) the entire t-spine is not routinely scanned with transverse CT slices
    (3) SAG and COR images of an adult spine may not be directly collected from a CT scan

    A) 1,2
    B) 2,3
    C) 1,2,3
    D) 1,2,3
    C) 1,2,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  227. Which is NOT an indication of a herniated disk?
    (1) hypertrophy of the inferior articulating process and lamina
    (2) deformity of the posterior disk border
    (3) displacement of epidural fat

    A) 1,3
    B) 1 only
    C) 1,2,3
    D) 1,2
    B) 1 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  228. Which window settings provides the best tissue differentiation of the soft tissues of the supratentorium?

    A) WW = 1000, WL = 200
    B) WW = 300, WL = 60
    C) WW = 100, WL = 30
    D) WW = 2500, WL = 350
    C) WW = 100, WL = 30
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  229. On a CTA lower extremity to assess atherosclerosis, coverage should extend from ___ to ___.
    abdominal aorta/diaphragm, ankles
  230. What is the primary reason to have a patient phonate the letter "e" during a CT larynx exam?

    A) demos vocal cord mobility
    B) defines epiglottis better
    C) closes the pyriform sinuses
    D) distends laryngeal ventricles
    A) demos vocal cord mobility
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  231. Which combos of scanning parameters is best for evaluating abnormalities within the petrous pyramids of the temporal bones?

    A) algorithm = sharp, WW = 2500, slice = 0.5-2mm
    B) algorithm = standard, WW = 300, slice = 0.5-2mm
    C) algorithm = standard, WW = 2500, slice = 4-8mm
    D) algorithm = soft, WW = 300, slice = 0.5-2mm
    A) algorithm = sharp, WW = 2500, slice = 0.5-2mm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  232. Which should NOT be part of a CT brain perfusion exam?

    A) done with IV contrast
    B) multiple scans performed every 1-2sec for about 1min
    C) do not restrain patient's head during exam
    D) low dose protocol
    C) do not restrain patient's head during exam
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  233. CT brain perfusion: 

    A) replaces the need for CTAs
    B) evaluates blood flow through the major vessels
    C) is typically performed to evaluate stroke
    D) 75-85%
    C) is typically performed to evaluate stroke
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  234. Which is necessary to quickly and accurately Dx stroke?
    (1) eval for ischemic but viable tissue
    (2) eval for vascular occlusion
    (3) establish if there is an intracranial hemorrhage

    A) 3 only
    B) 2 only
    C) 1,2,3
    D) 1 only
    C) 1,2,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  235. Which is FALSE about a CT Runoff exam?

    A) patient should be positioned supine and feet first
    B) coverage should extend from upper abdominal aorta/diaphram to popliteal artery bifurcation
    C) flow rate = 4ml/sec
    D) spatial resolution of CTA exceeds MRA
    B) coverage should extend from upper abdominal aorta/diaphram to popliteal artery bifurcation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  236. Indications for CT Head include:
    (1) trauma
    (2) stroke
    (3) MS

    A) 1,3
    B) 1,2
    C) 2 only
    D) 2,3
    B) 1,2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  237. Which is NOT a location where one would expect to find CSF?
    (1) subarachnoid space
    (2) 4th ventricle of the brain
    (3) subdural space

    A) 1,3
    B) 1,2
    C) 2,3
    D) 3 only
    D) 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  238. Which scanning plane is best for evaluating the anatomical relationship between pituitary and sella turcica?

    A) soft tissue neck
    B) transverse
    C) SAG
    D) COR
    D) COR
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  239. Which would NOT enhance during the 1st several minutes of a post-contrast CT Neck?

    A) lymph nodes
    B) capillary beds
    C) vascular lesions
    D) jugular vein
    A) lymph nodes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  240. From the ___ above and below the disk space should be scanned if only 1 intervertebral disk space was of interest.

    A) pedicle
    B) spinous process
    C) superior articular process
    D) apophyseal joint
    A) pedicle
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  241. What CT exam will cranial nerve VII be seen?

    A) IACs
    B) C-spine
    C) soft tissue neck
    D) supratentorium
    A) IACs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  242. If we want to generate a Dx 3D SSD of the C-spine, how should the scan be performed?

    A) with large gaps between slices
    B) at orthogonal orientations through affected regions
    C) at various angles to cut out the streaking artifacts from teeth
    D) at a single angle and no gaps through the affected regions
    D) at a single angle and no gaps through the affected regions
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  243. What can be done to reduce the lordotic curve in a CT L-spine exam?
    place wedge/pillow under the knees
  244. For CT brain exams, the reference lines for axial slices are:
    (1) crantomeatal line
    (2) infraorbitomeatal line
    (3) orbitomeatal line

    A) 1,2,3
    B) 1,3
    C) 1,2
    D) 2,3
    A) 1,2,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  245. To compensate for increased noise when reducing slice thickness, what and how should that parameter be varied?
    increase mAs
  246. For which condition of the brain should IV contrast NOT be administered?

    A) aneurysm evaluation
    B) evaluation of mass
    C) suspected atrophy
    D) recurrent headaches
    C) suspected atrophy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  247. For a routine CT Pelvis, what gantry tilt is used?
    no tilt
  248. For CT Pelvis, from __ to __ should be scanned.

    A) L-5, symphysis pubis
    B) T-12, iliac crest
    C) 12th rib, symphysis pubis
    D) iliac crest, symphysis pubis
    D) iliac crest, symphysis pubis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  249. Which window setting is best for bone window of a CT Pelvis?

    A) WW = 1100, WL = 100
    B) WW = 2000, WL = 350
    C) WW = 200, WL = 150
    D) WW = 100, WL = 30
    B) WW = 2000, WL = 350
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  250. Which is a reason for inserting a tampon into the vagina for a CT Pelvis?

    A) eliminates need for IV contrast
    B) eliminates for oral contrast
    C) provides a high temperature on the image
    D) helps visualize the vaginal canal
    D) helps visualize the vaginal canal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  251. Which is NOT recommended for a screening CT colonoscopy exam?
    (1) both prone and supine positioning
    (2) post-processing to visualize inside surface of bowel
    (3) 200 mAs

    A) 1,3
    B) 1,2
    C) 3 only
    D) 2,3
    C) 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  252. TRUE/FALSE: A high calcium scoring is evidence of stenosis.
    False. High chance of but not proof of.
  253. In order to assess cardiac function, the ___ is evaluated.

    A) left ventricle
    B) right atrium
    C) left atrium
    D) right ventricle
    A) left ventricle
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  254. The ___ view is used to evaluate cardiac function.

    A) short axis
    B) axial
    C) 2 chamber long axis
    D) 4 chamber long axis
    A) short axis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  255. Normal ejection fraction is greater than ___%

    A) 60
    B) 80
    C) 90
    D) 70
    A) 60
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  256. A CT urogram requires ___ of water to be consumed within ___ of the exam.

    A) 1 qt, 45min-1hr
    B) 1 L, 30-45min
    C) 2 qt, 3hr
    D) 2 qt, 45min-1hr
    D) 2 qt, 45min-1hr
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  257. Which window settings is best for a CT Liver exam?

    A) WW = 2500, WL = 350
    B) WW = 300, WL = 60
    C) WW = 140, WL = 60
    D) WW = 200, WL = 150
    C) WW = 140, WL = 60
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  258. The result of the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta is the left and right ___ arteries.

    A) quadriceps
    B) femoral
    C) popliteal
    D) common iliac
    D) common iliac
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  259. TRUE/FALSE: The left lobe of the liver is more anterior than the right and caudate lobe, while the caudate lobe is more medial than the right lobe.
    TRUE
  260. Which affects the severity of the metal artifacts?
    (1) quantity, composition and shape of the metal
    (2) number of data sampling points
    (3) slice thickness

    A) 1 only
    B) 1,2,3
    C) 1,3
    D) 1,2
    B) 1,2,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  261. Which may occur if the patient's arms are not raised during a CT Chest with a 33cm scan FOV?
    (1) beam hardening
    (2) cone beam artifact
    (3) out-of-field artifact

    A) 3 only
    B) 1,3
    C) 1,2
    D) 2,3
    B) 1,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  262. A(n) ___ artifact can be created when attempting to correct for a cupping artifact by applying a correction algorithm too aggressively to the data for a head image. This results in the ___ of the image appearing too bright.

    A) capping, edges
    B) capping, center
    C) edge gradient, edges
    D) edge gradient, center
    B) capping, center
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  263. CT x-ray tube arcing can occur because of ___ the x-ray tube.
    (1) impurities in the oil outside
    (2) tungsten solids in the oil inside
    (3) tungsten gas inside

    A) 1,3
    B) 1,2,3
    C) 1,2
    D) 2,3
    A) 1,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  264. Which will have the least likelihood of producing edge gradient artifacts?

    A) thick slices with full scan
    B) thick slices with partial scan
    C) thin slices with full scan
    D) thin slices with partial scan
    C) thin slices with full scan
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  265. ___ in the image is a possible manifestation of patient motion.
    (1) ghosting
    (2) blurring
    (3) streaks

    A) 1,2,3
    B) 1,3
    C) 1 only
    D) 2 only
    A) 1,2,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  266. On a CT Brain, a cupping artifact would appear brighter:

    A) immediately around dense structures
    B) in the center of the brain
    C) at the periphery of the brain
    D) at the anterior and posterior aspects of the brain
    C) at the periphery of the brain
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  267. A cone beam artifact may look like stars:

    A) coming from structures around the edge of the image
    B) from all structures with high HU
    C) coming from cone-shaped structures
    D) at the center of the image
    A) coming from structures around the edge of the image
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  268. A CT artifact is:

    A) used to time the contrast injection
    B) parameter used to control image brightness
    C) an image anomaly
    D) always a reason to call for service
    C) an image anomaly
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  269. Beam hardening refers to the increase in the:
    (1) average beam energy
    (2) # of photons reaching the detectors
    (3) # of low energy photons reaching the detectors

    A) 3 only
    B) 1,3
    C) 1 only
    D) 2 only
    C) 1 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  270. Which would reduce noise?

    A) increased x-ray tube to patient distance, same kVp and mAs
    B) increased window widths, mAs, and slice thickness
    C) increased mAs and kVp with sharp filter
    D) increased window widths, decreased pitch, same mAs
    B) increased window widths, mAs, and slice thickness
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  271. The service engineer should NOT be notified about:
    (1) consistent circle artifacts
    (2) frequent bad streaks throughout entire scan
    (3) frequent bad streaks on the inferior of the head scans

    A) 1,3
    B) 1,2,3
    C) 2,3
    D) 3 only
    D) 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  272. Which strategies minimizes beam hardening artifacts from dense contrast media?
    (1) diluted contrast
    (2) scan with a slight delay
    (3) scan caudiocranial

    A) 1,2
    B) 1,2,3
    C) 1,3
    D) 2,3
    D) 2,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  273. Which would display the greatest amount of partial volume artifact?

    A) 5mm from 20 slices
    B) 10mm from 20 slices
    C) 5mm from 100 slices
    D) 2mm from 20 slices
    B) 10mm from 20 slices
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  274. Which would increase severity of edge gradient effect?
    (1) scanner with a small aperture
    (2) scanner with a low data sampling rate
    (3) using thin slices

    A) 3 only
    B) 1,2,3
    C) 1 only
    D) 2 only
    D) 2 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  275. Which strategies will eliminate a ring artifact?

    A) increase matrix
    B) removal all metal
    C) recalibration of detector elements
    D) increase technique
    C) recalibration of detector elements
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  276. Which could result from beam hardening?
    (1) CT # inaccuracies
    (2) cupping artifacts
    (3) streaking

    A) 1,2
    B) 1,3
    C) 1,2,3
    D) 2,3
    C) 1,2,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  277. What causes cupping effect?

    A) central tissues are not penetrated by the beam
    B) the mean energy of the photons that comprise the beam is lowered
    C) attentuation of low energy photons
    D) interface between tissues with different densities causes the high energy photons to be absorbed
    C) attentuation of low energy photons
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  278. What causes 2 parallel lines to appear on a localizer image?

    A) tube arcing
    B) cone beam effect
    C) two faulty detector elements
    D) reconstruction algorithm error
    C) two faulty detector elements
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  279. What would decrease beam hardening?
    (1) increasing kVp
    (2) increasing mAs
    (3) increasing slice thickness

    A) 1 only
    B) 1,2
    C) 1,3
    D) 1,2,3
    A) 1 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  280. A(n) ___ artifact is a streak artifact which arises from a high spatial frequency interface between tissues with a great difference in the density.

    A) retrospective synchronization
    B) edge gradient
    C) tube arcing
    D) cone beam effect
    B) edge gradient
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  281. In which direction are streaks from the edge gradient effect orientated?

    A) perpendicular to direction of the sharp density difference
    B) parallel to the direction of the sharp density difference
    C) parallel away from the direction of the sharp density difference
    D) radially outward from center
    B) parallel to the direction of the sharp density difference
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  282. Which would NOT help differentiate pathology from a partial volume artifact?
    (1) rescan, decrease pitch, same slice thickness
    (2) inspect adjacent slices
    (3) collect additional thinner slices through suspicious region

    A) 1,2
    B) 1,2,3
    C) 1 only
    D) 1,3
    C) 1 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  283. Which would reduce out-of-field artifacts?

    A) increase matrix
    B) increasing scan FOV
    C) decreasing scan FOV
    D) decreasing recon FOV
    B) increasing scan FOV
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  284. What causes cone beam artifacts?

    A) using filtered back projection on beam thickness over 20mm
    B) beam hardening on MDCT
    C) faulty detector elements
    D) inefficient x-ray tubes on MDCT
    A) using filtered back projection on beam thickness over 20mm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  285. Which could result from partial volumizing?
    (1) decreased edge sharpness
    (2) ghosting of tissue boundaries
    (3) inaccurate CT numbers

    A) 2,3
    B) 1,2,3
    C) 1,3
    D) 1,2
    C) 1,3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  286. What results from a faulty detector element on a localizer image?

    A) parallel lines along the long axis of patient table
    B) 1 parallel line along the long axis of patient table
    C) circle artifacts on one side of the image
    D) perpendicular lines along the long axis of patient table
    B) 1 parallel line along the long axis of patient table
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  287. What would result if the aperture filter of the x-ray tube removed even more low energy x-ray photons?

    A) decreased partial voluming
    B) increased beam hardening
    C) increased beam hardening
    D) decreased beam hardening
    D) decreased beam hardening
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  288. What happens with decreased slice thickness?

    A) decreased partial voluming, patient dose, and edge gradient artifact
    B) decreased partial voluming and edge gradient artifact, but increasing patient dose
    C) increased partial voluming, patient dose, and edge gradient artifact
    D) decreased partial voluming, but increasing edge gradient and patient dose
    B) decreased partial voluming and edge gradient artifact, but increasing patient dose
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

Card Set Information

Author:
benice3r
ID:
325245
Filename:
MIC CT Registry Q
Updated:
2016-11-16 14:15:18
Tags:
MIC CT Registry
Folders:

Description:
CT Registry review for ARRT test
Show Answers:

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