Airmen Knowledge

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  1. 001. With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a category of aircraft?

    A. Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon.
    B. Single-engine land and sea, multi-engine land and sea.
    C. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.
    C. Airmen are certified according to four categories of aircraft: airplane, glider, and lighter-than-air. The other answers list classes of pilot certification, not categories.
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  2. 002. With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft?

    A. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.
    B. Lighter-than-air, airship, hot air balloon, gas balloon
    C. Single-engine land and sea, Multi-engine land and sea.
    C. Each category of aircraft is broken down into classes. The airplane category is divided into single-engine and multi-engine land and sea.
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  3. 003. With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?

    A. Normal, utility, acrobatic.
    B. Landplane, seaplane.
    C. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider.
    A. Normal, utility, and aerobatic are three of the categories under which aircraft are certified. Airplane, rotorcraft, and glider are aircraft classes, not categories. Landplane and seaplane are examples of airplane classes for pilot certification.
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  4. 004. With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?

    A. Normal, utility, aerobatic, limited.
    B. Transport, restricted, provisional.
    C. Airplane, helicopter, glider, hot air balloon.
    C. Aircraft are placed into groups having similar means of propulsion, flight, and landing. These classes include: airplane, rotorcraft, glider, and balloon. The other answers list aircraft categories, not classes.
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  5. 201. The four forces acting on an airplane in flight are:

    A. lift, weight, thrust, and drag.
    B. lift, gravity, power, and friction.
    C. lift, weight, gravity, and thrust.
    A. In normal (non-acrobatic) flight conditions, lift is the upward force created by airflow over and under the wings. Weight, caused by the downward pull of gravity, opposes lift. Thrust is the forward force with propels the airplane, and drag is the retarding force opposing thrust. While gravity causes weight, it is not considered one of the four forces. While power and friction affect thrust and drag, they are not aerodynamic forces.
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  6. 202. When are the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium?

    A. When the aircraft is at rest on the ground.
    B. During unaccelerated flight.
    C. When the aircraft is accelerating.
    B. In straight-and-level, unaccelerated flight, the four forces are in equilibrium, Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag. When an aircraft is accelerating, thrust would need to be greater than drag. When an aircraft is resting on the ground, only weight is acting on it, lift, drag, and thrust are essentially zero.
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  7. 204. The term "angle of attack" is defined as the angle

    A. formed by the longitudinal axis of the airplane and the chord line of the wing.
    B. between the wing chord line and the relative wind.
    C. between the airplane's climb and the horizon.
    B. The angle of attack is the angle between the chord line and the relative wind. "Between the airplane's climb and the horizon" does not describe any aerodynamic term. "Formed by the longitudinal axis of the airplane and the chord line of the wing" describes the angle of incidence.
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  8. 205. What is the relationship of lift, drag, thrust, and weight when the airplane is in straight and level flight?

    A. Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag.
    B. Lift and weight equals thrust and drag.
    C. Lift, drag, and weight equals thrust.
    A. Assuming the airplane is not accelerating, thrust equals drag, and lift equals weight. All four do not have to be equal. Thrust must equal drag and lift must equal weight.
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  9. 219. One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to

    A. permit a touchdown at a higher indicated airspeed.
    B. increase the angle of decent without increasing the airspeed.
    C. decrease the angle of decent without increasing the airspeed.
    B. Because flaps increase lift, inducing drag is also increased, thus allowing a steeper angle of decent without increasing airspeed. The angle of decent is increased, not decreased. Since flaps increase lift, it allows touchdown at a lower airspeed, not an increased airspeed.
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  10. 220. What is one purpose of wing flaps?

    A. To decrease wing area to vary the lift.
    B. To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing airspeed.
    C. To relieve the pilot of maintaining continuous pressure on the controls.
    B. Flaps increase both lift and inducing drag, allowing a steeper descent without increasing airspeed.
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  11. 311. The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will

    A. increase of the CG is moving forward.
    B. change with an increase in gross weight.
    C. remain the same regardless of gross weight.
    C. The critical angle of attack (angle of attack in which an airplane stalls) is determined by the lift coefficient of a particular wing configuration. An airplane will stall when the critical angle of attack is exceeded, regardless of weight or airspeed. The Center of Gravity (CG) and weight do not affect the critical angle of attack.
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  12. 317. Angle of attack is defined as the angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the

    A. rotor plane of rotation.
    B. pitch angle of an airfoil.
    C. direction of the relative wind.
    C. The angle of attack is the angle between the chord line and the relative wind. The pitch angle describes the angle of the airplane's longitudinal axis, not the wing. The rotor plane refers to helicopters, not airplanes.
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  13. 006. Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed?

    A. V^LO
    B. V^A
    C. V^NE
    B. V^A is defined as the design maneuvering speed. V^LO represents maximum landing gear operating speed. V^NE is the "Never Exceed" speed.
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  14. 207. In what flight condition is torque effect the greatest in a single-engine airplane?

    A. High airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.
    B. Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.
    C. Low airspeed, low power, low angle of attack.
    B. Torque effect is greatest at low airspeed, high power settings, and high angle of attack. Low airspeed, low power, and low angle of attack produce the least amount of torque effect. High airspeed doesn't produce as much torque as low airspeed.
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  15. 208. The lift turning tendency of an airplane caused by P-factor is the result of the

    A. clockwise rotation of the engine and the propeller turning the airplane counter-clockwise.
    B. gyroscopic forces applied to the rotating propeller blades acting 90 degrees in advance of the point the force was applied.
    C. propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left.
    C. P-factor, or asymmetric propeller loading, normally occurs at a high angle of attack. The descending propeller blade on the right side takes a larger "bite" of the air and produces more thrust than the ascending blade on the left. The result is a left turning tendency of the airplane. Engine rotation is related to torque, gyroscopic forces is related to gyroscopic procession, not P-factor.
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  16. 209. When does P-factor cause the airplane to yaw to the left?

    A. When at high airspeeds.
    B. When at high angles of attack.
    C. When at low angles of attack.
    B. P-factor is most pronounced at high angles of attack, which causes the descending propeller blade to produce more thrust. At a low angle of attack, thrust produced by the ascending and descending propeller blades is almost equalized. At high airspeeds, the angle of attack is lower, thus reducing the P-factor.
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  17. 213. What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane?

    A. To control overbanking tendency.
    B. To control roll.
    C. To control yaw.
    C. Since the rudder moves the airplane about its vertical axis, it is used to control yaw. Overbanking tendency and roll are controlled by ailerons.
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  18. 217. The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends upon the

    A. abruptness at which the load is applied.
    B. speed of the airplane.
    C. position of the CG.
    B. The amount of excess load that can be imposed on an airplane depends on its speed. If abrupt control movements or strong gusts are applied at low airspeed, the airplane will stall before the load becomes excessive. At higher airspeeds, the increased airflow causes a greater lifting capacity. A sudden control input or gust at a high airspeed may result in an excessive load factor on the wings. The position of the CG does not affect the load factor on the wings. The amount of excess load depends on both the speed and the total load. Although abruptness does affect the total load on the airplane, the determining factor is airspeed.
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  19. 218. Which basic flight maneuver increases the load factor on an airplane as compared to straight and level flight?

    A. Climbs.
    B. Stalls.
    C. Turns.
    C. In a level turn, lift must be increased to compensate for the loss of vertical lift as well as overcome centrifugal force. Since the wings must support not only the airplane's weight, but also the load imposed by centrifugal force, the load factor is greater than 1 G. Once established in a climb, there is no additional load factor imposed on the airplane. When an airplane is in a stalled condition, it is producing insufficient lift and the load factor decreases below 1 G.
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  20. 301. What force makes an airplane turn?

    A. The horizontal component of lift.
    B. Centrifugal force.
    C. The vertical component of lift.
    A. In a turn, lift has both a vertical and a horizontal component. The horizontal component of lift, which is also referred to as centripetal force, opposes centrifugal force and causes the airplane to turn. The vertical component of lift opposes weight. The centrifugal force acts outward from the turn and opposes the horizontal component of lift.
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  21. 312. What is ground effect?

    A. The result of the disruption of the airflow patterns about the wings of an airplane to the point where the wings will no longer support the airplane in flight.
    B. The result of an alteration in airflow patterns increasing induced drag about the wings of an airplane.
    C. The result of the interference of the surface of the Earth with the airflow pattern about an airplane.
    C. When flying close to the ground, the airflow around an airplane is altered by interference with the surface of the earth. The resulting ground effect reduces the induced drag on the airplane. The upwash and downwash of airflow on the wing is reduced and the airplane can fly at lower speeds.
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  22. 313. Floating caused by the phenomenon of ground effect will be most realized during an approach to land when at:

    A. less than the length of the wingspan above the surface.
    B. twice the length of the wingspan above the surface.
    C. a higher than normal angle of attack.
    A. Ground effect becomes noticeable when the height of the airplane above the ground is less than the length of the wingspan. The ground effect is not a result of the angle of attack and at higher angle of attack, airspeed will be lower so that floating will be decreased.
  23. 314. What must a pilot be aware of as a result of ground effect?

    A. Wingtip vertices increase creating wake turbulence problems for arriving and departing aircraft.
    B. Induced drag decreases; therefore, any excess speed at the point of flare may cause considerable floating.
    C. A full stall landing will require less up elevator deflection than would a full stall when done free of ground effect.
    B. Since ground effect decreases induced drag, the airplane tends to float while excess speed bleeds off. The reduction in induced drag causes wingtip vertices to decrease. The wings produce more lift in ground effect than out of ground effects, therefore, more up elevator deflection would be required.
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  24. 315. Ground effect is most likely to result in which problem?

    A. Inability to get airborne even though airspeed is sufficient for normal takeoff needs.
    B. Settling to the surface abruptly during landing.
    C. Becoming airborne before reaching recommended takeoff speed.
    C. The decreased induced drag while in ground effect allows the airplane to become airborne at a lower airspeed. This may fool you into thinking the airplane s capable of flying at the lower airspeed when you climb out of ground effect. Ground effect tends to cause an airplane to float during landing, not settle abruptly.
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  25. 316. During an approach to stall, an increased load factor will cause the airplane to

    A. have a tendency to spin.
    B. stall at a higher airspeed.
    C. be more difficult to control.
    B. Stall speed increases in proportion to load factor. Added G-forces cause an airplane to stall at an airspeed higher than the normal 1-G airspeed. Load factor normally does not effect an airplane's tendency to spin or controllability. Rather, this is a function of the airplane's stability.
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  26. 711. The most important rule to remember in the event of a power failure after becoming airborne is to

    A. determine the wind direction to plan for the forced landing.
    B. quickly check the fuel supply for possible fuel exhaustion.
    C. immediately establish the proper gliding attitude and airspeed.
    C. Establish the proper glide attitude and airspeed is critical to ensure the best possibility of reaching a suitable landing area. It also tends to reduce the possibility of a stall/spin accident. Checking the fuel supply is an important step in attempting to restart the engine, but controlling the aircraft is the first priority. Planning for a forced landing is another important step, but should be taken only after establishing the proper glide speed and determining that the engine(s) cannot be restarted.
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  27. 210. An airplane said to be inherently stable will

    A. be difficult to stall.
    B. not spin.
    C. require less effort to control.
    C. An airplane that is inherently stable tends to return to its original attitude after it had been displaced and is therefore easier to control. Stability doesn't prevent you from installing or spinning an airplane.
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  28. 211. What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane?

    A. The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift.
    B. The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder, and rudder trim tab.
    C. The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag.
    A. Longitudinal stability is determined primarily by the location of the center of gravity (CG) in relation to the center of lift. The rudder and rudder trim tab affect the directional stability. The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag affects acceleration, but not longitudinal stability.
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  29. 212. What causes an airplane (except a T-tail) to pitch nose-down when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted?

    A. The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced.
    B. When thrust is reduced to less than weight, lift is also reduced and the wings can no longer support the weight.
    C. The CG shifts forward when thrust and drag are reduced.
    A. At higher power settings, in airplanes other than T-tail designs, the propeller slipstream causes a greater downward force on the horizontal stabilizer. When power is reduced, this downward force in the tail is also reduced, and the nose pitches down. CG is determined by how an airplane is built and loaded and is not affected by changes in thrust and drag. Most airplanes can fly with thrust less than the weight.
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  30. 287. An airplane has been loaded in such a manner that the CG is located aft of the aft CG limit. One undesirable flight characteristic a pilot might experience with this airplane would be

    A. difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition.
    B. a longer takeoff run.
    C. stalling at higher than normal airspeed.
    A. When a CG aft of the rear CG limit, the airplane becomes tail heavy and unstable in pitch because the horizontal stabilizer is less effective. This condition makes it difficult, if not impossible, to recover from a stall or spin. An aft CG tends to shorten the takeoff run and may cause the airplane to pitch up and lift easily at a lower than normal airspeed. An airplane with an aft CG also requires less downward force on the tail. The airplane can fly at a lower angle of attack and will stall at a lower airspeed.
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  31. 288. Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be

    A. less stable at high speeds, but more stable at low speeds
    B. less stable at all speeds.
    C. less stable at slow speeds, but more stable at high speeds.
    B. In an airplane loaded to the aft CG limit, the horizontal stabilizer is less effective, causing the airplane to be less stable at all speeds.
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  32. 309. In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin?

    A. Stalled.
    B. In a steep diving spiral.
    C. Partially stalled with one wing low.
    A. An airplane must be stalled before a spin can develop.
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  33. 310. During a spin to the left, which wing(s) is/are stalled?

    A. Neither wing is stalled.
    B. Only the left wing is stalled.
    C. Both wings are stalled.
    C. In a spin, both wings are stalled, although the outside wing may be less fully stalled than the inside wing.
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  34. 089. Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic?

    A. An aircraft in distress.
    B. A balloon.
    C. An aircraft in final approach to land.
    A. An aircraft in distress has the right-of-way over all other aircraft.
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  35. 090. What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on?

    A. The aircraft on the left shall give way.
    B. Each aircraft shall give way to the right.
    C. The faster aircraft shall give way.
    A. The aircraft on the right has the right-of-way and the aircraft on the left shall give way.
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  36. 091. Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?

    A. Glider.
    B. Airship.
    C. Aircraft refueling other aircraft.
    A. In general, the least maneuverable aircraft normally has the right-of-way. A glider has the right-of-way over an airship, airplane, or rotorcraft. An aircraft that is towing or refueling another aircraft has the right-of-way over all other engine-driven aircraft (but not a glider).
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  37. 092. An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane's position, which aircraft has the right-of-way?

    A. The airplane.
    B. Each pilot should alter course to the right.
    C. The airship.
    C. Since the airship is less maneuverable than an airplane, the airship has the right-of-way.
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  38. 093. Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?

    A. Aircraft towing other aircraft.
    B. Gyroplane.
    C. Airship.
    A. An aircraft towing or refueling another aircraft has the right-of-way over all other engine-driven aircraft.
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  39. 094. What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course?

    A. The glider pilot should give way to the right.
    B. Both pilots should give way to the right.
    C. The airplane should give way to the left.
    B. When any aircraft are approaching each other head-on, both pilots should alter their course to the right. For aircraft approaching head-on, the FARs do not make a distinction between aircraft categories.
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  40. 095. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purposes of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft

    A. that is the least maneuverable.
    B. that has the other to its right.
    C. at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another.
    C. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for landing, the one at the lower altitude has the right-of-way, but you should not use the rule to cut in front of another aircraft.
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  41. 101. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?

    A. An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
    B. An altitude of 500 feet above the surface and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
    C. An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1000 feet.
    A. Except for a normal takeoff and landing, you must maintain enough altitude to allow for an emergency landing in the event of an engine failure without undue hazard to people or property on the surface. The minimum altitude for operating over an uncongested area is 500 feet above the surface, and the minimum altitude over a sparsely populated area or over open water is 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
  42. 102. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas?

    A. An altitude of 1000 feet above any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
    B. An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1000 feet.
    C. An altitude of 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2000 feet.
    C. An altitude of 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2000 feet.
  43. 103. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?

    A. An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
    B. An altitude of 500 feet above ground level (AGL), except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicles, or structure.
    C. An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1000 feet.
    B. An altitude of 500 feet above ground level (AGL), except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicles, or structure.
  44. 104. Except when necessary for takeoff and landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure?

    A. 500 feet.
    B. 700 feet.
    C. 1000 feet
    A. The words person, vessel, vehicle, or structure apply for operations over a sparsely populated or open water area, and the distance is 500 feet.
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  45. 105. If the altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter?

    A. The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.
    B. The elevation of the departure area.
    C. The elevation of the nearest airport corrected to mean sea level.
    B. If unable to obtain a local altimeter setting, you should set the altimeter to the field elevation prior to departure.
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  46. 106. Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?

    A. The corrected density altitude of the departure airport.
    B. The current local altimeter setting, if available, for the departure airport elevation.
    C. The corrected pressure altitude for the departure airport.
    B. You should set the altimeter to the field elevation prior to departure.
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  47. 155. Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a Visual flight rules (VFR) flight on the magnetic course of 135°?

    A. Even thousandths plus 500 feet.
    B. Odd thousandths plus 500 feet.
    C. Even thousandths.
    B. On an easterly magnetic course (0° to 179°) above 3000 feet above ground level (AGL), Visual flight rules (VFR) cruising altitudes are odd thousands plus 500 feet. Even thousands (plus 500 feet) are used for westbound courses above 3000 feet above ground level (AGL).
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  48. 156. Which Visual flight rules (VFR) cruising altitude is acceptable for a flight on a Victor Airway with a magnetic course of 175°? The terrain is less than 1000 feet.

    A. 4500 feet.
    B. 5000 feet.
    C. 5500 feet.
    C. This answer is correct because it is the only answer with odd thousands plus 500 feet.
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  49. 157. Which Visual flight rules (VFR) cruising altitude is appropriate when flying above 3000 feet above ground level (AGL) on a magnetic course of 185°?

    A. 5000 feet.
    B. 4000 feet.
    C. 4500 feet.
    C. Because the courses westerly, and even thousands altitude plus 500 feet is used.
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  50. 158. Each person operating an aircraft at Visual flight rules (VFR) cruising altitude should maintain an odd thousand plus 500-foot altitude while on a

    A. magnetic course of 0° through 179°.
    B. true course of 0° Through 179°.
    C. magnetic heading of 0° through 179°.
    A. Visual flight rules (VFR) cruising altitudes on an easterly magnetic course (0° to 179°) are odd thousands +500 feet. Visual flight rules (VFR) altitudes are based on magnetic course, not true course or heading.
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  51. 710. Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should

    A. visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance.
    B. announce their intentions on the nearest CTAF.
    C. check altitude, airspeed, and heading indicators.
    A. To ensure you can see other aircraft which may be blocked by blind spots, make clear interns and scan the area. While it is important to maintain an instrument scan, it is crucial to clear the area. You should not practice maneuvers in the vicinity of an airport.
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  52. 814. What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending Visual flight rules (VFR) on an airway?

    A. Execute gentle banks, left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace.
    B. Fly away from the centerline of the airway before changing altitude.
    C. Advise the nearest FSS of the altitude changes.
    A. Because of potential traffic on the airways, it is important to scan. Making shallow turns allows you to compensate for blind spots. FSS does not provide traffic control or advisories on airways. ATC is expecting you to maintain the airway centerline.
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  53. 833. What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?

    A. The eyes tend to overwork in a haze and do not detect relative movement easily.
    B. All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance.
    C. Haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity.
    B. Since haze reduces visibility, objects are closer than they appear. Without a definite visible object, which is sometimes the case in haze conditions, the eyes tend to relax and focus on a point in space about 3 to 5 feet away, not infinity.
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  54. 834. The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use

    A. a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10° sector.
    B. regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12- o'clock positions.
    C. peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing.
    A. The eyes are able to focus clearly only on a small area, approximately 10°, so a series of short eye movements is most effective. All sectors should be scanned. Peripheral vision and off-center viewing are most effective at night, not during the day.
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  55. 835. Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight and level flight?

    A. Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.
    B. Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left.
    C. Concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area.
    A. The eyes are able to focus clearly only on a small area, approximately 10°, so a series of short eye movements is most effective. All sectors should be scanned. Peripheral vision and off-center viewing are most effective at night, not during the day.
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  56. 836. How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?

    A. There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.
    B. The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer to rapid rate.
    C. The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space.
    A. A lack of relative movement can indicate that the two aircraft are moving toward one another on a collision course. There are times when the other aircraft may not appear to get larger or closer until just before collision. Even though the aircraft might be headed toward the same point, different aircraft speeds might keep them from reaching the same point at the same time.
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  57. 120. Each pilot in an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (visual approach slope indicator (VASI)) shall

    A. maintain a 3° glide to the runway.
    B. maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.
    C. stay high until the runway can be reached in a power off landing.
    B. The visual approach slope indicator (VASI) glide path provides safe obstruction clearance to the runway. Therefore, the pilot should fly at or above the glide path. Not all visual approach slope indicator (VASI)s have a 3° glide path. visual approach slope indicator (VASI)s are intended to provide a glide path for a normal approach.
  58. 121. When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (visual approach slope indicator (VASI)), the pilot shall

    A. maintain an altitude that captures the glide slope at least 2 miles downwind from the runway threshold.
    B. maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.
    C. remain on the glide slope and land between the two light bars.
    B. The pilot should fly at or above the glide path. There is no requirement to land between the light bars.
  59. 302. When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron positions should be used?

    A. Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing.
    B. Aileron neutral.
    C. Aileron down on the downwind side.
    A. With a quartering tailwind, the aileron should be down on the side from which the wind is blowing in order to prevent the wind from flowing under the wing and lifting.
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  60. 303. Which aileron position should a pilot generally used when taxiing in a strong ordering tailwind?

    A. Aileron up on the site from which the wind is blowing.
    B. Aileron down on the site from which the wind is blowing.
    C. Aileron neutral.
    A. To counteract the lifting tendency of a quartering headwind, the aileron should be up on the side from which the wind is blowing.
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  61. 304. Which wind condition would be most critical when taxiing a nose-wheel equipped high-wing airplane?

    A. Quartering headwind.
    B. Direct crosswind.
    C. Quartering tailwind.
    C. A tricycle-gear, high-wing airplane is most susceptible to a quartering tailwind because a strong airflow beneath the wing and horizontal stabilizer can lift the airplane and tip or nose it over.
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  62. 305. How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane into a left quartering head wind?

    A. Left aileron down, elevator neutral.
    B. Left aileron up, elevator neutral.
    C. Left aileron up, elevator down.
    B. While taxiing a tricycle-gear airplane in a quartering headwind, that failure on should be up on the side for which the wind is blowing, and the elevator neutral to prevent any lifting force on the tail. In this case, the wind is from the left so the left aileron should be up.
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  63. 306. How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane into a right quartering headwind?

    A. Right aileron up, elevator up.
    B. Right aileron down, elevator neutral.
    C. Right aileron up, elevator down.
    A. In a tailwheel airplane, the aileron is held up on the upwind aside, and the elevator is held up to prevent the tail from lifting. Since the tale of most tailwheel airplanes is lower than the nose while taxiing, a strong head wind blowing on a neutral or down elevator could cause the tail to rise.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. 307. How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane with a left quartering tailwind?

    A. Left aileron down, elevator down.
    B. Left aileron up, elevator neutral.
    C. Left aileron down, elevator neutral.
    A. For a quartering tailwind, the controls are held the same for both tailwheel and tricycle-gear airplanes. Ailerons are down on the side from which the wind is blowing. The elevator is down to prevent the wind from lifting the tail.
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  65. 308. How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane with a left quartering tailwind?

    A. Left aileron up, elevator neutral.
    B. Left aileron down, elevator down.
    C. Left aileron up, elevator down.
    B. A tricycle-gear, high-wing airplane is most susceptible to a quartering tailwind because a strong airflow beneath the wing and horizontal stabilizer can lift the airplane and tip or nose it over. For a quartering tailwind, the controls are held the same for both tailwheel and tricycle-gear airplanes. Ailerons are down on the side from which the wind is blowing. The elevator is down to prevent the wind from lifting the tail.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. 718. Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by

    A. blue omnidirectional lights.
    B. white directional lights.
    C. alternate red and green lights.
    A. Taxiway edge lights are blue. White lights are used for runway edges and centerlines. Alternating red and green lights are not used for taxiway lighting.
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  67. 760. A slightly higher glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator (PAPI) is

    A. three white lights and one red light.
    B. two white lights and two red lights.
    C. four white lights.
    A. A slightly high indication on a precision approach path indicator (PAPI) shows three white lights and one red light. Four white lights is a high indication. Two white lights and two red lights are on the glide path.
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  68. 761. A below glide path indication from a tricolor visual approach slope indicator (VASI) is a

    A. red light signal.
    B. green light signal.
    C. pink light signal.
    A. A below glide slope indication on a tricolor is read. The color pink is not used in a tricolor system. A green light indicates you are on the glide path.
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  69. 762. An above glide slope indication from a tricolor visual approach slope indicator (VASI) is

    A. a white light signal.
    B. a green light signal.
    C. an amber light signal.
    C. Amber is the color used for above glide path indication. White is not used on a tricolor visual approach slope indicator (VASI). Green is the indication for being on the glide path.
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  70. 763. An on-glide slope indication from a tricolor visual approach slope indicator (VASI) is

    A. a white light signal.
    B. a green light signal.
    C. an amber light signal.
    B. Green is the indication for being on the glide path. Amber is the color used for above glide path indication. White is not used on a tricolor visual approach slope indicator (VASI).
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. 764. A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a

    A. pulsating white light.
    B. pulsating red light.
    C. study white light.
    B. A pulsating approach slope indicator provides a pulsating red light when below glide slope. A pulsating white light indicates above glide slope. A study white light indicates on glide slope.
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  72. 768. To set the height intensity runway lights on the medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone 7 times, then click it

    A. 1 time.
    B. 5 times.
    C. 3 times.
    B. At airports with three-step pilot controlled runway lighting systems, 7 clicks turns all the lights on to the maximum intensity. 5 clicks turns the lights to medium. 1 click does not change the light setting. 3 clicks turns the lights to the lowest intensity.
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  73. 769. An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates

    A. there are obstructions on the airport.
    B. the weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is above basic Visual flight rules (VFR) weather minimums.
    C. the Air Traffic Control tower is not in operation.
    B. When the airport beacon is on during the daytime, it usually means that the ceiling is less than 1000 feet and/or the visibility is less than three statute miles (below basic Visual flight rules (VFR) minimums). The beacon is not used to indicate obstructions, nor does it indicate the control tower is not in operation. Remember, though, the airport beacon may not always be turned on when the weather is below Visual flight rules (VFR) minimums.
  74. 771. A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits

    A. green, yellow, and white flashes.
    B. two quick, white flashes between green flashes.
    C. white and green alternating flashes.
    B. A military airport beacon has two quick flashes of white light between green flashes. White and green alternating flashes indicates a civilian airport beacon. Green, yellow, and red flashes indicates a heliport.
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  75. 772. How can a military airport be identified at night?

    A. Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes.
    B. Alternating white and green light flashes.
    C. White flashing lights with steady green at the same location.
    A. A military airport beacon has two quick flashes of white light between green flashes. White and green alternating flashes indicates a civilian airport beacon. White flashing lights with steady green at the same location does not describe any airport beacon.
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  76. 067. The width of a federal airway from either side of the centerline is

    A. 6 nautical miles.
    B. 4 nautical miles.
    C. 8 nautical miles.
    B. federal airways include the airspace within four nautical miles each side of the airway centerline.
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  77. 068. Unless otherwise specified, federal airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from

    A. 700 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet mean sea level (MSL).
    B. 12,000 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet mean sea level (MSL).
    C. The surface up to and including 18,000 feet mean sea level (MSL).
    B. federal airways normally began at 1200 feet above ground level (AGL) and extend up to, but not including, 18,000 feet mean sea level (MSL). 700 feet is the floor of Class E airspace associated with an airport for which an approved instrument approach procedure has been published airways do not normally began at the surface and do not include 18,000 feet mean sea level (MSL).
  78. 069. Normal Visual flight rules (VFR) operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the visibility and ceiling to be at least

    A. 1000 feet and 1 mile.
    B. 1000 feet and 3 miles.
    C. 2500 feet and 3 miles.
    B. in order to operate in Class D airspace, the Visual flight rules (VFR) visibility minimum is three statute miles. In addition, the ceiling must be at least 1000 feet. 2500 feet is the top of most Class D airspace areas.
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  79. 107. At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92, when climbing to cruising flight level?

    A. 18,000 feet mean sea level (MSL).
    B. 24,000 feet mean sea level (MSL).
    C. 14,500 feet mean sea level (MSL).
    A. to standardize altimeter settings in Class A airspace, all pilots are required to set their altimeter to 29.92 at and above 18,000 feet mean sea level (MSL).
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  80. 118. Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only

    A. when the associated control tower is in operation.
    B. when the weather minimum is below basic VR.
    C. when the associated flight service station is in operation.
    A. in order for airspace to be classified as Class D there must be an operating control tower.
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  81. 119. Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communication with air traffic control are required for landings or takeoffs

    A. at all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions.
    B. at all tower controlled airports only when weather conditions are less than Visual flight rules (VFR).
    C. at all tower control airports within Class D airspace.
    A. when operating at an airport where control tower is in operation, you must be in radio contact with ATC whether or not Visual flight rules (VFR) conditions exist.
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  82. 124. Two-way radio communication must be established with the air traffic control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which Class Airspace?

    A. Class E.
    B. Class G.
    C. Class C.
    C. You must establish two-way communication prior to entering a Class C airspace area, and maintain it while operating within the Class C airspace. Two-way communications are not required in Class E or G airspace.
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  83. 125. What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?

    A. Two-way radio communication equipment, a 4096 – code transponder, and DME.
    B. Two-way radio communication equipment and a 4096 – code transponder.
    C. Two-way radio communication equipment, a 4096 – code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.
    C. To operate in a Class C airspace area, you are required to have both a two-way radio and a 4096 – code transponder with encrypting altimeter. DME is not required for a Class C airspace.
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  84. 126. What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?

    A. Private pilot certificate or student pilot certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.
    B. Private pilot certificate with an instrument rating.
    C. Recreational pilot certificate.
    A. To operate in a Class B airspace area, a pilot must hold a private pilot certificate. However, within certain Class B airspace areas, student pilot operations may be conducted after receiving specific training and a logbook endorsements from an authorized flight instructor.
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  85. 127. What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?

    A. Commercial pilot certificate.
    B. Private pilot certificate or student pilot certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.
    C. Private pilot certificate with an instrument rating.
    B. to operate in a Class B airspace area, a pilot must hold a private pilot certificate. However, within certain Class B airspace areas, student pilot operations may be conducted after receiving specific training and a logbook endorsements from an authorized flight instructor.
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  86. 128. What minimum radio equipment is required for Visual flight rules (VFR) operation within Class B airspace?

    A. Two-way communication equipment, a 4096–code transponder, an encrypting altimeter, and a VOR or TACAN receiver.
    B. Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096–code transponder.
    C. Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096–code transponder, and an encrypting altimeter.
    C. Visual flight rules (VFR) operations within Class B airspace areas require a two-way radio and a 4096–code transponder with an encoding altimeter. VOR or TACAN receivers are only required for instrument flight.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. 129. An operable 4096 – code transponder and mode C encoding altimeter are required in

    A. Class D airspace.
    B. Class E airspace below 10,000 feet.
    C. Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport.
    C. A 4096–code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required for operation within a Class B airspace area. It is not required in a Class D airspace or Class E airspace below 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL).
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. 130. In which type of airspace are Visual flight rules (VFR) flights prohibited?

    A. Class A.
    B. Class B.
    C. Class C.
    A. Only IFR operations are allowed in Class A airspace. Visual flight rules (VFR) flights are allowed in Class B and Class C airspace if authorized by ATC.
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  89. 136. During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1200 feet above ground level (AGL), the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirements for Visual flight rules (VFR) flight is

    A. 1000 feet.
    B. 2000 feet.
    C. 1500 feet.
    B. In controlled airspace above 10,000 feet, it does not matter whether you are above or below 1200 feet above ground level (AGL). The Visual flight rules (VFR) cloud clearance is 2000 feet horizontal.
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  90. 137. What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for Visual flight rules (VFR) operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet above ground level (AGL) or below during daylight hours?

    A. 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.
    B. 1 mile visibility, 500 feet below, 1000 feet above, and 2000 feet horizontal clearance from clouds.
    C. 3 miles visibility and clear of clouds.
    A. For Visual flight rules (VFR) flight in uncontrolled airspace below 1200 feet during daytime, you are only required to have 1 mile visibility and remain clear of clouds. 3-mile visibility applies to Visual flight rules (VFR) operations in Class B airspace. 1 mile visibility, 500 feet below, 1000 feet above, and 2000 feet applies between 1200 feet above ground level (AGL) and 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) during daytime in uncontrolled airspace.
  91. 138. What minimum flight visibility is required for Visual flight rules (VFR) flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL)?

    A. 3 miles.
    B. 1 mile.
    C. 4 miles.
    A. Since an airway is Class E airspace, the minimum visibility below 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) is three statute miles.
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  92. 139. The minimum distance from clouds required for Visual flight rules (VFR) operations on an airway below 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) is

    A. remain clear of clouds.
    B. 500 feet below, 1000 feet above, and 2000 feet horizontally.
    C. 500 feet above, 1000 feet below, and 2000 feet horizontally.
    B. The Visual flight rules (VFR) cloud clearances for Class E airspace apply. Below 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL), you must remain 500 feet below, 1000 feet above, and 2000 feet horizontally
  93. 140. During operations within control airspace at altitudes of more than 1200 feet above ground level (AGL), but less than 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL), the minimum distance above clouds requirement for Visual flight rules (VFR) flight is

    A. 500 feet.
    B. 1000 feet.
    C. 1500 feet.
    B. Below 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) in Class C, D, and E airspace, the cloud clearances are 500 feet below, 1000 feet above, and 2000 feet horizontal. In Class B airspace, however, the cloud clearance is just "clear of clouds".
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  94. 141. Visual flight rules (VFR) flight in controlled airspace above 1200 feet above ground level (AGL) and below 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of

    A. 3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace.
    B. 5 miles, and 1000 feet below or 1000 feet above the clouds at all altitudes.
    C. 5 miles, and 1000 feet below or 1000 feet above the clouds only in Class A airspace.
    A. Below 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) in Class C, D, and E airspace, the cloud clearances are 500 feet below, 1000 feet above, and 2000 feet horizontal. The visibility and cloud clearances for 5 miles apply only above 1200 feet above ground level (AGL) and at or above 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL).
  95. 142. During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1200 feet above ground level (AGL), but less than 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL), the minimum flight visibility for Visual flight rules (VFR) flight at night is

    A. 1 mile.
    B. 5 miles.
    C. 3 miles.
    C. In Class G airspace at these altitudes, night VFR operations require 3-miles visibility. 1 mile is the minimum required for day time at these altitudes. 5 miles is required above 1200 above ground level (AGL) and at or above 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) for both day and night.
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  96. 143. Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for Visual flight rules (VFR) flight above 1200 feet above ground level (AGL) and below 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) during daylight hours is

    A. 5 miles.
    B. 1 mile.
    C. 3 miles.
    B. In uncontrolled airspace below 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) and above 10,000 feet above ground level (AGL), required daytime visibility is one-mile. In Class G airspace at these altitudes night Visual flight rules (VFR) operations require 3 miles visibility. 5 miles is required for 1200 feet above ground level (AGL) and at or above 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) for both day and night.
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  97. 144. During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1200 feet above ground level (AGL), but less than 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL), the minimum distance below clouds requirement for Visual flight rules (VFR) flight at night is

    A. 1500 feet.
    B. 500 feet.
    C. 1000 feet.
    B. At night, in uncontrolled airspace above 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) (both above and below 1200 feet above ground level (AGL)), the Visual flight rules (VFR) cloud clearance is 500 feet below. 1000 feet is the clearance above clouds at these altitudes. 1500 feet is not appropriate.
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  98. 145. The minimum flight visibility required for Visual flight rules (VFR) flights above 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) and more than 1200 feet above ground level (AGL) in controlled airspace is

    A. 1 mile.
    B. 3 miles.
    C. 5 miles.
    C. At or above 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) and above 1200 feet above ground level (AGL), the required visibility is five statute miles, whether in control or uncontrolled airspace.
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  99. 146. For Visual flight rules (VFR) flight operations above 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) and more than 1200 feet above ground level (AGL), the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is

    A. 1 mile.
    B. 2000 feet.
    C. 1000 feet.
    A. Whether in controlled or uncontrolled airspace at these altitudes, the minimum Visual flight rules (VFR) horizontal distance from clouds is one statute mile.
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  100. 147. During operations at altitudes of more than 1200 feet above ground level (AGL) and at or above 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL), the minimum distance above clouds requirement for Visual flight rules (VFR) flight is

    A. 500 feet.
    B. 1500 feet.
    C. 1000 feet.
    C. For Visual flight rules (VFR) flights at these altitudes, whether in controlled airspace or not, you are required to remain 1000 feet above clouds. The only exception is for daytime operations above 1200 feet above ground level (AGL) in uncontrolled airspace. In this case it is clear of clouds.
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  101. 148. No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic Visual flight rules (VFR) at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the

    A. flight visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.
    B. ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles.
    C. ground visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.
    B. To take off or land under Visual flight rules (VFR) in a Class D airspace area, the ceiling must be at least 1000 feet and the ground visibility must be at least 3 statute miles. Flight visibility may be used if ground visibility is not available. 1 statute mile visibility only applies under special Visual flight rules (VFR).
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  102. 149. The basic Visual flight rules (VFR) weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are

    A. 1000-foot ceiling and 3-miles visibility.
    B. 500-foot ceiling and 1-mile visibility.
    C. clear of clouds and 2-miles visibility.
    A. To take off or land under Visual flight rules (VFR) in a Class D airspace area, the ceiling must be at least 1000 feet in the ground visibility must be at least 3 statute miles.
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  103. 150. A special Visual flight rules (VFR) clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate Visual flight rules (VFR) well within Class D airspace when the visibility is

    A. less than 1 mile in the ceiling is less than 1000 feet.
    B. at least 3 miles and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
    C. at least 1 mile an aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
    C. When authorized by ATC, special Visual flight rules (VFR) allows you to operate with 1 statute mile visibility as long as you can remain clear of clouds.
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  104. 151. What is the minimum weather condition required for airplanes operating under special Visual flight rules (VFR) in Class D airspace?

    A. 1-mile flight visibility.
    B. 1-mile flight visibility and 1000-foot ceiling.
    C. 3-miles flight visibility and 1000 foot ceiling.
    A. When authorized by ATC, special Visual flight rules (VFR) allows you to operate with 1 statute mile visibility as long as you can remain clear of clouds.
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  105. 153. What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special Visual flight rules (VFR) in Class D airspace at night?

    A. The pilot must be instrument rated and the airplane must be IRF equipped.
    B. The airplane must be under radar surveillance at all times while in Class D airspace.
    C. The airplane must be equipped with IFR with an altitude reporting transponder.
    A. For special Visual flight rules (VFR) at night, you must have a current instrument rating, and the airplane must be equipped with IFR operations. Radar is not a requirement for Class D airspace. A transponder is not required equipment in Class D airspace.
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  106. 154. No person may operate in airplane within Class D airspace at night under special Visual flight rules (VFR) unless the

    A. flight visibility is at least 3 miles.
    B. flights can be conducted 500 feet above the clouds.
    C. airplane is equipped with instrument flight.
    C. Minimums for special VR at night are the same as for day (1 statute mile visibility and clear of clouds). For special VR at night, you must have a current instrument rating, and the airplane must be equipped with IFR operations.
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  107. 165. An operable 4096 – code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace?

    A. Class A, Class B (and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport), and Class C.
    B. Class D and Class G (below 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL)).
    C. Class D and Class E (below 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL)).
    A. And encoding transponder is required in Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace. It is not required in Class D or Class E airspace.
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  108. 166. With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) must be equipped with

    A. an operable VOR or TACAN receiver and an ADF receiver.
    B. an operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096–code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability.
    C. instruments and equipment required for IFR operations.
    B. An appropriate transponder capable of providing altitude encoding is required to be in use when within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport. VOR or TACAN receiver (ADF is not applicable) is only required for IFR operations within Class B airspace. IFR instruments and equipment are not required for Class B airspace operations.
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  109. 601. What hazards two aircraft may exist in warning areas such as warning W – 50B?

    A. High-volume of pilot training or unusual type of aerial activity.
    B. Unusual, often invisible hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles over international waters.
    C. Heavy military aircraft traffic in the approach and departure area of the North Atlantic Control Area.
    B. Warning areas often contain hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles.
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  110. 602. What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA?

    A. Parachute jumping operations.
    B. High density military training activities.
    C. Unusual, often invisible hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing.
    B. A military operations area (MOA) is a block of airspace in which military training and maneuvers are conducted.
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  111. 603. What type of military flight operations should a pilot expect along IR 644?

    A. IFR training flights above 1500 feet above ground level (AGL) at speeds in excess of 250 knots.
    B. Visual flight rules (VFR) training flights above 1500 feet above ground level (AGL) at speeds less than 250 knots.
    C. Instrument training flights below 1500 feet above ground level (AGL) at speeds in excess of 150 knots.
    A. "IR 644" is a military training route, on which aircraft may fly at speeds above 250 knots. "IR" designates a route used for IFR operations. Since the designation is a three-digit number, the route contains one or more segments above 1500 feet above ground level (AGL). Flights along routes with four digit numbers are conducted below 1500 feet above ground level (AGL). Visual flight rules (VFR) flights are normally conducted on routes designated VR.
  112. 779. The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally

    A. 1200 feet above ground level (AGL).
    B. 3000 feet above ground level (AGL).
    C. 4000 feet above ground level (AGL).
    C. The vertical limit of Class C airspace is 4000 feet above the primary airport. This is the same for both inner and outer circles. 1200 feet above ground level (AGL) is the floor of the outer circle (5 n.m. to 10 n.m. radius).
  113. 780. The normal radius the outer area of Class C airspace is

    A. 15 nautical miles.
    B. 20 nautical miles.
    C. 5 nautical miles.
    B. The outer area of Class C airspace normally extends 20 nautical miles from the primary airport. 5 nautical miles is the dimension of the inner circle, while the outer circle has a radius of 10 nautical miles. 15 nautical miles is not used to define any portion of Class C airspace.
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  114. 782. Under what condition man aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?

    A. The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.
    B. The pilot must file a flight plan prior to departure.
    C. The pilot must monitor ATC until clear of the Class C airspace.
    A. The pilot must establish two-way communications with ATC as soon as practical after takeoff. The pilot is not required to file a flight plan for operating in a Class C airspace.
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  115. 783. Under what conditions, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area?

    A. When flying on airways with an ATC clearance.
    B. Regulations do not allow this.
    C. With the controlling agencies authorization.
    C. The controlling agency may grant permission to fly through a restricted area. Airways do not usually transit a restricted area.
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  116. 785. What actions should the pilot take when operating under Visual flight rules (VFR) in a military operations area?

    A. Obtain a clearance from the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA.
    B. Operate only on the airways the transverse the MOA.
    C. Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.
    C. Due to the possibility of military training activities, pilots operating in a MOA should use extra caution and be alert for other aircraft. Clearance to fly in a MOA is not required.
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  117. 786. Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with

    A. air traffic control.
    B. the controlling agency.
    C. all pilots.
    C. All pilots flying in an alert area, whether participating in activities or transitioning the area, are equally responsible for collision avoidance. Even when operating under Air Traffic Control, pilots are not relieved of their responsibility for collision avoidance.
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  118. 787. The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on

    A. the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.
    B. the number of airports that lie within the Class D airspace.
    C. 5 statute miles from the geographical center of the primary airport.
    A. The actual lateral dimensions of Class D airspace vary with each location, but, in general, Class D airspace is based on the instrument procedures for the airport in that area. To the maximum extent practical and consistent with safety, satellite airports have been excluded from Class D airspace. Five statute miles is the dimension of the old "airport traffic area" designation, which is no longer valid.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  119. 788. A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the

    A. associated Flight Service Station.
    B. primary airports control tower.
    C. satellite airport's UNICOM.
    B. When approaching Class D airspace, you must contact the primary airports control tower before entering the airspace. When departing a non-towered satellite airport, contact the controlling tower as soon as practical after takeoff. Unicom and the Flight Service Station, in this context, do not fit the definition of an ATC facility providing air traffic services
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  120. 799. Which intentional action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace?

    A. Contact the FSS for traffic advisories.
    B. Contact the tower and request permission to enter.
    C. Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency.
    C. Prior to entering Class C airspace, you need to establish contact with approach control. The tower sequences traffic for landing, but is not the facility to contact before entering Class C airspace.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  121. 813. What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special Visual flight rules (VFR) departure clearance in Class D airspace?

    A. Air route traffic control center.
    B. Air traffic control tower.
    C. Automated flight service station.
    B. The control tower is the ATC facility which issues a special Visual flight rules (VFR) clearance.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  122. 571. An aircraft departs an airport in the Eastern Daylight Time zone at 0945 for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the Central Daylight Time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?

    A. 1445Z.
    B. 1545Z.
    C. 1345Z.
    B. To convert the local departure time to UTC, add 4 hours (0945 + 4 = 1345). Two hours later is 1545Z.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  123. 572. An aircraft departs an airport in the Central Standard Time zone at 0930 for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the Mountain Standard Time zone. The landing should be at what time?

    A. 1030 MST.
    B. 0930 MST.
    C. 1130 MST.
    A. Add 2 hours to the 09:30 departure time to find the arrival time of 1130 CST. Since Mountain time is 1 hour earlier than Central, subtract 1 hour, for a landing time of 1030 MST.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  124. 573. An aircraft departs in airport in the Central Standard Time zone at 0845 for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the Mountain Standard Time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?

    A. 1445Z.
    B. 1345Z.
    C. 1645Z.
    C. Departure time (0845) plus 2 hours is 1045 CST. Convert CST to UTC by adding 6 hours, for a landing time of 1645Z.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  125. 574. An aircraft departs in airport in the Mountain Standard Time zone at 1615 for a 2-hour 15-minute flight to an airport located in the Pacific Standard Time zone. The estimated time of arrival at the destination airport should be

    A. 1730 PST.
    B. 1630 PST.
    C. 1830 PST.
    A. Add 2:15 to 1615 MST to find the arrival time of 1830 MST. Since Pacific time is one hour earlier than MST the arrival time is 1730 MST.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  126. 574. An aircraft departs and airport in the Pacific Standard Time zone at 1030 for a 4-hour flight to an airport located in the Central Standard Time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated Universal Time?

    A. 2130Z.
    B. 2230Z.
    C. 2030Z.
    B. Add 4 hours to 1030 PST to find the arrival time of 1430 PST. To convert PST to UTC, at 8 hours. The landing time is 2230Z.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  127. 576. An aircraft departs an airport in the Mountain Standard Time zone at 1515 for a 2-hour 30-minute flight to an airport located in the Pacific Standard Time zone. What is the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport?

    A. 1645 PST.
    B. 1745 PST.
    C. 1845 PST.
    A. Add 2:30 to 1515 MST to find the arrival time of 1745 MST. Convert MST to PST by subtracting 1 hour. The answer is 1645 PST.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  128. 613. When flying HAWK N666CB, the proper phraseology for initial contact with McAlester AFSS is

    A. "MC ALESTER FLIGHT SERVICE STATION, HAWK NOVEMBER SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER."
    B. "MC ALESTER RADIO, HAWK NOVEMBER SIX SIX SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER."
    C. "MC ALESTER STATION, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CEE BEE, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER."
    B. The call sign for a flight service station is its name, followed by the word "radio". The aircraft's full call sign should be given, using the phonetic alphabet.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  129. 614. The correct method for stating 4500 feet MSL to ATC is

    A. "FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED."
    B. "FOUR POINT FIVE."
    C. "FORTY-FIVE HUNDRED FEET MSL."
    A. Altitudes should be stated as individual numbers with a number of hundreds or thousands added as appropriate. In this case, 4500 feet should be read as "FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED."
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  130. 615. The correct method for stating 10,500 feet MSL to ATC is

    A. "TEN POINT FIVE."
    B. "TEN THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED FEET."
    C. "ONE ZERO THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED."
    C. Altitudes should be stated as individual numbers with a number of hundreds or thousands added as appropriate. In addition, for altitudes at or above 10,000 feet MSL, each digit of the thousands is pronounced, so that 10,500 becomes "ONE ZERO THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED."
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  131. 789. Prior to entering an Airport Advisory Area a pilot should

    A. contact the local FSS for airport and traffic advisories.
    B. contact approach control for vectors to the traffic pattern.
    C. monitor ATIS for weather and traffic advisories.
    A. A local non-automated FSS provides airport and traffic advisories for an Airport Advisory Area. An Automatic terminal information service (ATIS) may not be available, and does not give traffic advisories. Whether or not you received assistance from approach control, you should contact the local FSS for airport and traffic advisories.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  132. 837. An ATC clearance provides

    A. Priority over all other traffic.
    B. Authorization to proceed under specific traffic conditions in controlled airspace.
    C. Adequate separation from all traffic.
    B. A clearance is authorization from ATC to operate under specific conditions in controlled airspace. It does not give a pilot priority over all other traffic, as other aircraft may also have an ATC clearance. While the purpose of a clearance is to provide separation from known traffic, it does not guarantee separation from unknown or nonparticipating aircraft.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  133. 111. A steady greenlight signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot

    A. should give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
    B. is cleared to land.
    C. should return for landing.
    B. A steady greenlight while in flight means you are cleared to land. A steady red light would be used to indicate that the pilot should give way to other aircraft and continue circling. A flashing green light would be used to indicate the pilot should return for landing.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  134. 112. Which light signal from the control tower clears the pilot to taxi?

    A. Steady green.
    B. Flashing white.
    C. Flashing green.
    C. While on the ground, a flashing green light means cleared to taxi. A steady green light means cleared for takeoff. A flashing white light means return to the aircraft's starting point on the airport.
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  135. 113. If the control tower uses a light signal to direct the pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be

    A. alternating green and red.
    B. steady red.
    C. flashing red.
    B. While in flight, a steady red light means give way and continue circling. A flashing red light means that the airport is unsafe; do not land. An alternating red and green light means to exercise extreme caution.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  136. 114. A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to

    A. taxi only on taxiways and not across runways.
    B. taxi at a faster speed.
    C. return to the starting point on the airport.
    C. A flashing white light while operating on the ground means return to the starting point on the airport.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  137. 115. An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to

    A. not land; the airport is unsafe.
    B. hold position.
    C. exercise extreme caution.
    C. An alternating red and green signal means the same whether you are in flight or on the ground - exercise extreme caution.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  138. 116. While on final approach for landing, an alternating green and red light followed by a flashing red light is received from the control tower. Under these circumstances, the pilot should

    A. discontinue the approach, fly the same traffic pattern and approach again, and land.
    B. abandon the approach, circle the airport to the right, and expect a flashing white light when the airport is safe for landing.
    C. exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing.
    C. An alternating red and green signal means exercise extreme caution. This is followed by a flashing red signal, which, in flight, means that the airport is unsafe.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  139. 191. No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding

    A. 6 calendar months.
    B. 24 calendar months.
    C. 12 calendar months.
    B. The transponder must have been tested and inspected within the preceding 24 calendar months.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  140. 759. To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in locating an aircraft's position, the aircraft must have a

    A. VOR receiver and DME.
    B. 4096 – code transponder.
    C. VHF transmitter and receiver.
    C. A Very High Frequency Direction Finder (VHF/DF) facilities use a directional antenna and a VHF radio receiver. The equipment displays the direction of the aircraft each time it transmits on its VHF radio. A transponder code will show up on the radar screen, but not on a VHF/DF facility. A VOR (VHF omnidirectional range) and DME (distance measuring equipment) will indicate an aircraft's position relative to a ground station, but is not part of the directional finder facilities on the ground.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  141. 791. ATIS is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning

    A. Nonessential information to reduce frequency congestion.
    B. Pilots of radio identified aircraft whose aircraft is in dangerous proximity to terrain or to an obstruction.
    C. Noncontrol information in selected high activity terminal areas.
    C. Automatic terminal information service (ATIS) is broadcast at certain busy airports, and provides noncontrol weather and runway information.
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  142. 792. An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 090°: "TRAFFIC 3 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, WESTBOUND...". Where should the pilot look for this traffic?

    A. South.
    B. East.
    C. West.
    A. Since the pilot is heading east (090°), the 3 o'clock position is to the right which is south.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  143. 793. An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 360°: "TRAFFIC 10 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND...". Where should the pilot look for this traffic?

    A. Northeast.
    B. SOuthwest.
    C. Northwest.
    C. Since the pilots 12 o'clock position is north the 10 o'clock position is Northwest.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  144. 794. An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying during a local flight: "TRAFFIC 2 O'CLOCK, 5 MILES, NORTHBOUND...". Where should the pilot look for this traffic?

    A. Between directly behind and 90° to the right.
    B. Between directly ahead in 90° to the left.
    C. Between directly ahead 90° to the right.
    C. Since the pilots 12 o'clock is directly ahead and 3 o'clock is 90° to the right, 2 o'clock is approximately 60° right.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  145. 795. An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on north in a calm wind: "TRAFFIC 9 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND...". Where should the pilot look for this traffic?

    A. West.
    B. South.
    C. North.
    A. The pilots 12 o'clock is North, so 9 o'clock is left, or west.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  146. 796. Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as

    A. mandatory radar service provided by the Automated Radar Terminal System (ARTS) program.
    B. traffic advisories and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft.
    C. wind shear warning at participating airports.
    B. Basic radar service for VFR aircraft provides traffic and advisories and limited vectoring on a workload permitting basis. Basic service is not mandatory for VFR aircraft. Wind shear warning is not part of the basic radar service.
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  147. 797. From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request Stage II Terminal Radar Advisory Service during ground operations?

    A. Tower, just before takeoff.
    B. Ground control, on initial contact.
    C. Clearance delivery.
    B. You should notify ground control on initial contact that you are requesting radar traffic information. Clearance delivery normally only provides IFR clearances. ATC needs to forward the clearance delivery request to departure control. Requesting the service just before takeoff could delay either the departure or availability of the service. Note: the terminology for radar service is changing to Basic, TRSA, Class C, and Class B.
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  148. 798. Stage III Service in the terminal radar program provides

    A. Warning to pilots that their aircraft are in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft.
    B. IFR separation (1000 feet vertical and 3 miles lateral) between all aircraft.
    C. Sequencing and separation for participating VFr aircraft.
    C. Stage III service provides sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft. It does not always provide IFR minimum separation, because visual separation is used when conditions permit. Also, separation is not provided between all aircraft, only participating VFR aircraft and all IFR aircraft. Separation is provided from other aircraft, not necessarily from obstacles and terrain. Note: the terminology for radar service is changing to Basic, TRSA, Class C, Class B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  149. 800. When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?

    A. 1200, 1500, 7000.
    B. 7500, 7600, 7700.
    C. 0700, 1700, 7000.
    B. You should avoid inadvertent selection of transponder codes which may set off false alarms at radar facilities. These codes are: 7500 for hijacking, 7600 for radio communication failure, and 7700 for emergencies.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  150. 801. When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected?

    A. 7600.
    B. 1200.
    C. 7700.
    B. The transponder code for VFR aircraft is 1200. Aircraft operating above 18,000 feet MSL are in Class A airspace and must have and IFR clearance. 7600 is the code for radio failure. 7700 is the code for emergencies.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  151. 802. Unless otherwise authorized, if flying a transponder equipped aircraft, a recreational pilot should squawk which VFR code?

    A. 1200.
    B. 7700.
    C. 7600.
    A. The transponder code for VFR aircraft is 1200. Aircraft operating above 18,000 feet MSL are in Class A airspace and must have and IFR clearance. 7600 is the code for radio failure. 7700 is the code for emergencies.
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  152. 803. If air traffic control advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace, the transponder should be set to code

    A. 1200.
    B. 0000.
    C. 4096.
    A. Since you would then be operating under VFR, the transponder should be set to 1200. 0000 is not a designated VFR transponder code. 4096 is the number of discrete codes which are available on a 4 digit transponder with each digit starting at 0 and ending in 7.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  153. 804. If the aircraft radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?

    A. Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower.
    B. Enter a crosswind leg and rock the wings.
    C. Flashed the landing lights and cycle the landing gear while circling the airport.
    A. To avoid conflicts and cause the least disruption in the traffic flow, determine the landing direction, and enter the pattern. Watch the tower for a light signal and acknowledged by rocking the wings. At night, acknowledged by flashing the landing or navigation lights. A crosswind entry is not normal, and rocking the wings is done to acknowledge tower light signals. Flashing lights is an acknowledgment of the tower light signals. Also, cycling the gear is not a signal, and you should stay outside and above the pattern instead of circling the airport when determining traffic flow.
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  154. 811. After landing at a tower controlled airport, when should the pilot contact ground control?

    A. When advised by the tower to do so.
    B. After reaching a taxiway that leads directly to the parking area.
    C. Prior to turning off of the runway.
    A. The tower will normally instruct you to exit the runway and contact ground control. The taxiway used to exit the runway may not lead directly to the parking area, and you must still receive a clearance from ground control to taxi.
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  155. 812. If instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 9, the pilot may proceed

    A. via taxiways and across runways to, but not on to, Runway 9.
    B. to the next intersecting runway where further clearance is required.
    C. via taxiways and across runways to Runway 9, wherein immediate takeoff may be made.
    A. A clearance to taxi to a runway allows the pilot to proceed to that runway and across any intersecting runways. You do not have to hold at it intersecting runway and await clearance. You may not take off because you have neither been cleared to taxi onto the runway or cleared for takeoff.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  156. 819. When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on

    A. 121.5 and 243.0 MHz.
    B. 123.0 and 119.0 MHz.
    C. 118.0 and 118.8 MHz.
    A. The frequencies used for ELTs are the emergency frequencies of 121.5 MHz (VHF) and 243.0 MHz (UHF).
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  157. 820. When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced (or charged if the battery is rechargeable)?

    A. After one half the batteries useful life.
    B. During each annual and 100 hour inspections.
    C. Every 24 calendar months.
    A. The ELT battery must be replaced or recharged after one half the batteries useful life.
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  158. 821. When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested?

    A. Any time.
    B. During the first five minutes after the hour.
    C. At 15 and 45 minutes past the hour.
    B. To prevent false alarms, ELT testing should be conducted only during the first five minutes after any hour.
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  159. 822. Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) has not been activated?

    A. Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown.
    B. Ask the airport tower if they are receiving an ELT signal.
    C. Turn off the aircraft ELT after landing.
    A. By monitoring 121.5, you will be able to hear the ELT signal if it has been activated.
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  160. 247. If the pitot tube outside static events become clogged, which instruments would be affected?

    A. The altimeter, altitude indicator, and turn–and–slip indicator.
    B. The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.
    C. The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and turn–and–slip indicator.
    B. The altimeter, the airspeed indicator, and the vertical speed indicator all use static air and would therefore be affected. The turn-and-slip indicator and altitude indicators do not rely on static error.
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  161. 248. Which instrument will become inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged?

    A. Airspeed.
    B. Altimeter.
    C. Vertical speed.
    A. The airspeed indicator operates by sensing RAM air (impact pressure) in the pitot tube. The altimeter and VSI use pressure readings from the static airports.
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  162. 249. Which instrument(s) will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged?

    A. Altimeter only.
    B. Airspeed only.
    C. Airspeed, altimeter, and vertical speed.
    C. The altimeter, the airspeed indicator, and the vertical speed indicator (VSI) all you static air and would therefore be affected.
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  163. 254. Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates

    A. absolute altitude at field elevation.
    B. true altitude at field elevation.
    C. calibrated altitude at field elevation.
    B. When the current altimeter setting is set on the ground, the altimeter reads true altitude of the field, which is the actual height above mean sea level. There is no such thing as calibrated altitude. Absolute altitude is the actual height above the Earth's surface which would be zero field elevation.
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  164. 255. How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?

    A. Higher temperatures expand the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is higher than the true altitude.
    B. Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than the true altitude.
    C. Low temperatures lower the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.
    B. Because atmospheric pressure levels are raised on warm days, the aircraft will be at a higher altitude than indicated. In other words the indicated altitude is lower than the true altitude.
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  165. 256. What is true altitude?

    A. The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level.
    B. The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.
    C. The height above the standard datum plane.
    A. True altitude is the actual height (vertical distance) above mean sea level. The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface is the absolute altitude. The height above the standard datum plane describes pressure altitude.
  166. 257. What is absolute altitude?

    A. The altitude read directly from the altimeter.
    B. The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.
    C. The height above the standard datum plane.
    B. Absolute altitude is the height (vertical distance) above the surface. The height above the standard datum plane is the pressure altitude.
  167. 258. What is density altitude?

    A. The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.
    B. The altitude read directly from the altimeter.
    C. The height above the standard datum plane.
    A. Density altitude is found by applying a correction for nonstandard temperature to the pressure altitude.
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  168. 259. What is pressure altitude?

    A. The indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure.
    B. The indicated altitude corrected for position and installation error.
    C. The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92.
    C. Pressure altitude is the height above the standard datum plane when 29.92 is set in the scale. The indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure describes density altitude.
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  169. 260. Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude?

    A. When it 18,000 feet MSL with the altimeter set at 29.92.
    B. When at sea level under standard conditions.
    C. If the altimeter has no mechanical error.
    B. At sea level under standard conditions both indicated and true altitude would be zero. The other answers would require correction for nonstandard temperature and pressure.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  170. 261. If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change occurs?

    A. 700-foot increase in indicated altitude.
    B. 70-foot increase in density altitude.
    C. 70-foot increase in indicated altitude.
    A. A 1 inch change of Hg in the altimeter equals 1000 feet of altitude change in the same direction. In this case, you increase the altitude .7 of an inch (29.85 - 29.15 = .7), therefore, the indicated altitude increases 700 feet.
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  171. 262. The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instruments?

    A. Altimeter.
    B. Vertical speed indicator.
    C. Airspeed indicator.
    C. The airspeed indicator senses impact pressure to provide an airspeed reading. The altimeter and vertical speed indicator utilize only static air.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  172. 263. As altitude increases, the indicated air speed at which a given airplane stalls in a particular configuration will

    A. remain the same regardless of altitude.
    B. decrease as the true airspeed decreases.
    C. decrease as the true airspeed increases.
    A. Since airspeed indicators are calibrated to read true airspeed only under standard C level conditions, the indicated airspeed does not reflect lower air density at higher altitudes. As a result, the indicated airspeed of the stall remains the same. Indicated airspeed and true airspeed do not change with an increase in altitude.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  173. 264. What does the red line on the airspeed indicator represent?

    A. Never exceeds speed.
    B. Turbulence and rough airspeed.
    C. Maneuvering speed.
    A. The red line is the never exceeds speed. Maneuvering, turbulence, or rough airspeed's are not displayed on an airspeed indicator.
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  174. 268. What color identifies the never exceeds speed on an airspeed indicator?

    A. Upper limit of the white arc.
    B. Lower limit of the yellow arc.
    C. The red radio line.
    C. The red line is the never exceeds speed, the yellow arc is the caution range and the white arc is the flat operating range.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  175. 269. Which color on an airspeed indicator identifies the power off stalling speed in a specified configuration?

    A. Upper limit of the white arc.
    B. Upper limit of the green arc.
    C. Lower limit of the green arc.
    C. The lower limit of the green arc represents the power off stall speed in a specified configuration (usually flaps up, gear retracted). The upper limit of the green arc is the maximum structural cruising speed. The upper limit of the white arc is the maximum speed with flaps extended.
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  176. 271. What color on an airspeed indicator identifies the normal flap operating range?

    A. The green arc.
    B. The white arc.
    C. The lower limit of the white arc to the upper limit of the green arc.
    B. The white arc indicates the normal flap operating range.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  177. 272. What color on an airspeed indicator identifies the power off stalling speed with the wing flaps and landing gear in the landing configuration?

    A. Lower limit of the white arc.
    B. Upper limit of the white arc.
    C. Upper limit of the green arc.
    A. Stall speed with flaps and gear down is represented by the lower limit of the white arc. The upper limit of the green arc is the maximum structural cruising speed, while the upper limit of the white arc is the maximum flaps extended speed.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  178. 274. What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color-coded on an airspeed indicator?

    A. Never exceed speed.
    B. Maneuvering speed.
    C. Maximum structural cruising speed.
    B. The maneuvering speed of an airplane is not shown on the airspeed indicator. It can be found in the airplane manual or on placards. The never exceed speed is indicated by the red radio line. The maximum structural cruising speed is indicated by the upper limit of the green arc.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  179. 386. What are the standard temperature and pressure values at sea level?

    A. 15°C and 29.92" Hg.
    B. 59°C and 29.92 millibars (mbar).
    C. 59°C and 1013.2 millibars (mbar).
    A. The standard atmosphere is a temperature of 15°C (59°F) and 29.92" Hg (1013.2 mbar).
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  180. 388. Under what condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?

    A. When the atmospheric pressure is 29.92" Hg.
    B. When standard atmospheric conditions exist.
    C. When indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude.
    B. Pressure altitude equals true altitude when standard atmospheric conditions exist. When nonstandard conditions exist, true altitude will not equal pressure altitude. The other answers are wrong because they do not take into account temperatures that derive from standard values.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  181. 390. If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate

    A. The actual altitude above sea level.
    B. Higher than the actual altitude above sea level.
    C. Lower than the actual altitude above sea level.
    C. The aircraft will be at a higher true (actual) altitude above sea level that is indicated. In other words, the altimeter will indicate lower than the actual altitude. The only time the altitude indicates actual (true) altitude is when standard atmospheric conditions exist, and the correct altimeter setting is used.
  182. 391. If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of low pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate

    A. Lower than the actual altitude above sea level.
    B. Higher than the actual altitude above sea level.
    C. The actual altitude above sea level.
    B. Remember, "from high to low lookout below." In other words, the aircraft will be at a lower true (actual) altitude then indicated, so the altimeter indicates higher than actual.
  183. 392. Under what conditions will true altitude below or than indicated altitude?

    A. In colder than standard air temperature.
    B. When density altitude is higher than indicated altitude.
    C. In warmer than standard air temperature.
    A. When air is colder than standard, the aircraft's actual (true) altitude will be lower than indicated. In warmer than standard conditions, true altitude will be higher than indicated. There is not a direct correlation between density altitude and indicated altitude.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  184. 393. Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude?

    A. Atmospheric pressure lower than standard.
    B. Air temperature lower than standard.
    C. Air temperature warmer than standard.
    C. In warmer than standard conditions, true altitude will be higher than indicated. When air is colder than standard, the aircraft's actual (true) altitude will be lower than indicated.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  185. 394. Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport?

    A. A decrease in relative humidity.
    B. An increase in ambient temperature.
    C. An increase in barometric pressure.
    B. Since density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for temperature, it increases with increased temperature. An increase in barometric pressure lowers the pressure altitude. Thus, density altitude would also decrease. Density altitude would increase with an increase in relative humidity.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  186. 275. A turn coordinator provides an indication of the

    A. movement of the aircraft about the yaw and roll axes.
    B. angle of bank up to but not exceeding 30°.
    C. attitude of the aircraft with reference to the longitudinal axis.
    A. The turn indicator senses movement about the vertical axis (yaw) and longitudinal axis (roll). The miniature airplane indicates rate of turn, not angle of bank, which is the attitude of the aircraft in relation to the longitudinal axis.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  187. 276. To receive accurate indications during flight from a heading indicator, the instrument must be

    A. periodically realigned with a magnetic compass as the gyro processes.
    B. set prior to flight on a known heading.
    C. calibrated on a compass rose at regular intervals.
    A. To correct for precision, the pilot must realign the heading indicator with the magnetic compass at regular intervals.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  188. 277. The proper adjustment to make on the attitude indicator during level flight is to align the

    A. miniature airplane to the horizontal bar.
    B. horizon bar to the level flight indication.
    C. horizon bar to the manager airplane.
    A. The miniature airplane is adjustable and should be set to match the level flight indication of the horizontal bar. The horizontal bar is not adjustable, it moves only when the aircraft changes pitch.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  189. 279. Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the

    A. difference in the location between the true North and the magnetic north.
    B. process of flaws in the permanent magnets of the compass.
    C. magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force.
    C. Metal and electronic components in the aircraft create magnetic fields which distort the lines of magnetic force. This causes deviation errors in the compass readings. Deviation is not caused by flaws in the magnets. The difference between true and magnetic north is called variation, not deviation.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  190. 280. In the northern hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if

    A. an aircraft is accelerating while on a north heading.
    B. a left turn is entered from a north heading.
    C. a right turn is entered from a north heading.
    C. When turning from a northerly heading, the compass initially indicates a turn in the opposite direction. When starting a right turn, toward the east, the compass begins to show a turn to the west. Acceleration error does not occur when on a heading of north or south.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  191. 281. In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the east if

    A. an aircraft is accelerating while on the north heading.
    B. an aircraft is decelerating while on the south heading.
    C. a left turn is entered from a north heading.
    C. When turning from a northerly heading, the compass initially indicates a turn in the opposite direction. During a left turn toward the West, the magnetic compass would initially indicate a turn to the east.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  192. 282. In the northern hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if

    A. a left turn is entered from a West heading.
    B. an aircraft is accelerating while on an East or West heading.
    C. a right turn is entered from an East heading.
    B. Acceleration error is most pronounced on East/West headings. Using the acronym ANDS (accelerate - North, decelerate - South), acceleration will show a turn to the north, and deceleration will show a turn to the south. Turning errors are not evident when beginning turns from an East or West heading.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  193. 283. In the northern hemisphere, the magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south when

    A. a right turn is entered from a West heading.
    B. a left turn is entered from an East heading.
    C. the aircraft is decelerated while on a West heading.
    C. Acceleration error is most pronounced on East/West headings. Using the acronym ANDS (accelerate - North, decelerate - South), acceleration will show a turn to the north, and deceleration will show a turn to the south. Turning errors are not evident when beginning turns from an East or West heading.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  194. 284. In the northern hemisphere, if an aircraft is accelerating or decelerating, the magnetic compass will normally indicate

    A. a turn toward the south.
    B. correctly one on a north or south heading.
    C. a turn momentarily.
    B. Since acceleration and deceleration errors are most pronounced on east/west headings, accelerating and decelerating on a north or south heading will not show much of an error on the magnetic compass.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  195. 286. During flight, when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate?

    A. During turns if the bank does not exceed 18°.
    B. Only in straight and level accelerated flight.
    C. As long as the airspeed is constant.
    B. Magnetic dip causes turning and acceleration/deceleration errors. For this reason, magnetic compass indications are accurate only in straight and level on accelerated flight. If the airspeed is constant in a turn, the compass will still show turning errors. Errors will occur during turns regardless of the bank angle.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  196. 221. Excessively high engine temperatures will

    A. cause power loss, excessive oil consumption, and possibly permanent internal engine damage.
    B. cause damage to heat – conducting hoses and warping of the cylinder cooling fins.
    C. not appreciably affect an aircraft engine.
    A. High temperature can cause detonation and a resulting loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and engine damage, including scoring of the cylinders and damage to pistons, rings, and valves.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  197. 222. If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with

    A. higher than normal oil pressure.
    B. the mixture set to rich.
    C. too much power and with the mixture set to lean.
    C. With high power settings and the mixture set to lean, overheating can result. This can be indicated by a high engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature. When the mixture is too rich, temperatures are usually lower than normal. High oil pressure does not normally cause high temperatures. However, low oil levels can cause high oil temperature.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  198. 223. One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for

    A. uniform heat distribution.
    B. improved engine performance.
    C. balanced cylinder head pressure.
    B. Dual ignition systems fire to spark plugs, which improves combustion of the fuel/air mixture and results in slightly more power. The ignition system does not affect heat distribution or cylinder head pressure.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  199. 225. The operating principle of float–type carburetors is based on the

    A. difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet.
    B. automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitude.
    C. increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing an increase in air pressure.
    A. The decreased pressure caused by air flowing rapidly through the venturi tube draws fuel from the flow chamber. Air is not metered at the venturi. The increased air velocity at the venturi throat causes a decrease in air pressure not an increase.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  200. 226. The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to

    A. increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density of the air.
    B. decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.
    C. decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for increased air density.
    B. If fuel flow is not decreased with altitude, the mixture becomes too rich with fuel. Therefore, the fuel measure must be leaned to maintain the proper fuel/air ratio. Air density is decreased with altitude, not increased. Increasing the fuel mixture would further enrich the error/fuel mixture.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  201. 227. During the run-up at a high elevation airport, a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat checked. Under these circumstances, what would be the most logical initial action?

    A. Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture.
    B. Reduce manifold pressure to control detonation.
    C. Taxi back to the flight line for maintenance check.
    A. In this case, engine roughness is probably caused by the mixture set to Rich for the high-altitude. When the carburetor heat is turned on, the warm air entering the carburetor is less dense, and the mixture is further enriched. As a result, the engine roughness increases. The problem can usually be corrected by leaving the mixture. Detonation is the result of a mixture that is too late.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  202. 228. While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a dissent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?

    A. The excessively rich mixture will create higher cylinder head temperatures and may cause detonation.
    B. The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.
    C. There will be more fuel in the cylinders than is needed for normal operation, and the excess fuel will absorb heat and cool the engine.
    B. With a decrease in altitude, air density increases. This means you will have to enrich the mixture as you to send, otherwise the fuel/air mixture can become excessively lean.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  203. 229. Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing?

    A. Temperature between 20° and 70°F and high humidity.
    B. Any temperature below freezing and a relative humidity of less than 50%.
    C. Temperature between 32° and 50°F and low humidity.
    A. Carburetor icing is most likely between 20°F and 70°F in high humidity conditions the other answers are incorrect because carburetor icing is less likely with low humidity.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  204. 230. The possibility of carburetor icing exists even when the ambient air temperature is as

    A. high as 70°F and the relative humidity is high.
    B. high as 95°F and there is visible moisture.
    C. low as 0°F and the relative humidity is high.
    A. Icing is more probable below 70°F with high humidity the possibility of carburetor icing decreases below 32°F, down to 20°F. At 0°F, the humidity is generally low.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  205. 231. If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed – pitch propeller and a float – type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be

    A. a drop in oil temperature and cylinder head temperature.
    B. engine roughness.
    C. loss of RPM.
    C. The restricted airflow through the carburetor causes an enriched mixture and loss of RPM. While a drop in temperatures may result, they will not be the first indication of carburetor ice. Engine roughness may develop later, but will not be the first indication of perforator ice.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  206. 232. Applying carburetor heat will

    A. not affect the fuel/air mixture.
    B. result in more air going through the carburetor.
    C. enrich the fuel/air mixture.
    C. When the carburetor heat is turned on, the warmer air entering the carburetor is less dense, the mixture is enriched. The result would be less air going through the carburetor not more air.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  207. 233. What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carburetor heat is applied?

    A. The fuel/air mixture becomes leaner.
    B. A decrease in RPM results from the lean mixture.
    C. The fuel/air mixture becomes richer.
    C. When the carburetor heat is turned on, the warmer air entering the carburetors less dense, the mixture is enriched.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  208. 234. Generally speaking, the use of carburetor he tends to

    A. decrease engine performance.
    B. have no effect on engine performance.
    C. increase engine performance.
    A. Since the warmer air entering the carburetor is less dense, the fuel/air mixture is enriched and power decreases.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  209. 235. The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed–pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting

    A. an increase in RPM and then a general decrease in RPM.
    B. a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.
    C. a decrease in RPM and then a constant RPM indication.
    B. When carburetor he is first applied, the mixture is enriched, and RPM decreases. Then, as the ice melts, airflow into the carburetor increases, leaning the mixture, and RPM increases.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  210. 236. With regard to carburetor ice, float – type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be

    A. more susceptible to icing.
    B. susceptible to icing only when visible moisture is present.
    C. equally susceptible to icing.
    A. Because fuel injection systems do not have a Venturi throat, they are not as susceptible to icing as float – type carburetors. Icing is possible when the humidity is high, regardless of whether visible moisture is present or not.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  211. 237. If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause

    A. detonation.
    B. a mixture of fuel and air that is not uniform in all cylinders.
    C. lower cylinder head temperatures.
    A. The higher the grade of fuel, the more pressure it can withstand without detonating. Conversely, low fuel grades are more prone to detonation. When detonation occurs, cylinder head temperatures increase.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  212. 238. Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when

    A. the spark plugs are filed or shorted out or the wiring is defective.
    B. hotspots in the combustion chamber at night the fuel/air mixture in advance of normal ignition.
    C. the unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally.
    C. Detonation occurs when the fuel/air mixture suddenly explodes in the cylinder instead of burning smoothly. When the fuel ignites in advance of normal ignition this is called pre-ignition.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  213. 239. If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during climb out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to

    A. lower than those slightly to increase airspeed.
    B. apply carburetor heat.
    C. lean the mixture.
    A. Detonation occurs when the engine overheats. One action to help cool the engine is to increase airspeed, thus increasing the cooling airflow around the engine. Detonation can result from a mixture that is to lead. Because carburetor heat tends to increase engine temperature applying carburetor heat makes the problem worse.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  214. 240. The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as

    A. detonation.
    B. combustion.
    C. pre-ignition.
    C. Preignition occurs when the fuel/air mixture ignites too soon. Combustion is the normal burning of the mixture. Detonation occurs when fuel explodes instead of burning smoothly.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  215. 244. For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on

    A. air flowing over the exhaust manifold.
    B. a properly functioning thermostat.
    C. the circulation of lubricating oil.
    C. Engine oil lubricates moving parts, reduces friction, and remove some of the heat from the cylinders. Reciprocating aircraft engines are not normally equipped with thermostats. Outside air is important for engine cooling, but the air is primarily directed to the hottest parts of the engine, especially the cylinders.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  216. 245. An abnormal high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by

    A. operating with an excessively rich mixture.
    B. the oil level being too low.
    C. operating with a too high viscosity oil.
    B. If the oil level is too low, it can cause high engine oil temperatures. While it is important to use the proper oil height and weight, it is not as likely to cause abnormally high temperatures as a loyal rich mixture tends to cool the engine slightly instead of causing high temperatures.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  217. 651. What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during the climb?

    A. Reduce climb speed and increase RPM.
    B. Increase climb speed and increase RPM.
    C. Reduced rate of climb and increase airspeed.
    C. Reducing the rate of climb and increasing airspeed will increase the cooling airflow around the engine. Increasing RPM will increase engine temperature. Reducing the climb speed reduces the cooling airflow which could result in a hotter engine.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  218. 652. What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating?

    A. Reduce the airspeed.
    B. Enrich the fuel mixture.
    C. Increase the RPM.
    B. A richer fuel mixture burns at a slightly lower temperature and helps cool the engine.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  219. 653. How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller?

    A. The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge of the propeller control regulates a constant blade angle.
    B. The throttle controls engine RPM as registered on the tachometer and the mixture control regulates the power output.
    C. The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM.
    C. The throttle controls the power output of the engine, which is indicated on the manifold pressure gauge. The propeller control changes the pitch of the propeller blades, thus controlling engine RPM, which is indicated on the tachometer. The propeller control does not maintain a constant blade angle. Rather, it varies pitch to maintain a constant speed. The throttle does not directly control engine RPM, and the mixture control is not used to regulate power.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  220. 654. What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller?

    A. Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance.
    B. Provides a smoother operation with stable RPM and eliminates vibration.
    C. Permits the pilot to select and maintain a desired cruising speed.
    A. By selecting the propeller blade angle, the pilot can convert a high percentage of the engine power into thrust over a wide range of RPM and airspeed combinations. This allows the most efficient performance to be gained from the engine. A constant-speed propeller is not necessary for maintaining a desired airspeed.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  221. 655. A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller is to

    A. avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM.
    B. always use a rich mixture with high RPM settings.
    C. avoid high RPM settings with high manifold pressure.
    A. For a given RPM setting, there is a maximum allowable manifold pressure. Generally, high manifold pressures with low RPM should be avoided to prevent internal stresses within the engine. I manifold pressures are allowable with high RPM settings, within limits. The mixture should be leaned for optimum performance.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  222. 656. What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?

    A. Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.
    B. Place the magneto or engine switch momentarily in the opposition to check for proper grounding.
    C. Test each brake in the parking brake.
    A. Immediately after starting the engine, set the proper RPM and check engine gauges for proper indications.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  223. 657. Should it become necessary to hand prop an airplane engine, it is extremely important that a competent pilot

    A. call "contact" before touching the propeller.
    B. be in the cockpit and callout all commands.
    C. be at the controls in the cockpit.
    C. When hand propping an airplane, a competent pilot must be at the control to prevent the airplane from moving and to set the engine controlled properly. The person propping the engine does not have to be a pilot nor do they have to call contact. Since the pilot must be at the controls, not just in the cockpit, the person hand propping the engine is in charge of the starting procedure.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  224. 224. On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, the practice of running a fuel tank dry before switching tanks is considered unwise because

    A. the engine-driven fuel pump or electric fuel boost pump may draw air into the fuel system and cause vapor lock.
    B. the engine-driven fuel pump is lubricated by fuel and operating on a dry tank may cause pump failure.
    C. any foreign matter in the tank will be pumped into the fuel system.
    A. The greatest danger in running a fuel tank dry is that error can enter the fuel system and cause vapor lock. The other answers can be problems but these are secondary concerns compared to vapor lock.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  225. 241. Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature an engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating range?

    A. Using fuel that has a higher than specified fuel rating.
    B. Operating with higher than normal oil pressure.
    C. Using fuel that has a lower than specified fuel rating.
    C. Lower grade fuels will detonate under less pressure. Using a lower fuel rating than specified can cause excessive engine temperature. A high oil pressure may be an indication of a problem, but is not as likely to cause excessive temperatures as a lower grade fuel.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  226. 242. What type fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available?

    A. Unleaded automotive gas of the same octane rating.
    B. The next lower octane aviation gas.
    C. The next higher octane aviation gas.
    C. If the manufacturers recommendations are followed, the next higher grade of fuel main normally be used. Automotive gas is not normally recommended.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  227. 243. Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will

    A. Prevent expansion of the fuel by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
    B. Prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
    C. Force any existing water to the top of the tank away from the fuel lines to the engine.
    B. As the airplane cools overnight, water condenses in the tanks from vapor in the air and enters the fuel. Filling the tanks eliminates the airspace and prevents condensation. Filling the tanks would not force any excess water to the top of the tank because water is heavier than fuel and would settle at the bottom of the tank.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

Card Set Information

Author:
Dienekes
ID:
327104
Filename:
Airmen Knowledge
Updated:
2017-02-15 05:37:42
Tags:
Airplane Pilot
Folders:
pilot
Description:
FAA Airmen Knowledge Study Guide
Show Answers:

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