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  1. Why are HLA antibodies not more of a problem in the transfusion of RBCs?

    A) There are few if any HLA antigens on the surface of the RBC
    B) They react at low temperatures
    C) HLA antigens are removed by the filter on the RBC unit at the time of transfusion
    D) They are mostly IgM antibodies
    A) There are few if any HLA antigens on the surface of the RBC
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. During storage, the concentration of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) decreases in a unit of:

    A) Red Blood Cells
    B) Platelets
    C) Fresh frozen plasma
    D) Cryoprecipitated AHF
    A) Red Blood Cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. The optimum storage temperature for platelets is:

    A) -20C
    B) -12C
    C) 22C
    D) 4C
    C) 22C
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. Red Blood Cells, Deglycerolized, that was frozen and then thawed in an open system has an outdate of:

    A) 24 hours
    B) 10 years
    C) 42 days
    D) 6 days
    A) 24 hours
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. A patient is suspected of having paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH). Which pattern of reactivity is characteristic of the Donath-Landsteiner antibody, which causes this condition?

    A) The IgG antibodies attach to RBCs at 37C and cause hemolysis
    B) The IgG antibodies attach to RBCs at lower temperatures and cause hemolysis at 37C.
    C) The IgG antibodies attach to RBCs at 37C and cause agglutination at the AHG phase
    D) The IgM antibodies attach to RBCs at lower temperatures and cause hemolysis at 37C
    B) The IgG antibodies attach to RBCs at lower temperatures and cause hemolysis at 37C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. If a group DCe/dce man marries a dce/dce woman, what percentage of their offspring can be expected to be D-negative?

    A) 0%
    B) 75%
    C) 50%
    D) 25%
    C) 50%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. What type of immunoglobulin can appear in pentameric form, with identical monomers joined by J chain?

    A) IgG
    B) IgM
    C) IgE
    D) IgD
    B) IgM
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. A weakly reactive anti-D is detected in a postpartum specimen from an Rh-negative woman. During her prenatal period, antibody screening tests were negative. These findings indicate:

    A) the presence of Rh-positive cells in her circulation
    B) that she is NOT a candidate for Rh immune globulin
    C) a need for further investigation to determine candidacy for Rh immune globulin
    D) that she is a candidate for Rh immune globulin
    C) a need for further investigation to determine candidacy for Rh immune globulin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH) is best associated with which of the following blood groups?

    A) Kell
    B) P
    C) I/i
    D) Duffy
    B) P
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. A patient (not recently transfused) has life-threatening anemia due to warm autoantibodies. The patient's plasma reacts 2+ in the antiglobulin phase of testing with all cells on a routine panel. A technique that would be beneficial in preparing the patient's plasma for further alloantibody identification testing is:

    A) autoadsorption using the patient's ZZAP-treated red cells
    B) adsorption using enzyme-treated red cells from a random donor
    C) autoadsorption using the patient's LISS-treated red cells
    D) adsorption using methyldopa-treated red cells
    A) autoadsorption using the patient's ZZAP-treated red cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. A unit of whole blood is spun using a hard spin, and the plasma is removed into a transfer pack 24 hours after collection. The plasma unit is then frozen solid and later thawed at 4C, at which time the liquid portion is removed. The remainder of the plasma unit should be:

    A) placed in the refrigerator and labeled liquid plasma
    B) labeled as cryoprecipitated AHF and frozen at -30C
    C) discarded due to incorrect preparation
    D) labeled as fresh frozen plasma and frozen at -18C
    C) discarded due to incorrect preparation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. Which of the following is part of the adaptive immune response?

    A) neutrophils
    B) plasma cells
    C) defensins
    D) natural killer cells
    B) plasma cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. A patient is typed as group O, Rh-positive and crossmatched with 6 units of blood. At the indirect antiglobulin (IAT) phase of testing, both antibody screening cells and two crossmatched units are incompatible. What is the most likely cause of the incompatibility?

    A) recipient alloantibody
    B) donors have positive DATs
    C) recipient autoantibody
    D) rouleaux
    A) recipient alloantibody
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. Using the specified anticoagulant/preservative, indicate the allowable shelf life for blood for transfusion therapy: CPD (citrate phosphate dextrose)

    A) Not an approved anticoagulant
    B) 42 days
    C) 21 days
    D) 35 days
    C) 21 days
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. For plateletpheresis donors, the pretransfusion platelet count must be at least:

    A) 300 x 10^3 /μL
    B) 200 x 10^3 /μL
    C) 250 x 10^3 /μL
    D) 150 x 10^3 /μL
    D) 150 x 10^3 /μL
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. Congestive heart failure, severe headache, and/or pulmonary edema occurring soon after transfusion is indicative of which type of transfusion reaction?

    A) anaphylactic
    B) hemolytic
    C) febrile
    D) circulatory overload
    D) circulatory overload
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. A group B, Rh-negative donor has a positive DAT. Which of the following situations would occur?

    A) the antibody screening test would be positive
    B) the forward and reverse ABO groupings would not agree
    C) the Du test and control would be positive
    D) all major crossmatches would be incompatible
    C) the Du test and control would be positive
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. Which patient's genotype could produce anti-c alloantibody after RBC transfusion?
    • a) CDe/CDe
    • b) Cde/cDE
    • c) cDE/cde
    • d) cde/cde
    • a) CDe/CDe
  19. Should an Rh D negative woman who has just had a miscarriage receive RhIg?

    A) Yes, but only a minidose regardless of trimester
    B) No, RhIg is given for term pregnancies only
    C) No, the type of the baby is unknown
    D) Yes, but only if she does not already have immune anti-D from a previous pregnancy
    D) Yes, but only if she does not already have immune anti-D from a previous pregnancy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. Which antibodies are formed by a Bombay individual?

    A) Anti-A and anti-B
    B) Anti-A,B
    C) Anti-A, anti-B, anti-A,B, and anti-H
    D) Anti-H
    C) Anti-A, anti-B, anti-A,B, and anti-H
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. Which condition would most likely be responsible for the following typing results?

    Patient's cells - Anti-A=neg, Anti-B=neg
    Patient's serum - A1 cells=neg, B cells=4+

    A) Masking of antigens by the presence of massive amounts of antibody
    B) Weak antigen
    C) Impossible to determine
    D) Immunodeficiency
    B) Weak antigen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. Why is an additional reagent (anti-human globulin) required for reactions that detect IgG?

    A) IgG can only be detected after prolonged incubation
    B) IgG is a direct agglutinin
    C) IgG can bind only half as many antigens as IgM
    D) AHG reagent works to crosslink IgG molecules bound to RBCs
    D) AHG reagent works to crosslink IgG molecules bound to RBCs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. IgG (Coombs) control cells:

    A) are coated only with IgG antibody
    B) must be used to confirm all positive Coombs' reactions
    C) can be used only for the indirect Coombs' test
    D) can be used as a positive control for anti-C3 reagents
    A) are coated only with IgG antibody
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. What blood type is not possible for an offspring of AO and BO persons?

    A) O
    B) A or B
    C) All are possible
    D) AB
    C) All are possible
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. Anti-E is identified in a panel at the antiblobulin phase. When check cells are added to the negative tubes, no agglutination is seen. The most appropriate course of action would be to:

    A) Open a new vial of AHG for subsequent testing that day
    B) Open a new vial of check cells for subsequent testing that day
    C) Quality control the AHG reagent and check cells, then repeat the panel
    D) Record the check cell reactions and report the antibody panel result
    C) Quality control the AHG reagent and check cells, then repeat the panel
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. A blood donor tests positive for weak D, but also appears to have anti-D in his serum. What may be the problem?

    A) Blocked-D typing phenomenon
    B) The problem could be due to a disease state
    C) A D mosaic may make antibodies to missing antigen parts
    D) Most weak D individuals make anti-D
    C) A D mosaic may make antibodies to missing antigen parts
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. An acid elution stain was made using a 1-hour postdelivery maternal blood sample. Two thousand cells were counted and thirty of these cells appeared to contain fetal hemoglobin. Your medical center adds one vial of Rh immune globulin to the calculated dose when the estimated volume of the hemorrhage exceeds 20 ml of whole blood. Calculate the number of vials of Rh immune globulin that would be indicated under these circumstances

    A) 5
    B) 2
    C) 3
    D) 4
    D) 4
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. Glycophorin B is associated with the antigenic activity of:

    A) Ss
    B) MN
    C) Wra/Wrb
    D) Lua/Lub
    A) Ss
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. Resistance to malaria is best associated with which of the following blood groups?

    A) Rh
    B) P
    C) Duffy
    D) I/i
    C) Duffy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. According to AABB standards, which of the following donors may be accepted as an allogeneic (random)blood donor?

    A) current: Hgb 11.5 Hct 36
    B) resides with a known hepatitis patient
    C) donated a unit of whole blood three months ago
    D) received a blood transfusion 22 weeks previously
    C) donated a unit of whole blood three months ago
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. It is generally asymptomatic but has a very high carrier rate (70-80% have chronic infections). About 10% of the carriers develop cirrhosis or hepatocellular carcinoma. These statements are most typical of which of the following transfusion-transmitted infections?

    A) HCV
    B) HAV
    C) HBV
    D) HEV
    A) HCV
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. An exchange transfusion is indicated for an infant weighing 1000 g at birth. The donor blood must meet all of the following criteria except:

    A) CMV-negative
    B) O-negative units, less than 5 days old
    C) Irradiated
    D) HLA-matched
    D) HLA-matched
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. The following results were obtained when typing a patient's blood sample.

    Cell typing - anti-A=4+, anti-B=2+
    Serum typing - A1 cells=0, B cells=4+

    The tech suspects that this is a case of an acquired B antigen. Which of the following would support this suspicion?

    A) Secretor studies show that the patient is a nonsecretor
    B) A patient diagnosis of leukemia
    C) A positive autocontrol test
    D) The patient's red cells give a negative result with a monoclonal anti-B reagent lacking the ES-4 clone
    D) The patient's red cells give a negative result with a monoclonal anti-B reagent lacking the ES-4 clone
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. Which of the following is the best source of HLA-compatible platelets?

    A) mother
    B) cousins
    C) siblings
    D) father
    C) siblings
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. The HLA complex shows strong associations with which blood groups?

    A) Rodgers
    B) MN
    C) Bg
    D) Duffy
    C) Bg
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. What type of routine testing does the blood bank technologist perform when determining the blood group of a patient?

    A) Both genotyping and phenotyping
    B) Phenotyping
    C) Genotyping
    D) Depends on the type of test request
    B) Phenotyping
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. A unit of packed cells is split into two aliquots under closed sterile conditions at 8AM. The expiration time for each aliquot is now:

    A) the original date of the unsplit unit
    B) 4PM on the same day
    C) 8 AM the next morning
    D) 8PM on the same day
    A) the original date of the unsplit unit
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. Which blood component is most effective in treating a patient with von Willebrand's disease?

    A) Stored Plasma
    B) Platelets
    C) Whole Blood
    D) Cryoprecipitated AHF
    D) Cryoprecipitated AHF
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. How would autoantibodies affect compatibility testing?

    A) Screen cells would always be positive
    B) Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT) is usually negative
    C) No effect
    D) All tests (ABO, Rh, screen cells, DAT, crossmatch) may show abnormal results
    D) All tests (ABO, Rh, screen cells, DAT, crossmatch) may show abnormal results
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. Which of the following medications can cause production of warm autoantibodies?

    A) cephalothin
    B) methyldopa
    C) tetracycline
    D) penicillin
    B) methyldopa
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. Which of the following would be the best source of Platelets for transfusion in the case of alloimmune neonatal thrombocytopenia?

    A) mother
    B) pooled platelet-rich plasma
    C) father
    D) polycythemic donor
    A) mother
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. Hemolysis of the red cell occurs when which components of complement are attached?

    A) C1
    B) C3
    C) C8-C9
    D) C4-C2
    C) C8-C9
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. Is there a discrepancy between the following blood typing and secretor study results? Blood typing results:
    Anti-A=4+, Anti-B=0, A1 cell=0, B cell=4+

    Secretor inhibition test results:
    Anti-A + saliva + A1 cells=0, Anti-B + saliva + B cells=4+, Anti-H + saliva + O cells=0

    A) Blood types as A1, but secretor study is inconclusive
    B) Blood types as A and saliva types as B
    C) No problem, the sample is from a group A secretor
    D) No problem, the sample is from a group A nonsecretor
    C) No problem, the sample is from a group A secretor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. What ABO type(s) may donate red cells to any other ABO type?

    A) O-negative
    B) AB-negative, A-negative, B-negative
    C) AB-negative
    D) A-negative, B-negative, AB-negative, or O-negative
    A) O-negative
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. Which occurs first following an intravascular hemolytic transfusion reaction?

    A) urinary excretion of hemosiderin
    B) increase in urine hemoglobin
    C) decrease in serum bilirubin
    D) reduction in plasma haptoglobin concentration
    D) reduction in plasma haptoglobin concentration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. Which of the following is true about plasma for transfusion?

    A) Thawed 5 day plasma is preferred for volume expander or protein replacement
    B) Group O plasma is compatible with any recipient
    C) Should be ABO compatible with the patient's RBCs 
    D) Frozen plasma (less than 24 hours) is the best source for Factor VIII for hemophilia treatment
    C) Should be ABO compatible with the patient's RBCs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

Card Set Information

Author:
victimsofadown
ID:
327300
Filename:
BB00 - Rotation
Updated:
2017-01-10 04:33:28
Tags:
BB00 Rotation
Folders:
TESTS,BB
Description:
BB00 - Rotation
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