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  1. Whenever you’re using the nasal cannula what flow are you going to use?Unheated bubble humidifiers are of limited effectiveness at flows above which of the following?

    I. 4 L/min
    II. 6 L/min
    III. 8 L/min
    IV. 10 L/min
    10L/min
  2. In general, to deliver oxygen to the upper airway, a bubble humidifier is required only when the gas flow exceeds which of the following?

    a.1 L/min
    b.2 L/min
    c.3 L/min
    d.4 L/min
    4L/min
  3. Simple unheated bubble humidifiers are commonly used to humidify gases with what type of systems?

    a.mechanical ventilation
    b.oronasal oxygen delivery
    c.tracheal oxygen airway
    d.aerosol drug delivery
    Oronasal oxygen delivery
  4. A patient receiving nasal oxygen at 3 L/min complains of nasal dryness and irritation. Which of the following actions would be appropriate?

    a.recommending that the flow be decreased to 2 L/min
    b.adding a humidifier to the delivery system
    c.recommending that the flow be increased to 4 L/min
    d.switching to a simple mask at 3 L/min
    Adding a humidifier to the delivery system.
  5. For which of the following patients might you recommend bland aerosol therapy administration?

    1.patient with upper airway edema
    2.patient with a bypassed upper airway
    3.patient who must provide a sputum specimen

    a.1, 2, and 3
    b.2 and 3
    c.1 and 2
    d.1 and 3
    1, 2, & 3
  6. How often would you recommend that a home care patient disinfect a home ultrasonic room humidifier?

    a.per manufacturer’s specifications, or at least every day
    b.per manufacturer’s specifications, or at least every 3 days
    c.per manufacturer’s specifications, or at least every 6 days
    d.per manufacturer’s specifications, or at least every 2 weeks
    Per manufacturer's specifications, or at least every 6 days
  7. What is the primary goal of humidity therapy?

    a.decrease airway reactivity to cold
    b.maintain normal physiologic conditions
    c.deliver drugs to the airway
    d.reduce upper airway inflammation
    Maintain normal physiologic conditions
  8. Indications for warming inspired gases include all of the following except:

    a.treating a patient whose airways are reactive to cold
    b.providing humidification when the upper airway is bypassed
    c.treating a patient with a low body temperature (hypothermia)
    d.reducing upper airway inflammation or swelling
    Reducing upper airway inflammation or swelling.
  9. For which of the following patients would you NOT recommend bland aerosol therapy administration?

    I. patient with a history of airway hyperresponsiveness
    II. patient with a bypassed upper airway
    III. patient with active bronchoconstriction

    a.1, 2, and 3
    b.2 and 3
    c.1 and 2
    d.1 and 3
    1 & 3
  10. Administration of dry gases at flows exceeding 4 L/min can cause which of the following? structural damage heat loss water loss

    a.1 and 2
    b.2 and 3
    c.1 and 3
    d.1, 2, and 3
    1, 2 and 3
  11. Clinical indications for delivering cool humidified gas include which of the following?

    I. post-extubation edema
    II. upper airway inflammation
    III. croup (laryngotracheal bronchitis)
    IV.  epiglottitis

    a.2, 3, and 4
    b.1, 2, and 3
    c.1, 2, 3, and 4
    d.2 and 3
    1, 2, 3, and 4
  12. Which of the following types of humidifiers are used in clinical practice?

    heat-moisture exchanger
    passover humidifier
    bubble humidifier

    a.1 and 2
    b.2 and 3
    c.1 and 3
    d.1, 2, and 3
    1, 2, and 3
  13. Simple unheated bubble humidifiers are commonly used to humidify gases with what type of systems?

    a.mechanical ventilation
    b.oronasal oxygen delivery
    c.tracheal oxygen airway
    d.aerosol drug delivery  ANS:  B
    Oronasal oxygen delivery
  14. What is the goal of using an unheated bubble humidifier with oronasal oxygen delivery systems?

    a.Raise the humidity of the gas to ambient levels.
    b.Fully saturate the inspired gas to body temperature, ambient pressure, saturated (BTPS) conditions.
    c.Cool the gas down to below room temperature.
    d.Fully saturate the inspired gas to ambient temperature, ambient pressure, saturated (ATPS) conditions.
    Raise the humidity of the gas to ambient levels
  15. What is the typical water vapor output of an unheated bubble humidifier?

    a.5 to 10 mg/L
    b.10 to 15 mg/L
    c.15 to 20 mg/L
    d.20 to 25 mg/L
    15 - 20 mg/L
  16. Unheated bubble humidifiers are of limited effectiveness at flows above which of the following?

    a.4 L/min
    b.6 L/min
    c.8 L/min
    d.10 L/min
    10 L/min
  17. Which type of humidifier “traps” the patient’s body heat and expired water vapor to raise the humidity of inspired gas?

    a.membrane
    b.bubble
    c.heat-moisture exchanger
    d.passover
    HME
  18. Heat-moisture exchangers (HMEs) are mainly used to do what?

    a.warm and humidify gases delivered to the trachea via ventilator circuits
    b.humidify therapeutic gases delivered at high flows to the lower airway
    c.provide extra humidity for a patient with thick or retained secretions
    d.warm and humidify dry therapeutic gases delivered to the upper airway
    Warm and humidigy gases delivered to the trachea via ventilator circuits.
  19. An ideal heat-moisture exchanger (HME) should have an efficiency rating of at least which of the following?

    a.30%
    b.50%
    c.70%
    d.90%
    90%
  20. A patient receiving ventilatory support is being provided with humidification using a heat-moisture exchanger (HME). A physician orders a bronchodilator drug administered through a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) via the ventilator circuit. Which of the following must be performed to ensure delivery of the drug to the patient?

    a.The inspiratory flow setting of the ventilator should be increased.
    b.The HME must be removed from the circuit during MDI use.
    c.The VT setting of the ventilator should be decreased.
    d.A heated humidifier should replace the HME when using the MDI.
    The HME must be removed from the circuit during MDI use.
  21. All of the following are features of an ideal heat-moisture exchanger (HME) except:

    a.high compliance
    b.minimal dead space
    c.70% or higher efficiency
    d.minimal flow resistance
    High compliance
  22. All of the following are true of heat-moisture exchangers (HMEs) except:

    a.Moisture output falls at high volumes and rates of breathing.
    b.High inspiratory flows and high FIO2 values can decrease HME efficiency.
    c.In-use HMEs have little effect on flow resistance to breathing.
    d.HMEs reduce bacterial colonization of ventilator circuits.
    In-use HMEs have little effect on flow resistance to breathing.
  23. Which of the following are types of heat-moisture exchangers (HMEs)?

    simple condenser
    hygroscopic condenser
    hydrophobic condenser

    a.1 and 2
    b.2 and 3
    c.1, 2, and 3
    d.3
    1, 2, and 3
  24. All of the following are potential hazards of using heat-moisture exchangers except:

    a.failure of low-pressure alarms to detect disconnection
    b.underhydration or impaction of secretions
    c.hypoventilation due to increased dead space
    d.unintended tracheal lavage from condensate
    unintended tracheal lavage from condensate
  25. When is a heat-moisture exchanger (HME) performing well?

    a.Condensate appears in the attached flex tube.
    b.No condensate is visible on the filter or insert.
    c.The HME temperature is at least 40° C.
    d.Condensate is visible on the filter or insert.
    Condensate appears in the attached flex tube.
  26. All of the following are contraindications for heat-moisture exchangers except:

    a.presence of thick, copious, or bloody secretions
    b.presence of a large leak around artificial airway
    c.when a patient is suffering from hyperpyrexia
    d.when a patient’s minute ventilation exceeds 10 L/min
    When a patient is suffering from hyperpyrexia
  27. How often should heat-moisture exchangers be inspected and replaced?

    a.at least every shift
    b.when contaminated by secretions
    c.at least every day
    d.when condensate is visible
    When contaminated by secretions
  28. Specific clinical objectives of oxygen (O2) therapy include which of the following?

    I. decrease the symptoms caused by chronic hypoxemia
    II. decrease the workload hypoxemia imposes on the heart and lungs
    III. correct documented arterial hypoxemia

    a.1 and 2
    b.2 and 3
    c.1 and 3
    d.1, 2, and 3
    1, 2, and 3
  29. Properly applied O2 therapy can decrease which of the following? ventilatory demand work of breathing cardiac output

    a.2 and 3
    b.1 and 2
    c.1, 2, and 3
    d.1 and 3
    1, 2, and 3
  30. Benefits of properly applied O2 therapy in patients with chronic hypoxemia include all of the following except:

    a.reversal of pulmonary vasoconstriction
    b.relief of pulmonary hypertension
    c.decreased right ventricular workload
    d.improved pulmonary using capacity
    improved pulmonary using capacity
  31. Which of the following would indicate a need for O2 therapy for an adult or child?

    SaO2 less than 90%
    PaCO2 greater than 45 mm Hg
    PaO2 less than 60 mm Hg

    a.2 and 3
    b.1 and 2
    c.1, 2, and 3
    d.1 and 3
    1 and 3
  32. When determining a need for O2 therapy, the respiratory therapist should assess which of the following? neurologic status pulmonary status cardiac status

    a.1 and 2
    b.2 and 3
    c.1 and 3
    d.1, 2, and 3
    1, 2, and 3
  33. Which of the following signs and symptoms are associated with the presence of hypoxemia? tachypnea tachycardia cyanosis bradycardia

    a.2 and 3
    b.1 and 2
    c.1, 2, and 3
    d.1 and 4
    1, 2, and 3
  34. What is/are the primary organ system(s) affected by O2 toxicity? central nervous system (CNS) lungs kidneys

    a.1
    b.1 and 3
    c.1 and 2
    d.1, 2, and 3
    1 and 3
  35. Which of the following is consistent with the radiographic appearance after prolonged exposure to O2?

    a.air bronchograms
    b.pulmonary abscess
    c.patchy infiltrates
    d.pneumothorax  ANS:  C
    Patchy infiltrates
  36. Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) is a potentially serious management problem mainly in the care of whom?

    a.premature or low-birth-weight infants
    b.cystic fibrosis patients
    c.children with asthma
    d.patients with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)  ANS:  A
    Premature or low birth-weight infants
  37. To minimize the risk of retinopathy of prematurity (ROP), the American Academy of Pediatrics recommends keeping the PaO2 below what level?

    a.60 mm Hg
    b.70 mm Hg
    c.80 mm Hg
    d.90 mm Hg
    80 mm Hg
  38. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving heated water aerosol treatments through a jet nebulizer four times daily as a supplement to other bronchial hygiene measures designed to aid in mobilizing retained secretions. After each session, you notice the presence of moderate wheezing. Which of the following recommendations would you make to the physician?

    a.Discontinue the heated water aerosol treatments.
    b.Consider prior treatment with a bronchodilator.
    c.Switch to a higher-density aerosol (e.g., ultrasonic).
    d.Discontinue the other bronchial hygiene measures.
    Consider prior treatment with a bronchodilator.
  39. Which of the following factors should be used in properly selecting an O2 delivery device?

    I. knowledge of general performance of the device
    II. physician’s preference
    III. individual capabilities of the equipment

    a.2 and 3
    b.1 and 2
    c.1, 2, and 3
    d.1 and 3
    1 and 3
  40. Low-flow O2 delivery systems used in respiratory care include all of the following except:

    a.nasal O2 cannula
    b.nasal O2 catheter
    c.air-entrainment mask
    d.transtracheal catheter
    Air-entrainment mask
  41. Which of the following are advantages of the nasal cannula as a low-flow O2 delivery system?

    stability
    low cost
    easy application
    disposability

    a.2 and 4
    b.1, 2, and 4
    c.2, 3, and 4
    d.1, 2, 3, and 4
    2, 3 and 4
  42. Which of the following is considered an advantage of the transtracheal catheter?

    a.It does not provide any economic benefit compared with the nasal cannula.
    b.It decreases the anatomic reservoir.
    c.It requires 40% to 60% less O2 flow than the nasal cannula.
    d.It requires higher flows than the nasal cannula.  ANS:  C
    It requires 40% to 60% less O2 flow than the nasal cannula
  43. Which of the following factors will decrease the FIO2 delivered by a low-flow O2 system?

    I. short inspiratory time
    II. fast rate of breathing
    III. lower O2 input
    IV. large minute ventilation

    a.2 and 4
    b.1, 2, and 3
    c.3 and 4
    d.1, 2, 3, and 4  ANS:  D
    1, 2, 3, and 4
  44. A 27-year-old woman received from the emergency department is on a nasal cannula at 5 L/min. Approximately what FIO2 is this patient receiving?

    a.28%
    b.32%
    c.35%
    d.40%
    40%
  45. You enter the room of a patient who is receiving nasal O2 through a bubble humidifier at 5 L/min. You immediately notice that the humidifier pressure relief is popping off. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate in this situation?

    a.Check and tighten all connections.
    b.Replace the humidifier with a new one.
    c.Look for crimped or twisted delivery tubing.
    d.Decrease the flow rate to 2 L/min.
    Look for crimped or twisted delivery
  46. Disadvantages of standard O2 masks include all of the following except:

    a.being difficult to apply to patients
    b.patient discomfort (straps and heat)
    c.increasing the risk of aspiration
    d.must be removed for eating
    Being difficult to apply to patients
  47. A physician orders 2 L/min O2 through a simple mask to a 33-year-old postoperative woman with moderate hypoxemia breathing room air (PaO2 = 52 mm Hg). What would be the correct action at this time?

    a.Carry out the physician’s prescription exactly as written.
    b.Recommend that the mask be changed to a cannula at 2 L/min.
    c.Recommend a flow of at least 5 L/min to wash out carbon dioxide (CO2).
    d.Do not apply the O2 until the medical director has been contacted.  ANS:  C
    Recommend a flow of at least 5 L/min to wash out carbon dioxide
  48. What is the minimum flow setting for a simple mask applied to an adult?

    a.3 L/min
    b.5 L/min
    c.8 L/min
    d.10 L/min
    5 L/min
  49. A 52-year-old man is admitted to the hospital emergency department with a primary complaint of severe radiating chest pain and signs of central cyanosis. The attending asks for your advice on selecting a device that provides a moderate FIO2 for this patient. Which of the following would you recommend?

    a.simple O2 mask at 8 L/min
    b.air-entrainment mask at 40% O2
    c.nasal cannula at 5 L/min
    d.nonrebreathing mask at 10 L/min
    Simple O2 mask at 8 L/min
  50. A physician orders supplemental O2 for a patient through a nasal cannula at a flow of 12 L/min. When you ask what the goal is, the physician states that the patient should receive about 60% O2. Which of the following should you recommend?

    a.The O2 should be given through a reservoir mask at 10 L/min.
    b.The cannula flow should be set to 15 instead of 12 L/min.
    c.The O2 should be given through a simple mask set at 5 to 12 L/min.
    d.The O2 should be given through a simple mask set at 12 to 15 L/min.
    The O2 should be given through a simple mask set at 5 to 12 L/min.
  51. A well-fitted nonrebreathing mask, adjusted so that the patient’s inhalation does not deflate the bag (flows approximately 10 L/min), should provide inspired O2 concentrations in what range?

    a.55% to 70%
    b.45% to 60%
    c.75% to 90%
    d.70% to 85%
    55% - 70%
  52. You must deliver the highest possible FIO2 to a 67-year-old man with pulmonary edema breathing at a rate of 35/min. Which of the following O2 delivery systems would be most appropriate?

    a.nonrebreathing mask at 12 to 15 L/min
    b.simple mask at 12 to 15 L/min
    c.partial rebreathing mask at 12 to 15 L/min
    d.aerosol mask with nebulizer set to 100%
    nonrebreathing mask at 12 to 15 L/min
  53. A patient is receiving O2 through a nonrebreathing mask set at 8 L/min. You notice that the mask’s reservoir bag collapses completely before the end of each inspiration. Which of the following actions is appropriate in this case?

    a.Change to a partial rebreather.
    b.Decrease the liter flow.
    c.Increase the liter flow.
    d.Change to a simple mask.
    Increase the liter flow
  54. A true high-flow O2 delivery system should provide at least what flow?

    a.60 L/min
    b.50 L/min
    c.40 L/min
    d.30 L/min
    60 L/min
  55. Which of the following is FALSE about air-entrainment systems?

    a.Their FIO2 values are directly proportional to their total flow.
    b.They can provide variable FIO2 values under some clinical conditions.
    c.They always deliver O2 concentrations less than 100%.
    d.They yield a set FIO2 only if their flow exceeds the patient’s.
    Their FIO2 values are directly proportional to their total flow.
  56. Which of the following factors determine the actual O2 provided by an air-entrainment system?

    I. O2 input flow to the jet
    II. air-to-O2 ratio of the device
    III. resistance downstream from the jet

    a.2 and 3
    b.1 and 2
    c.1, 2, and 3
    d.1 and 3
    2 and 3
  57. A patient receiving 35% O2 through an air-entrainment mask set at 6 L/min input flow becomes tachypneic. Simultaneously, you notice that the SpO2 has fallen from 91% to 87%. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate in this situation?

    a.Switch the patient to a 40% air-entrainment mask.
    b.Increase the device’s input flow to 10 L/min.
    c.Switch the patient to a 28% air-entrainment mask.
    d.Decrease the device’s input flow to 4 L/min.
    Increase the device’s input flow to 10 L/min.
  58. You note that the air intake ports surrounding the jet of a 35% air-entrainment mask are partially obstructed by the patient’s bedding. Which of the following would you expect?

    I. decrease in the device’s total output flow II. increase in the percent O2 delivered by the device
    III. change in the FIO2 received by the patient

    a.1 and 2
    b.2 and 3
    c.1 and 3
    d.1, 2, and 3
    1 and 2
  59. A physician orders 40% O2 through an air-entrainment nebulizer for a patient with a minute volume of 12 L/min. What is the minimum nebulizer input flow required to ensure the prescribed FIO2?

    a.8 L/min
    b.10 L/min
    c.12 L/min
    d.14 L/min
    10 L/min
  60. What is the maximum FIO2 expected to be delivered by most air-entrainment masks?

    a.30%
    b.40%
    c.50%
    d.60%
    50%
  61. Which of the following are components of a typical O2 blender?

    I. precision metering device or mixture control
    II. audible dual low-pressure alarm system III. pressure regulating and equalizing valves IV. variable-size air-entrainment port

    a.2 and 4
    b.1, 2, and 3
    c.3 and 4
    d.1, 3, and 4
    1, 2, and 3
  62. To confirm proper operation of an O2 blending system, what should you do?

    I. Test low-pressure alarms and bypass systems.
    II. Analyze FIO2 at 0.21, 1.00, and prescribed level.
    III. Confirm air and O2 inlet pressures.

    a.1 and 2
    b.2 and 3
    c.1 and 3
    d.1, 2, and 3
    1, 2, and 3
  63. What are some key patient considerations in selecting O2 therapy equipment?

    I. type of airway (natural or artificial)
    II. severity and cause of the hypoxemia
    III. age group (infant, child, adult)
    IV. stability of the minute ventilation

    a.2 and 4
    b.1, 2, and 3
    c.3 and 4
    d.1, 2, 3, and 4  ANS:  D
    1, 2, 3, and 4
  64. A patient receiving 3 L/min O2 through a nasal cannula has a measured SpO2 of 93% and no clinical signs of hypoxemia. At this point, what should you recommend?

    a.decreasing the flow to 2 L/min and rechecking the SpO2
    b.maintaining the therapy as is and rechecking the SpO2 on the next shift
    c.increasing the flow to 4 L/min and rechecking the SpO2
    d.discontinuing the O2 therapy
    decreasing the flow to 2 L/min and rechecking the SpO2

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Motherfucking test bitch
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2016-11-16 05:38:27
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