P3K2 APU + Foul Wx + ECS

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  1. What has the largest impact on TIT when drawn from the APU?
    • 1/ Air Conditioning Bleed Air
    • 2/ Starting Bleed Air
    • 3/ Electrical Power (minimal on ground)
  2. What is the difference between Anti-Icing and De-icing?
    Anti-icing is designed to prevent ice forming on critical areas, while de-icing is designed to remove ice once it has already formed.
  3. Where is the Ice Detector located?
    Approximately the 5 o’clock position on the nose, just aft of the radome.
  4. What does the Ice Detector do to alert the pilot of ice formation?
    Illuminates the ICING advisory light on the bottom of the vertical annunciator panel. The detector then energises a heating element to de-ice the probe.
  5. How does the Ice Detector indicate the severity of the icing encountered?
    Frequency of the cycling will indicate the amount of ice build up. Long OFF periods would indicate slower build up.
  6. What are two scenarios where the ICING light may come on outside of icing conditions?
    • Stalling
    • High G manoeuvres
  7. How are the pitot heats anti-iced?
    Electrically – Pilots side pitot via Flight Ess AC Bus through a 28VAC step down transformer, Copilots side pitot via Forward Lighting Bus
  8. The pitot systems have their own built in overheat protection. TRUE/FALSE?
  9. What does the L HTR OUT light indicate?
    Electrical current flow to the Pilots side Pitot Heater has been interrupted.
  10. What does the DE-ICING master caution indicate?
    Alert or fault in the de-icing system or bomb bay heat. Could be a fault in any component in the icing system, directs attention to overhead control panel.
  11. All parts of the prop are de-iced. TRUE/FALSE?
    FALSE – The spinner is anti-iced, while the Cuffs, Skirts, and Islands are de-iced
  12. Which phase from MAIN AC BUS B powers each part of the prop de-ice system?
    • ØA – Spinners 1 & 4
    • ØB – Cuffs, Skirts and Islands
    • ØC – Spinners 2 & 3
  13. The prop de-ice switch is magnetically latched on in flight by a solenoid. TRUE/FALSE?
  14. The prop de-ice switch must be turned off within 3 minutes of landing to prevent element burnout. TRUE/FALSE?
    FALSE – The switch is automatically de-energised on touchdown by the scissor switch relay, although load monitoring will still occur if on single generator.
  15. The prop de-ice system is tested by running the elements for a shorter timeframe than in normal operation. TRUE/FALSE?
    FALSE – The prop de-ice is tested by applying a lower voltage (11VAC) to the system for ground and inflight testing.
  16. When using the ammeter to measure prop de-ice current in GRD TEST mode, will the deflection be the same as in ON? (Noting the system only uses 11VAC in test, rather than 115VAC)
    Yes (roughly). The system includes a dual primary coupling at the ammeter pick-ups to scale the current flow and display approximately the same load as normal operation.
  17. Where is the Prop De-Ice timer located, and what is its function?
    Located in the MELC, above the door. Controls the application of power to each cycled area.
  18. When the prop de-ice is switched off and then back on, does it start the cycle again, or resume from the point where it was interrupted?
    The timing sequence starts from the beginning again, with No. 1 Cuff, No. 1 Skirt and Islands and so on.
  19. How long is each prop segment powered for in the timing cycle? What is the sequence?
    • 20 seconds, although all spinners are constantly powered.
    • Sequenced as:
    • No. 1 Cuffs
    • No. 1 Skirt and Islands
    • No. 2 Cuffs
    • No. 2 Skirt and Islands
    • and so on…
  20. What are the operating Amp limits of each part of the prop de-ice, in flight and test modes?
    • Cuffs Skirts & Islands Spinners
    • Flight 51-72   63-82          76-100
    • Test   48-72   58-82          74-100
  21. What could cause a low reading in the test of the prop de-ice?
    Oil or a contaminant in the brush blocks. May be cleared by pulling the propeller through a couple of turns.
  22. What is the purpose of the empennage de-ice?
    Prevents or removes ice accumulating on the leading edges of the vertical and horizontal stabilisers.
  23. What is the difference in how the empennage parting strips and cycling strips are de-iced?
    Parting strips and heated continually during system operation (anti-iced), while cycling strips are heated one at a time during operation (de-iced)
  24. Where is the empennage de-ice timer unit located?
    Right rear of the galley
  25. How is the empennage de-ice tested?
    The timer motor runs at a faster speed to cycle through all sections for a shorter period of time to prevent element overheat.
  26. Where are the empennage de-ice overheat sensors located?
    One on the port horizontal stabiliser parting strip, one on the port hori-stab No. 1 cycling strip
  27. During stage two load monitoring, how can the empennage de-ice be used? What must be done to use the emp de-ice?
    • The Empennage De-Ice Override switch reactivates the emp de-ice.
    • Must manually monitor the following components:
    • Cabin Exhaust Fan
    • No. 1 and 2 Hydraulic Boost Pumps (Go boost out as 1A already monitored)
    • Three of the fuel boost pumps
    • All non-essential equipment
  28. What is the total cycle for the Empennage De-ice when ON, what is being powered, and what is being displayed?
    • Total Cycle: 176 seconds
    • Powers Parting Strips continuously, and cycles through the Cycling Strips at 8 second intervals
    • Displays parting strips for first 8 seconds (aux dead band), then cycles through each cycling strip (160sec) followed by starting/stopping dead band (8 sec)
  29. What is the total cycle for the Empennage De-ice when in TEST, what is being powered, and what is being displayed?
    • Total Cycle: 44 seconds
    • Powers Parting Strips for first 2 seconds ONLY, and cycles through the Cycling Strips at 2 second intervals
    • Displays parting strips for first 2 seconds (aux dead band), then cycles through each cycling strip (40sec) followed by starting/stopping dead band (2 sec)
  30. What is the difference between the Empennage TEST function on the ground, and in the air?
    On the ground, the parting strips are only energised for the first 2 seconds, then de-energised through the cycling strip test cycle. In flight, the parting strips remain on throughout the 44 second test cycle.
  31. What time period must pass between empennage de-ice tests?
    5 minutes
  32. What could be important to check prior to operating the Emp De-Ice on the ground?
    Ground-Air Sensing CB is set
  33. What could cause an EMP DE-ICE light to come on?
    Fault in Empennage De-Ice. Could be parting strip relay de-energised, cycling strip relay de-energised, control relay de-energised, timer motor failure, emp overheat condition (104°C ± 6), open power control CB
  34. What actions would you take if an EMP DE-ICE light came on?
    • Follow the checklist! Which says:
    • Turn switch OFF then ON again. If light extinguishes, it was a temporary overheat. If the light doesn’t extinguish, increase speed above 200kts and vacate the icing area.
  35. What are the three reasons for windshield heating?
    • Maximum strength for bird proofing
    • Keeps area free of ice for maximum visibility
    • Better windshield static discharge
  36. Which panel is the structural panel in the windshield?
    Middle layer.
  37. What power rating is applied to the windshield in LOW and HIGH?
    • LOW: 40%
    • HIGH: 100%
  38. LOW windshield heat keeps the windshield a cooler temperature than HIGH. TRUE/FALSE
    FALSE – just applies a lower power rating (40%) which would subsequently be on more often than HIGH, but provide less thermal shock.
  39. What are the two windshield heat systems?
    • Pilots window
    • Copilots window + Centre window
  40. What does the neon CYCLING windshield heat light indicate?
    Power is reaching the windshield
  41. It is -30°C outside in the middle of Canada. Windshield heat is selected on, but does not seem to be heating the windshield. Why is this, could there be something wrong with the windshield? How could I get it going?
    In extremely cold temperatures, the thermistor in the windshield is effectively an open circuit, and heating will not occur. Pushing the OVERRIDE button by-passes the thermistor, and windshield heating begins.
  42. When might HIGH windshield heat be used?
    • Ice forming on windshield
    • Icing is anticipated with OAT between 0°C and -25°C
    • Bird hazard present with OAT below 0°C
    • Descending into areas of high humidity
    • May be used at any time for defogging purposes provided low heat has been applied for a complete cycle.
  43. What is the most probably cause of the Side Windshield Heat FAIL light coming on?
    Windshield power relay or over heat control relay stuck in the energised position when switch is OFF. Pull the CBs
  44. What is the purpose of engine anti-ice?
    Prevent the formation of ice at the engine air inlet scoop and the inlet section of the engine
  45. What source of energy does engine anti-ice use? What result would turning it on have on the engine?
    14th stage bleed air. Increases fuel consumption by ~5%
  46. What areas are anti-iced in the engine?
    • Compressor Air Inlet
    • Air inlet housing leading edges
    • Inlet guide vanes
    • FCU temperature probe
    • Torquemeter Shroud
    • FCU pressure probe (by conduction)
    • Air Intake Duct
    • Air intake lip
    • Top of the inlet duct
  47. When do the engine ANTI-ICING lights come on?
    When 14th stage air of sufficient temperature (trip at approx. 93°C) has entered the inlet scoop and torquemeter shroud, tripping the two thermal switches (in series so both must trip to illuminate). This takes 60-90 seconds from switching ON
  48. Can loitered engines still be anti-iced by bleed air from another engine?
    No, supplied by own engine only.
  49. How long does it take for the engine ANTI-ICING lights to extinguish?
    3-5 minutes after turning OFF (due to the thermal switches having to cool down)
  50. When should the engine anti-ice be used for takeoff?
    In areas of high ambient moisture with OAT +8°C or lower
  51. If the Engine ANTI-ICING light is on with control switches OFF, what could be the cause?
    Abnormal heat in the area or loss of electrical power to the solenoid valve. Abnormal heat is much more serious as it could indicate a leak.
  52. If the Engine ANTI-ICING light is off with control switches ON, what could be the cause?
    One or both areas of the system may not be receiving hot air, or possibly a failure of one of the thermal switches.
  53. Why is the wing anti-ice used as a de-ice system?
    • High fuel burn penalty (500lb/hr)
    • If used as anti-ice, water could freeze behind the leading edge and be impossible to remove
  54. What temperatures do the wing anti-ice modulating valves attempt to maintain the leading edge?
    • Inboard and Centre: 49°C
    • Outboard: 63°C
  55. What does the L WING HOT light indicate?
    • Air temperature in the plenum are exceeds safe limits.
    • Inboard and Centre: 88°C
    • Outboard: 104°C
  56. What does the LE HOT light indicate?
    Wing leading edge skin temperature has increased in excess of 110°C. Possibly a stuck modulating valve.
  57. When will the bleed air valve light and Fus Bleed air Shutoff Valve light illuminate OPEN?
    Any time the valve is not closed.
  58. What does the FUS DUCT HOT light mean?
    Temperature in the vicinity of the cross ship manifold has reached 88°C, likely due to a leak.
  59. What is the purpose of bomb bay heat?
    To keep the MK46 torpedo otto fuel in a stable condition
  60. What temperature does the cycling thermostat maintain the bomb bay?
    3°C to 7°C
  61. What temperature will illuminate the bomb bay COLD and HOT lights?
    • COLD: -3 to +2°C
    • HOT: 54°C to 60°C
  62. What is important to note about the side windshield defogging system?
    Can take as long as 45 mins to become fully effective. If its use is anticipated, it should be turned on and left on for the remainder of the flight.
  63. Will the TEST function of the empennage de-ice cause load monitoring on a single generator?
  64. What are the foul weather protection systems in the P3K2? Are they De-Ice or Anti-Ice?
    • DE-ICE
    • Prop Cuffs, Skirts and Islands
    • Empennage Cycling Strips
    • Ice Detector heat
    • ANTI-ICE
    • Pitot Heat
    • Prop Spinners
    • Empennage Parting Strips
    • Windshield Heat
    • Engine Anti-Ice
    • Wing Anti-Ice (although employed as De-Ice)
  65. What are the two main services provided by the APU?
    • Bleed Air (for Bomb Bay Heat, Starting, and Ground Air Conditioning)
    • Electrical Power
  66. Can the APU provide bleed air in the air?
    No, ground only. Whenever the Inflight Arming Switch is in the ARM position, the Bleed Air is disabled.
  67. What is the pressure altitude limit for engine starting from the APU?
  68. What are the RPM limits of the APU, both on the ground and in the air?
    • Ground: 98-102%
    • Air: 98-103%
  69. What model is the P3K2 APU?
    GTCP 95-2
  70. What is the output frequency of the generator on the APU?
  71. What is the maximum operating altitude for the APU?
    20 000’
  72. What is the maximum airspeed for operating the APU?
    225 KIAS
  73. At what RPM does the APU auto-shutdown?
  74. What are the EGT limits for the APU?
    • Max Continuous: 649°C
    • Max 10 sec: 710°C
    • Max Peak: 715°C
  75. What APU RPM does the APU starter motor provide?
    22-25% if no light off
  76. What is the duty cycle on the APU starter?
    1 min on, 4 min off
  77. What is the function of the APU Air Override Switch?
    If both the EDCs and the APU are running, the aircraft defaults to using the APU for ground air conditioning when above 95%. The APU Air Override Switch forces the ground air conditioning to be supplied by the EDC air.
  78. What does the APU maintenance safety switch de-energise?
    • APU Doors
    • Start Control Relay
    • Fire Detection and Fire Extinguisher Release
  79. Is it possible to have the APU maintenance safety switch in the OFF position (ie. SAFE) with the access door closed?
    No, closing the door pushes the switch to the NORMAL position
  80. You are standing next to the APU maintenance safety switch and notice the APU has just caught fire. Trev suggests that you should flick the maintenance safety switch to OFF. Is this a good way to secure the APU?
    No. Turning the safety switch to OFF will render the fire protection system inoperative and prevent the doors from closing.
  81. Where does the APU receive its fuel from?
    The No. 2 engine fuel supplu line. Can be cross fed from other tanks.
  82. What is the rough fuel burn expected from the APU if utilising electrical load and air conditioning?
    300 lbs/hr
  83. How is the APU Fuel Solenoid Valve energised open?
    Energised open by Oil Pressure Sequence Switch through approximately 10% RPM
  84. How can the APU Fuel Solenoid Valve be de-energised?
    • APU Control Switch to OFF
    • 106% override switch
    • Maintenance Safety Switch
    • Fire detection – automatic
    • Fire extinguisher – manual
    • Low Oil Pressure
    • NLG Uplock Switch
    • Inflight-Arm switch to OFF
  85. What are the two ways the APU will shut off automatically?
    • Automatic fire detection
    • 106% overspeed
  86. What two sources can power the APU starter motor?
    • Main DC Bus Extension
    • Battery
  87. What are the 3 ways to energise the Ground Operation Bus and run the APU in flight?
    • Inflight Arming switch to ARM
    • Nose Gear uplock switch in NOT UP position
    • Pulling Ground Bus Relay CB
  88. What is the minimum fuel required in the No. 2 tank to run the APU?
  89. What two functions occur when the APU Control Switch is placed ON?
    • Intake and Exhaust doors open
    • DOORS light illuminates
  90. What EGT must the APU be below prior to securing?
  91. What functions occur when the APU switch is placed to START?
    APU starts and GEN OFF light illuminates
  92. What functions occur when the APU Inflight Arming switch is placed to ARM?
    • Ground Operation Bus relay de-energised, powering the GOB
    • ARMED light illuminates
  93. What functions occur when the APU switch is placed to OFF?
    • Fuel Solenoid Valve closes (RPM and EGT drop)
    • Doors close after 1 min
    • DOORS light extinguishes
  94. How can the APU be started if Main DC has failed?
    Would try to start from Main DC Bus Extn, but because it has failed it cant start. Pull Transformer Rectifier 3 CB to de-energise Mon Ess DC, which will result in the Power Sensing Circuit defaulting the the APU Essential Bus now being powered by the battery, and the battery will start the APU.
  95. What occurs if the APU automatic fire detection detects a fire?
    • Aural and Visual warnings
    • APU Fuel Solenoid Valve closes
    • APU Intake and Exhaust doors close
    • Fire Bottle Discharges when exhaust door closes or after 20 seconds
  96. What occurs if the APU manual fire release switch is pressed?
    Sequence is the same as the automatic release:
    Aural and Visual warnings
    APU Fuel Solenoid Valve closes
    APU Intake and Exhaust doors close
    Fire Bottle Discharges when exhaust door closes or after 20 seconds
  97. Why are the prop spinners anti-iced as opposed to de-iced like the rest of the prop?
    The centrifugal force on the spinner is not sufficient to throw ice clear of the inlet, hence prevention is a better option.
  98. If electrical power is lost, what will occur with respect to the engine anti-ice?
    The system will fail safe to ON, providing bleed air heating to the inlet scoop and air inlet section of the engine.
  99. What is the minimum battery voltage prior to starting the APU? Why is this?
    • 22 Volts.
    • This ensures the voltage is sufficient to activate the APU fire bottle release squibs in the event of an APU fire.
  100. What is the purpose of the APU maintenance safety switch?
    To disable the APU doors, starting and fire extinguishing systems to make the APU safe while in the hangar/being maintained.
  101. How can the APU be shut down from outside the aircraft and APU fire detection still be available?
    Shut down by pushing the the nose wheel uplock switch to closed.
  102. If a wing de-ice modulating valve was stuck open, what would you expect to see? How could you isolate it at the first stage?
    • LE HOT light (skin temp >110°C)
    • Master Caution DE-ICE
    • Eventually, if you left it, L/R WING HOT light.
    • Could be shut off by closing the individual section (ie. LH Wing, Outboard)
  103. What is the purpose of providing air conditioning?
    • Primarily for electronic equipment cooling
    • Crew comfort
    • A source of air for pressurisation
  104. What are the sources of air that can be used for air-con?
    • EDC’s
    • APU/Air multiplier
    • Ground Air-Con Cart
    • Aux Vent
  105. Which EDC provides which side of the aircrafts air con system?
    • No. 2 Engine EDC – RHS, 50/50 flight station air-con/cabin air-con
    • No. 3 Engine EDC – LHS. 100% cabin
  106. What are some of the EDC protective devices?
    • Oil PRESS LOW light
    • Oil TEMP HI light
    • Dump switch and valve
    • Disconnect switch
    • (internal) Surge control
    • (internal) Shear portion on drive shaft
    • (internal) Pressure ratio limiting/ice limiting
  107. When does the EDC ‘TEMP HI’ light come on?
    When the EDC oil temp exceeds 121°C
  108. How is the EDC oil cooled?
    Via the EDC oil to oil cooler. Uses cooled engine oil to maintain the EDC oil temp at about 85°C
  109. When does the EDC ‘PRESS LOW’ light come on?
    EDC oil pressure drops below 50psi
  110. If the EDC drive shaft sheared, what indications would you expect to see?
    • The same as a disconnected EDC:
    • ‘PRESS LOW’ light on
    • ‘PRESS SYS’ master caution
    • Nil spread
  111. If the impeller quill shaft sheared, what indications would you expect to see?
    Nil spread
  112. If the EDC is disconnected, what indications would you expect to see?
    • ‘PRESS LOW’ light on
    • ‘PRESS SYS’ master caution
    • Nil spread
    • Possible SHP drop (may not be seen in K2 due to EIDS sample rate)
  113. How is the EDC disconnected?
    Using the guarded and safety wired disconnect switch. Activates a solenoid actuated plunger which is spring loaded to engaged in a threaded portion of the drive shaft. Rotation then causes the shaft to be withdrawn back into the EDC disengaging the spline from the engine accessory drive. Cannot be reset airborne. Does not close EDC firewall shutoff valve or dump the EDC.
  114. The EDC disconnect switch disconnects the EDC physically, and:
    • A) Dumps the EDC
    • B) Closes the Firewall Shutoff Valve and dumps the EDC
    • C) Neither
  115. How is the EDC protected from unintential disconnection?
    The switch is guarded and safety wired.
  116. What state must the engine be in to guarantee a good disconnect?
    Must be in Normal RPM
  117. What is the purpose of the EDC inlet guide vanes/Flow Control Valves?
    Maintains a constant volumetric flow of air into and hence out of the EDC throughout the altitude range (ie. changing pressure and density)
  118. When would the EDC inlet guide vanes (flow control valves) be most closed? When are they fully open?
    Most closed on the ground/at low altitude. Fully open at 20000’
  119. What is the purpose of EDC surge control?
    Prevent any back pressure from causing compressor surges or stalls which could cause the drive to shear. Regulates dumping of EDC air in order the reduce backpressure.
  120. What situations cause the EDC to dump?
    • Selecting DUMP on the control panel
    • Selecting AUX VENT to OPEN
    • Automatically dumps on landing through Ground-Air Sensing
    • REFR OVHT on the ground
    • E Handle pulled
  121. What is the maximum acceptable spread on the Inlet/Discharge pressure gauge? What about the maximum discharge pressure?
    • Max spread: 34 in Hg.
    • Max disch press: 64 in Hg.
  122. What does the PRESS SYS master caution annunciator indicate?
    Some form of pressurisation caution. Check overhead annunciators
  123. When would a switch be lock wired?
    If unintentional switching would cause a problem and its action is irreversible.
  124. Where are the majority of the air conditioning system components located?
    Nose wheel well
  125. What will occur with the ground air con switch when the aircraft gets airborne?
    A) Remains in the ON position, but the APU stops providing bleed air.
    B) Automatically returns to OFF position.
    C) Remains in the ON position, APU provides bleed air until winds down below 95%, where the EDC picks up the load.
    B) Automatically returns to OFF position.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  126. What does the REFR OVHT light indicate?
    An overheat of 165°C has occurred in the compressor outlet of the Refrigeration unit. Also illuminates the PRESS SYS master caution
  127. What does the FAN OUT light indicate?
    The differential pressure across the cabin exhaust fan is low, suggesting the Cabin Exhaust Fan has failed. In flight, the pressurisation may provide enough flow to keep the light extinguished even in the event of a cabin exhaust fan failure.
  128. What is the function of the water separators?
    Removes water from the airflow that has accrued from the cooling, expansion and condensation process of the refrigeration units. Also controls humidity.
  129. How does the water spray system work?
    Collects water from the water separators and sprays it onto the secondary heat exchangers, aiding the cooling process through evaporation.
  130. How does the ice limiting system detect ice formation in the separator?
    Monitors the pressure drop across the water separator.
  131. What are the three ice limiting modes, what pressure do they operate at, and what do they do?
    • Green Range: Normal operation, no icing.
    • Yellow Range: Water separator Press Diff exceeds 2.9 in Hg. Valve A is prevented from closing. If sufficient to reduce the PD to 1.8 in Hg, re-enters Green Range.
    • Red Range: PD reached 4.1 in Hg. Valve A is signalled to open fully until the PF reduces to 3.1 in Hg where it enters the yellow range, which continues the downward trend until the green range is achieved.
  132. Ice limiting works in both Auto and Manual operation. TRUE/FALSE?
  133. What are some of the protection systems for the Air Multiplier Package?
    • Pressure Regulator and Shutoff Valve (Controls AMP turbine speed)
    • Pressure Switch
    • Thermal Switch (163°C)
  134. What is the purpose of the Air Multiplier Package?
    Supplements APU bleed air, as the pressure and temperature is too high and the flow rate too low for the air con units.
  135. What would cause the AMP to shut down?
    • APU drops below 95% RPM
    • APU air override selected
    • Aux Vent selected
    • Engine start selector away from OFF
    • AMP overheat
    • AMP compressor inlet blocked
  136. Which temperature control valves supply which air temp?
    • Valve A – Warm Air (Ahhh)
    • Valve B – Cold Air (Brrr)
    • Valve C – Hot Air (Cooking)
  137. What is the range of manual temperature control available through the air conditioning system?
    Below zero to 93°C (Caution: In manual mode, duct temperature must not be permitted to fall below 5°C or damage to the aircraft may result
  138. With respect to ECS, what functions occur as a result of scissor switch compression?
    • Aux Vent Opens
    • EDC dumps and firewall shutoff valve closes
    • Outflow Valve opens
  139. How is air from a ground air conditioning cart prevented from escaping out the Aux Vent?
    A microswitch in the attachment closes the Aux Vent whenever a ground air con cart is connected.
  140. What are the 3 basic modes of operation of the pressurisation controller?
    • Rate Control – Where the rate of cabin altitude change is controlled independent to that of the aircraft
    • Isobaric Control – Where a selected cabin altitude is maintained below that of the aircraft
    • Differential Control – Where the maximum pressure differential is reached and maintained.
  141. Convert a QNH of 1019 to in Hg.
    • 1016 = 30.00
    • 1019 (ie. +3) = 30.00 + (3x0.03)
    • 1019 = 30.09
  142. Convert a QNH of 1012 to in Hg
    • 1016 = 30.00
    • 1012 = 29.88
  143. What is the function of the pressurisation ground test switch?
    Bypasses the function of the scissor switch allowing pressurisation tests on the ground
  144. What are the max diffs for 01-05 and for 06?
    • NZ4201-05: 11.1 to 11.7 in Hg
    • NZ4206: 13.3 to 13.9 in Hg
  145. In what direction is the outflow valve spring loaded?
  146. When will the CABIN PRESS light illuminate and extinguish?
    When the pressure in the cabin is equivalent to a pressure altitude of 10 300’±300’. Extinguishes at 9500’±500’. Also illuminates PRESS SYS master caution
  147. When does the safety relief valve operate?
    • NZ4201-05: 11.7 to 12.2 in Hg
    • NZ4206: 13.9 to 14.4 in Hg
  148. What differential must the cabin be below to open the pyro pistol door?
    9 in Hg
  149. What is the negative pressure relief valve and where is it located?
    Located in the centre of the aft pressure bulkhead, a flapper type inwards relief valve prevents a negative pressure differential building up at any stage.
  150. If the outflow valve CB popped in flight, would the pressurisation still work?
    Yes, pneumatic operation of the outflow valve still works, provided it wasn’t electrically held open or closed. If it was held electrically, it will remain in that position and be unable to move pneumatically.
  151. With the APU air override switch off, what is happening with the air to the aircraft with engines running on the ground?
    APU providing all air to the environmental systems. The EDCs will be dumped.
  152. How is the outflow valve opened by the scissor switch?
    Electrically, using the kidney slot.
  153. What does the EDC spread gauge display?
    • Input air pressure to the EDC
    • Discharge air pressure from the EDC
  154. What sources of air can be cooled by the primary heat exchanger?
    APU/AMP air, EDC air
  155. Which of the following actions will NOT dump the EDC?
    A) Aux Vent Closed
    B) Gnd Air Conditioning Off
    C) E Handle Pulled
    A) Selecting Aux Vent Closed will not dump the EDC. Selecting open will however dump the EDC.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  156. If control of the outflow valve is lost in flight, what will happen to the aircraft pressurisation?
    The outflow valve will close by spring pressure, allowing the aircraft to pressurise(/remain pressurised). Excessive differential will be relieved by the safety relief valve.
  157. Which of pneumatics/electrical power has overriding control of the outflow valve?
    Electrical, via the kidney slot.
  158. When the outflow valve is in the neutral position, how does the kidney slot sit?
    Sits in neutral position, allowing pneumatics to control pressurisation.
  159. With the engines and APU running on the flight line, Ground Aircon ON and APU Oride OFF, what position are the EDC firewall shutoff valve, dump valve, and APU/AMP valve (Pressure Regulator and Shutoff Valve) in?
    • FWSOV: Closed
    • Dump Valve: Open
    • APU/AMP Valve: Open
  160. What is the service ceiling for the P3K2?
    • NZ4201-05: 29 000’
    • NZ4206: 35 000’
  161. What provides the centre windshield with windshield heat?
    The copilots system, powered by Mon Ess AC
Card Set:
P3K2 APU + Foul Wx + ECS
2016-11-17 07:25:57

APU, Foul Weather, and ECS
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