self test b set

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  1. What is the purpose of the ALCM electrical power system?
    Supply power to missile components during all phases of operation.
  2. What type of battery is used in the ALCM?
    Dual-section thermal battery.
  3. Describe how the battery output voltage is generated.
    A firetrack melts the electrolyte, which reacts with the cell plates to generate the 28-VDC output.
  4. How is an expended battery identified?
    The battery’s temperature-sensitive paint is black.
  5. What keeps the generator/regulator cool during free-flight?
    Ram air.
  6. What condition must the generator be in during the engine startup sequence?
  7. What is the function of the J-box?
    To receive carrier power or air vehicle power, isolate that power, and distribute it to the missile equipment.
  8. The UEA serves what function or purpose?
    It provides an electrical interface connection to the pylon/launcher (or ESTS during testing); distribution of power and signals to other components; separation of signal categories; and cable shield termination.
  9. What purpose does the rotary switch serve after aircraft power is applied to the missile?
    It isolates electrical power between the power source and the EEDs and warhead until launch.
  10. What must be done to open the rotary switch contacts?
    Insert the detent pin into the switch.
  11. During levels I and II checkout, through what connector is main bus power supplied?
    The ESTS/missile connection at the generator/voltage regulator.
  12. Where is the AC power from the carrier aircraft primarily used in the missile?
    INE and instrumentation kit heaters.
  13. Why is 28-VDC power from the carrier HYDTRs supplied to the missile during launch countdown?
    For testing the flight control actuators and fuel pump prior to launch.
  14. What is the purpose of the SAF system?
    To provide positive control over the warhead arming and fuzing.
  15. The operation of the rotary switch centers around what SAF function?
    Power source isolation from the warhead.
  16. What purpose does the UEA serve in the SAF system?
    Provides power distribution, separation of signal categories, and shielding termination for EMP/EMI purposes.
  17. How is the WAD safed?
    Electrically from the aircraft or manually by inserting the safing pin.
  18. What is significant about the positioning of the impact fuze in the nose cap assembly?
    It ensures the missile is only functional through angles of impact with the ground of 15?90°.
  19. What role does the INE play in the SAF system?
    It sequences the arming and fuzing commands, enable signals, and activate commands.
  20. What is the purpose of the ESD words?
    To ensure the proper sequencing of events takes place during missile free-flight before initiating the warhead arming commands.
  21. How many events make up an ESD word?
    A parent word plus 15 events.
  22. When do the SAFE/ARM switch contacts first close in the arming device?
    When the arm enable command is first applied and remain closed throughout the remainder of the flight.
  23. Why is an ALCM warhead arming maneuver required and how often does this event take place?
    To ensure that missile free-flight has been established; twice.
  24. What type of turns make up the arming maneuver?
    Controlled “S” turns that are planned as part of the mission profile.
  25. How does the airburst terminal maneuver differ from the ground burst?
    Instead of detonating the warhead in a climb maneuver, the INE commands the missile to dive.
  26. How does the turbo-compressor cool forward ECS air?
    By expansion through the turbine section of the air-cycle machine.
  27. What purpose is served by the check valve located in the turbo-compressor (air-cycle machine)?
    It isolates the engine and aft ECS from the forward ECS during ground checkout and captive carry, while simultaneously serving as a seal to prevent contamination or overpressurization of the aft ECS.
  28. What is the purpose of the turbine bypass valve?
    To ensure proper cooling of the INE.
  29. When does the forward ECS reach its maximum temperature?
    During missile warmup only.
  30. Where does the forward ECS cooling air originate during missile free-flight?
    From the number 2 engine compressor bleed port.
  31. During free-flight, where does heated forward ECS air exit the missile?
    The boattail annulus.
  32. What units are cooled by the aft ECS during engine free-light?
    Generator/regulator and engine.
  33. Name the units that make up the aft ECS.
    Engine inlet and air inlet temperature-sensor tube extension.
  34. What type of air is used for the aft ECS?
    Ram air ducted from the engine inlet.
  35. What is passive cooling in terms of the ALCM missile?
    Conduction or heat transfer from one surface to another.
  36. What is the purpose of the engine desiccant system?
    To hermetically seal the engine and provide a moisture-free environment.
  37. Why is a plug provided with the engine inlet seal?
    To seal the ram air inlet for ground and captive-carry phases of operation.
  38. What seals the gap between the engine tailpipe and the desiccant assembly?
    The engine desiccant seal.
  39. Why must one take care when handling the engine desiccant seal?
    To prevent damaging the thin protective coating.
  40. How is the desiccant assembly deployed at launch?
    The INE fires the dual-initiators in the expanding tube shearing the desiccant assembly pins, thus releasing the inner ring from the outer ring. Once the engine starts, it “blows” the desiccant assembly and inner ring from the missile.
  41. What is the main purpose of the FCAT system?
    To provide fuel to the engine.
  42. How is the fuel tank pressurized?
    Engine bleed air is ducted to TANK 1 through the bleed-air check valve and a squib-operated air supply valve.
  43. What fuel cell is filled last during fueling?
    TANK 1.
  44. Which fuel tank forms the payload bay or picklefork assembly?
    TANK 1.
  45. What is the probability of fuel movement as fuel quantity decreases in the fuel cells?
    Fuel movement increases drastically.
  46. What is the purpose of the negative “g” sumps?
    Ensure fuel remains around the surface tension screens during negative “g” maneuvers.
  47. Why is magnetic coupling used between the pump and pump motor?
    It eliminates the need of a dynamic seal and the possibility of fuel leakage.
  48. Why is an AC-type pump motor preferred over a DC-type motor?
    It improves reliability and eliminates problems associated with DC brush-type motors.
  49. What is the function of the fuel pump electronic unit?
    It converts 28-VDC missile power to 24-VAC, two-phase, 490-Hz power to run the fuel pump motor.
  50. What is the function of the dual bleed-air check valve?
    Ensures one-way flow of pressurizing engine bleed-air into the fuel tank.
  51. How is the air supply/service valve used during ground fueling operations?
    As a vent or purge connection.
  52. Why are all fuel servicing valves capped?
    To prevent contamination and to provide a second seal to eliminate leakage during storage.
  53. What is fuel tank ullage?
    The amount that a tank lacks of being full.
  54. What valve has its squib initiator installed only prior to a test launch?
    The fuel supply/range safety/service valve.
  55. Why are the engine high-pressure and low-pressure spools rotated in opposite directions?
    To minimize gyroscopic and shaft vibration effects.
  56. What units are driven off the engine gearbox drives?
    Engine lube and scavenge pump, fuel controller, ignition exciter alternator, and generator.
  57. Which engine mounts are adjustable?
    The right engine mount and aft engine mount (hanger), located at the top center of the exhaust nozzle.
  58. What must be done to the rubber O-ring installed between the engine and inlet duct each time the engine is removed?
    It must be removed and replaced.
  59. What unit uses the output from the ram-air temperature sensor?
    The engine fuel controller.
  60. What type of fuel pump is contained in the fuel controller?
    Two-stage, high-pressure pump.
  61. How many fuel filters are contained in the engine fuel system? Which ones are contained within the fuel controller?
    Three; primary and secondary.
  62. What is the purpose of the filter bypass valve?
    To allow fuel to continue to flow when a filter becomes clogged.
  63. What functions are performed by the fuel controller?
    It governs engine speed, controls engine acceleration and corresponding fuel flow, and shuts off fuel flow to the engine.
  64. What is the purpose of the fuel accumulator?
    It compensates for fuel expansion caused by changes in temperature.
  65. How are the gears in the gearbox housing lubricated?
    By the oil draining into the accessory gearbox from the compressor bearing cavity.
  66. What is the purpose of the deaeration baffle?
    To separate air from the oil.
  67. What are the advantages to having a generator as an integral part of the ignition system?
    It gives the igniters independence from the missile electrical system, resulting in greater system reliability, and no switching is required.
  68. What is the function of the GMFC?
    To process the flight control information from the INE, add to this the signals from the FDT, and output throttle and elevon signals to the actuator controller.
  69. Why are silicon bipolar transient suppressors used on input and output circuits?
    To provide EMP protection.
  70. What GMFC power is supplied by the carrier aircraft during captive carry?
    28 VDC.
  71. What two purposes does the test command serve as launch countdown begins?
    It checks the GMFC for proper operation and energizes the K1 relay in the EMI filter assembly.
  72. How are the INE clock pulses used in the GMFC AC power supply?
  73. How is the BITE used in the GMFC?
    It monitors 11 flight control system functions during the ALCM test command and sends the information to the INE.
  74. What information is provided by the three rate gyros?
    Angular acceleration, in degrees per second, for the X, Y, and Z axes.
  75. What missile data is derived from the accelerometer?
    Linear acceleration, in Gs, in the z axis.
  76. In what form is the output of the accelerometer received by the flight controller?
    A DC voltage.
  77. What is the function in operation of the actuator controller?
    It combines the correction signal from the flight controller with the position feedback from the elevon EMLAs and applies power to the actuator-driven motors until the flight controller signal is reduced to zero.
  78. What is the purpose of the EMLAs?
    To move the elevons in response to flight command signals from the INE.
  79. Why does each linear actuator have a high 348:1 gear ratio?
    To provide the required elevon torque.
  80. What methods of aerosurface deployment are used during launch?
    Inertia for the engine inlet and ballistic actuators for the flight control surfaces.
  81. How is complete deployment of the engine inlet assured?
    By a lanyard assembly connected between the engine inlet and the aircraft pylon/launcher.
  82. How is piston speed controlled in the linear explosive actuator?
    By an orifice that limits flow of the liquid from the piston chamber, regulating the deployment time.
  83. What is the purpose of the actuator latch pin?
    It allows the actuator’s telescoping shaft to be released from the piston, and permits a person to manually move the deployment mechanism through the deployment arc.
  84. How are the control surfaces locked into place?
    By overcentering the deployment linkage.
  85. Why do the INE refresh rates (updates) to the FCS vary?
    Their increase depends on the criticality of a missile’s response to erroneous commands and gains.
  86. What happens when the INE goes into a nuclear event circumvention and restart mode?
    FCS data is updated at the end of the detected nuclear event.
  87. What is the main reason elevons are deployed first during launch?
    They are the only control surfaces that can control the missile flight attitude.
  88. What is the overall purpose of the INE?
    To provide centralized control of all A/V flight functions, including all timing, control, and flight instructions to the A/V and its payload.
  89. What are the major units that make up the INE?
    A missile computer, an IRU (platform), and a PCU.
  90. Why does the platform contain four gimbals instead of three?
    To prevent gimbal lock.
  91. How are the velocity signals from the platform accelerometers used by the computer?
    To calculate missile position and steering commands.
  92. What maintains heater power to the platform gyros after launch?
    The AC power supply in the INE PCU.
  93. What is the purpose of the RAD card?
    Protect the computer from gamma radiation.
  94. How many of the registers in the computer general register file are used as accumulators?
  95. The N2-to-air heat exchanger and N2 circulation fan are primarily used to cool what INE unit?
    IRU (platform).
  96. What is the purpose of the heat pipes contained in the INE?
    Cool the INE cage.
  97. What function does the ADE serve in the overall operation of the navigation system?
    It provides air pressure and temperature information to be used to calculate missile altitude, Mach number, and dynamic pressure.
  98. Which of the two outputs from the pitot-static probe represents barometric pressure?
    Static pressure.
  99. What are the two types of sensing ports on the pitot-static probe?
    What are the two types of sensing ports on the pitot-static probe?
  100. Why is there a heater built into the pitot-static probe?
    To remove any ice buildup on the pitot-static probe.
  101. What is the purpose of the PST?
    It converts the pitot-static probe pressures into analog signal equivalents.
  102. What is the function of the ERTT?
    It measures and converts free-stream air total temperature to an electrical analog equivalent.
  103. What is the purpose of the CMRA element?
    To measure absolute clearance of the missile AGL, and provide the INE with a ground-track image during TERCOM navigation.
  104. What type of transmitter/receiver is used in the CMRA?
    A C-band, high-resolution, pulse-type.
  105. What is the usable range of the CMRA?
    10 through 5,000 feet.
  106. What does the CMRA’s range computer subassembly do?
    It measures the time difference between the time-zero pulse and the leading edge of the returned video pulse.
  107. What comprises the radiating portions of the CMRA transmit and receive antennas?
    Each has a 3-by-3 array of microstrip radiators.
  108. What is the purpose of the GRIU/P?
    It provides an additional navigation source for the missile computer.
  109. The TERCOM technique of navigation is based on what principle?
    The topography of a given area of the earth’s surface is unique, and an elevation profile line across the area is also unique.
  110. What happens to the size of the fix-point areas as missile navigation accuracy increases with distance, time and position fixes?
    It decreases in size.
  111. What happens to the probability of a false fix as the uniqueness of the terrain in the fix-point area decreases?
  112. What is the final step in TERCOM data preparation?
    Converting the fix-point area into a digitized matrix.
  113. During TERCOM data acquisition, how is the sensed altitude measured?
    With the missile’s radar altimeter.
  114. What is the reference altitude as used in TERCOM data acquisition?
    Its a combination of barometric altitude (static pressure output from the missile’s ADE) and vertical acceleration (from the FDT).
  115. What is skew error?
    A missile’s ground track does not coincide with one of the TERCOM reference matrix columns, but crosses two or more of the columns as the missile flies over the matrix area.
  116. What basic actions are accomplished during the data correlation step of TERCOM navigation?
    The defined errors (which are the difference between the planned ground track and the actual position of the missile at the time the fix was made) are sent to the inertial navigation system for update. At the completion of the navigation update, the position errors are corrected by sending course correction commands to the FCS.
  117. What does the USAF provide you with that assists you while performing maintenance?
    Technical orders.
  118. Why are nuclear weapons considered to be a critical natural resource?
    Because of their cost, destructive power, and importance to national security.
  119. What is not authorized to do within a nuclear weapons training atmosphere?
    To use nuclear weapons for training or troubleshooting.
  120. How is positive identification determined when checking out equipment?
    By utilizing all possible identification elements.
  121. Prior to beginning a task that includes nuclear certified equipment, what must you do?
    Verify the MNCL matches the identification markings on the equipment.
  122. What two things must be done prior to performing a missile fuel prime?
    Technical data must be followed and missile safe status accomplished.
  123. Why is it important that the APPU fills the fuel lines with fluid?
    To ensure efficient start of the engine after launch and that the system is pressurized for high altitude start.
  124. In terms of the missile fuel set, what ensures no leaks or spills while performing fueling operations?
    A closed-piping system.
  125. What improves fuel flow during defueling operations?
    Fuel stands designed for 4° nose up missile pre-positioning.
  126. What is the purpose of the ESTS AN/GSM-263?
    It allows for a rapid and automatic method of testing complex systems and their components, and provides the means for verifying the operational readiness of components undergoing testing.
  127. List the items that can be tested or checked out using the ESTS.
    (1) AGM-86B/C ALCM/CALCM. (2) B-52H munitions-related LRUs (decoder/receiver and NucSLU). (3) B-52H CSRL (empty missile check, loaded missile check, and empty nuclear bomb check). (4) B-52H pylon (empty pylon check and loaded pylon check).
  128. Where is the ESTS computer located?
    In the main rack.
  129. State the purpose of the isolation ground plate.
    It provides the single-point ground for the ESTS, any adapters, the UUT, and required support equipment.
  130. List the facility input power requirements of the UUT power control rack.
    120/208-VAC, 60-Hz, 3-phase rated at 60 amperes per phase; 115/200-VAC, 400-Hz, 3-phase rated at 30 amperes per phase; and 230/400-VAC, 400-Hz, 3-phase rated at 15 amperes per phase.
  131. Which ESTS unit provides the interface between the operator and the ESTS?
    CRT display station.
  132. List the three types of printouts available from the printer.
    As run, logged data, and list source.
  133. Why is commercial equipment used within the ESTS?
    In lieu of designing new assemblies.
  134. Which ESTS systems use 1A3 computer data?
    The digital system, and the monitor and interrupt system.
  135. Why is the digital system vital to ESTS operations?
    So the computer, which operates in digital, can communicate with the various analog systems.
  136. What are the two sections of the switching system?
    Measurement input switching, and DPDT switching.
  137. How are signals from the analog stimuli system output to the UUT?
    Via the 1A16 patchboard receiver.
  138. Why does the monitor and interrupt system receive inputs from other ESTS assemblies?
    To monitor voltages and currents throughout the entire ESTS system.
  139. What are the two main parts of the ESTS software system?
    Self-test and the UUT test.
  140. What are the two separate types of cooling air systems used within the ESTS?
    Blower-operated system using room ambient air and a closed-loop system of air conditioning units.
  141. What controls and programs the operation of the ADTS?
    1A3 computer.
  142. What’s the purpose of the 3A1 power control drawer?
    To control the application or removal of AC input power to the assemblies within the ADTS.
  143. What is the 3A7 EMI filter used for?
    To filter out any 60-Hz input power irregularities and prevent EMI propagation within the ADTS.
  144. What is the purpose of the ADTC?
    To accurately simulate and measure pneumatic pressures associated with a cruise missile in flight.
  145. What’s the purpose of the 3A3 blower?
    To circulate room ambient air to provide for 3A5 vacuum pump cooling.
  146. What is the purpose of the 3A4 air dryer module?
    To dry and remove contaminates from the pressurized air supplied to the pneumatic paths of the 3A2 ADTC.
  147. What are the major assemblies of the MRATA?
    The active loop drawer A1; passive loop drawer A2; power supply assemblies A3, A6, and A7; blower A4; and power control drawer A5.
  148. Which major MRATA assembly can simulate an altitude rate of change for pulsed-type altimeters?
    Active loop drawer A1.
  149. What does the A2 passive loop drawer provide?
    Manual or programmable simulated fixed altitudes, frequency-modulated/continuous-wave type altimeter rate control, and RF signal self-test.
  150. How many fixed DC output power supplies does each power supply assembly (A3, A6, or A7) contain?
  151. What does the power control drawer A5 provide?
    Fusing, control, and distribution of the AC and DC power within the MRATA.
  152. What do the MXU-690/E electronics components cooling equipment do?
    Filters, regulates, and monitors airflow to numerous missile systems, LRUs, launchers, and pylons during functional checkout, fault isolation, or bench checkout.
  153. How many cooling air circuits does the CCU contain?
  154. What is the facility air pressure requirement for CCU input air?
    95 (±25) psig.
  155. What does the CCU intermediate pressure control do?
    It further regulates cooling air to the INE and section 41cooling air circuits.
  156. What indicates the flow of air within the INE cooling air circuit?
    Flowmeter FM1.
  157. What is the purpose of the section 41 cooling air circuit?
    To cool the components located in the nose cap of the ALCM missile.
  158. What type of ESTS programming is provided by the patchboards?
  159. Why are the antenna hood assemblies shaped differently?
    To match the contour of the cruise missile antennas.
  160. What is the temperature probe assembly used for on the ALCM?
    To give the ESTS the capability to monitor the air temperature at the ALCMs ERTT.
  161. Why is the ESTS powered up before missile hookup for Level I testing?
    To allow for warm-up.
  162. Why are you cautioned not to apply ESTS power when the MRATA MAIN POWER switch is set to ON?
    Because you could damage the MRATA.
  163. Why are safety restraints installed on cruise missiles?
    To restrain the control surfaces and/or access covers in the event of accidental actuation.
  164. What are the two parts to the cruise missile checkout program?
    Level I and Level II.
  165. When can the ADCU declassify option be selected?
    After ESTS initialization.
  166. List two of the five types of faults that can occur during Level I testing.
    (1) ESTS faults. (2) Patchboard faults. (3) Level II (Level II run required). (4) Replace SRU (fault isolated to component). (5) Test failure (requires analytical troubleshooting).
  167. What happens when a Level I fault does occur?
    The CRT display shows the action to be taken.
  168. What must be loaded into the missile computer before it is returned to service?
    The ADCU operational flight load.
  169. What happens when an SRU is replaced?
    The Level I selected module or the Level II test is repeated to verify the repair
  170. If a problem cannot be discovered by utilizing your basic skills to troubleshoot a fault, what item do you next reference?
    Technical data.
  171. Where do you find the definition of memory dump contents when analyzing an INE memory dump test?
    A table within the technical order that contains WORDS and OFS memory addresses.
  172. When troubleshooting SIT/MIT failures and the FIRT words show multiple faults, what is required to determine the original fault?
    Master fault message.
  173. During LPT/LLT fault analysis, what must you do once you notice the fault is not identified within the provided technical data tables?
    Cease further troubleshooting in the 8-1 TO and perform cruise missile Level-I testing.
  174. What is the magnetic tape called that controls the computers of the B-52H OAS?
    Operational computer program.
  175. Which program performs launcher, pylon, and missile simulator checkouts?
    The Weapon Preload Tester Computer Program.
  176. List the five offensive avionics system subsystems.
    (1) Interface. (2) Computational. (3) Control and display. (4) Navigation and guidance. (5) Weapon control and delivery.
  177. How does the computational subsystem of the offensive avionics system receive and transmit data?
    Over the MIL-STD-1553A data bus.
  178. Which offensive avionics system subsystem provides control and supervision of navigation and bombing, and missile initialization and launch?
    Control and display.
  179. What are the two jettison modes provided by the B-52H weapon control and delivery subsystem?
    Missile and pylon.
  180. What environmental system is used for heating or cooling the missiles and missile interface unit/nuclear station logic unit on the B-52H?
    Missile conditioning system.
  181. What is an ejector?
    An electromechanical device attached to the missile.
  182. What ejector is used to launch the air-launched cruise missile/conventional air-launched cruise missile from the B-52H?
  183. What piece of equipment provides the interface between the missile/ejector package and the carrier aircraft avionics control unit?
    Missile interference unit.
  184. What does the nuclear station logic unit provide?
    Interface between the controlling avionics control unit and ejectors on the common strategic rotary launcher.
  185. What is the purpose of the aircraft pylon?
    To provide an aerodynamic interface between the B-52H and AGM-86B/C cruise missiles.
  186. What is the maximum number of missiles a B-52H pylon support?
  187. What routes the supplied air to each missile and the missile interface unit?
    A manifold within the pylon.
  188. When can pylon jettison be performed?
    Anytime the operator deems it necessary to jettison the pylons.
  189. What systems make up the common strategic rotary launcher?
    Power, environmental control, monitor and control, and mechanical.
  190. If a missile has been launched, what happens to the cooling air?
    The bypass valves route the air directly to the return lines.
  191. What provides the interface between the controlling avionics control unit and the ejector?
    Nuclear station logic unit.
  192. What does the mechanical system of the common strategic rotary launcher allow?
    The rotation of the launcher shaft to place the selected weapon at the six o’clock position for release.
  193. What is accomplished to ensure integration is working after mating a common strategic rotary launcher to the aircraft?
    A missile interface test and/or a systems interface test.
  194. What is the MIT used to verify?
    Communication between the weapon and the aircraft.
  195. The WCE includes which equipment?
    PDUC, MIU, ECU, and AIU.
  196. What must be accomplished prior to initiating troubleshooting of weapon system faults?
    Payload(s) must be isolated.
  197. When can aircraft be reloaded with weapons following a CRITICAL fault?
    After a functional checkout verifies the aircraft repair or the fault has been unmistakably associated with the weapon(s).
  198. The power change record provides what information?
    If and when MIU power was turned on and off for each CSRL/pylon position.
  199. The word in column five of the ADCU memory dump corresponds to what address?
    The address in column one, plus three.
  200. What is used to determine original faults if multiple faults are indicated during the ADCU memory dump?
    OAS fault messages.
Card Set:
self test b set
2016-12-01 04:41:19
b set self test questions
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