M00 - Combo Rotation Exam

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  1. An antibiotic used to suppress or kill contaminating fungi in media is:

    A) amphotericin B
    B) Kanamycin
    C) streptomycin
    D) penicillin
    A) amphotericin B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. A first morning sputum is received for culture of acid fast bacilli. It is digested and concentrated by the Nacetyl L cysteine alkali method. Two Sabouraud dextrose slants are incubated in the dark at 35°C with 5%10%CO . The smears reveal acid fast bacilli, but the slants show no growth after 8 weeks. The explanation is:

    A) improper media used
    B) incorrect concentration procedure used
    C) improper specimen submitted
    D) exposure to CO2 prevents growth
    A) improper media used
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. Which of the following reagents is added to detect the production of indole?

    A) potassium hydroxide creatine
    B) alpha naphthalamine
    C) p Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
    D) sulfanilic acid
    C) p Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. Organisms that should be considered in a waterborne outbreak of diarrheal disease include:

    A) Giardia lamblia and Cryptosporidium parvum
    B) Blastocystis hominis and Trichomonas vaginalis
    C) Entamoeba nana and Entamoeba histolytica
    D) Trypanosoma gondii and Schistosoma mansoni
    A) Giardia lamblia and Cryptosporidium parvum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. What are the most appropriate screening tests to presumptively differentiate and identify the nonfermentative gram negative bacilli from the Enterobacteraciae?

    A) Motility, urease, morphology on blood agar
    B) Oxidase, TSI, nitrate reduction , growth Correct! on MacConkey agar
    C) Catalase, decarboxylation of Arginine, growth on blood agar
    D) Oxidase, indole, and growth on MacConkey agar
    B) Oxidase, TSI, nitrate reduction , growth Correct! on MacConkey agar
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. A lactose negative, motile, Gram negative rod was isolated from stool. The following tests were inoculated resulting in the following:
    TSI K/
    A H S (trace)
    citrate, urea, VP = ve
    Phenylalanine deaminase and arginine dehydrogenase = ve
    indole, ornithine and lysine decarboxylase = +ve

    Which organism is it likely to be?

    a) Edwardsiella tarda
    b) Salmonella typhi
    c) Proteus mirabilis
    d) Yersinia enterocolitica
    a) Edwardsiella tarda
  7. Routine laboratory testing for Treponema pallidum involves:

    A) Culturing
    B) Gram staining
    C) Serological analysis
    D) Acid fast staining
    C) Serological analysis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. A Gram positive coccus that is B-hemolytic on sheep blood agar and is frequently associated with meningitis in a newborn is most likely:

    A) Staphylococcus aureus
    B) Streptococcus agalactiae
    C) Group A Strep
    D) Enterococcus fecalis
    B) Streptococcus agalactiae
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. DFA is used for the detection of:

    A) antibody
    B) secondary antibody
    C) antigen
    d) any of the above
    C) antigen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. HIV may be diagnosed by

    A) All of the above
    B) ELISA antibody tests
    C) RT-PCR
    D) HIV p24 antigen test
    A) All of the above
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. Biochemically, the Enterobacteriaceae are gramnegativerods that:

    A) Ferment lactose, reduce nitrite to nitrogen gas, and are oxidase positive
    B) Ferment glucose, reduce nitrate to nitrite and are oxidase negative.
    C) ferment glucose and produce gas, produce indole, and are oxidase negative
    D) Ferment lactose, produce indole and urease, and are catalase negative
    B) Ferment glucose, reduce nitrate to nitrite and are oxidase negative.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. Kanamycin inhibits bacterial growth by:

    A) Interfering with protein synthesis
    B) Interfering with cell wall synthesis
    C) Interfering with folate synthesis
    D) Interfering with DNA synthesis
    A) Interfering with protein synthesis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. A 23 year old female is seen by her physician for symptoms of uncomplicated cystitis. A culture of her urine grew a Gram positive coccus, which would most likely be

    A) Staphylococcus epidermidis
    B) Staphylococcus aureus
    C) Staphylococcus saprophyticus
    D) Enterococcus faecalis
    C) Staphylococcus saprophyticus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. Subacute endocarditis is most frequently associated with

    A) Coxiella burnetii
    B) Haemophilus aphrophilus
    C) Staphylococcus aureus
    D) viridans streptococci
    D) viridans streptococci
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. Fecal cultures are inoculated on thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose agar specifically for the isolation of

    A) Vibrio species
    B) Campylobacter species
    C) Salmonella species
    D) Shigella species
    A) Vibrio species
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. Identify the swarming gramnegativebacillus that can be described as
    oxidase=negative
    nitrate=positive
    indole=negative
    H2S=positive.

    A) Morganella morganii
    B) Proteus vulgaris.
    C) Proteus mirabilis.
    D) Edwardsiella tarda.
    C) Proteus mirabilis.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. The presence of HbsAg, anti HBc and often Hbe Ag is characteristic of:

    A) early convalescent phase of HBV hepatitis
    B) early acute HBV hepatitis
    C) carrier state of acute HBV hepatitis
    D) recovery phase of acute HBV hepatitis
    B) early acute HBV hepatitis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. Which of the following are NOT characteristics of group D enterococci:

    A) growth in 6.5% NaCl
    B) CAMP positive
    C) bile esculin positive
    D) sodium hippurate negative
    B) CAMP positive
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. TSI tubes were inoculated with isolates recovered from a stool specimen. They were incubated at 35°C o/n aerobically. Indicate the appropriate interpretation of the tubes shown. Tube "C" is an uninoculated control; NC = no change.

    Image Upload



    A) tube 1 K/NC, tube 2 K/A, tube 3 K/A H S, tube 4 A/A Gas
    B) tube 1 A/NC, tube 2 A/K, tube 3 A/A H S, tube 4 K/K
    C) tube 1K/NC, tube 2 A/K, tube 3 K/A H S, tube 4 A/A Gas
    D) tube 1K/K, tube 2 K/A Gas, tube 3 K/H S, tube 4 A/A Gas
    A) tube 1 K/NC, tube 2 K/A, tube 3 K/A H S, tube 4 A/A Gas
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. The method most often used to check for a protective immune response (sufficiently high IgG levels) against most childhood viral diseases is

    A) skin test
    B) EIA
    C) PCR
    D) Western Blot
    B) EIA
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. Image Upload



    A) Malassezia furfur
    B) Candida glabrata
    C) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
    D) Candida albicans
    D) Candida albicans
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. Which Gram negative bacilli produce black pigment and brick red fluorescence when exposed to an UV light source?

    A) Bacteroides & Fusobacterium
    B) Clostridium & Bacteroides
    C) Prevotella & Porphrymonas
    D) Fusobacterium & Actinomyces
    C) Prevotella & Porphrymonas
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. Which of the following could be used for the routine isolation and speciation of yeast?

    A) 5% SBA
    B) potato dextrose agar
    C) niger seed agar
    D) CHROM agar
    D) CHROM agar
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. Colonies of Neisseria sp. turn color when a redox dye is applied. The color change is indicative of the activity of the bacterial enzyme

    A) Cytochrome oxidase
    B) Urease
    C) Phenylalanine deaminase
    D) Beta galactosidase
    A) Cytochrome oxidase
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. The etiologic agent of whooping cough is:

    A) Francisella tularensis
    B) Brucella suis
    C) Haemophilus ducreyi
    D) Bordetella pertussis
    D) Bordetella pertussis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. An infant was hospitalized with a severe, tender erythema that started on the face and then spread to the trunk and extremities. The child's epidermis was loose, and large areas of skin could be peeled off, leaving the sensitive underlying dermis exposed. The condition described is most consistent with a clinical syndrome associated with which organism?

    A) Bacillus anthracis
    B) Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
    C) Staphylococcus aureus
    D) Streptococcus pyogenes
    C) Staphylococcus aureus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. "Chinese letters" best describe which of the following seen on Gram stain?

    A) Bacillus anthracis
    B) Listeria monocytogenes
    C) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
    D) Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
    C) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. In Complement fixation, what are the expected results from the positive and negative control?

    A) Positive – button / Negative – no button
    B) Positive – lysis / Negative – no lysis
    C) Positive - no lysis / Negative – lysis
    D) Positive – no button / Negative – button
    C) Positive - no lysis / Negative – lysis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. IFA differs from DFA in that:

    A) Live and dead virus can be detected in the patient sample
    B) Live virus must be grown from patient samples before the technique can be performed
    C) Fluorescent antibodies are used to visualize a positive result
    D) Antibodies to the virus of interest are detected
    D) Antibodies to the virus of interest are detected
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. A single codon is made up of how many nucleotides?

    A) one
    B) six
    C) two
    D) three
    D) three
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. The most common etiologic agent of infections associated with the surgical insertion of prosthetic devices such as artificial heart valves and cerebrospinal fluid shunts is

    A) Staphylococcus epidermidis
    B) Staphylococcus aureus
    C) Streptococcus mutans
    D) Streptococcus pneumoniae
    A) Staphylococcus epidermidis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. Rickettsiae infecting man multiply preferentially within which of the following cells?:

    A) hepatic
    B) reticuloendothelial
    C) renal tubule
    D) endothelial
    D) endothelial
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. Primary amoebicmeningoencephalitis(PAM) may be caused by:

    A) Entamoeba coli
    B) Dientamoeba fragilis
    C) Naegleria fowleri
    D) Endolimax nana
    C) Naegleria fowleri
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. A leg wound culture from a hospitalized 70 year old diabetic man grew motile, lactose negative colonies on MacConkey agar. Given the following biochemical reactions at 24 hours, what is the most probable organism?

    H S (TSI) = ve
    MR = ve
    Phenylalanine deaminase = ve
    Ornithine and lysine decarboxylase = +ve
    Arginine decarboxylase = ve
    Gelatin = +ve
    Indole = ve
    VP = +ve
    DNase = +ve
    Urea = ve

    A) Enterobacter cloacae
    B) Serratia marcescens
    C) Proteus vulgaris
    D) Proteus mirabilis
    B) Serratia marcescens
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. Flocculation tests for syphilis use antigen composed of:

    A) Treponema pallidum cell wall
    B) cardiolipin
    C) reagin
    D) charcoal
    B) cardiolipin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. Which combination of tests can presumptively identify Enterohemorrhagic Escherchia coli (EHEC)?

    A) fermentation on MAC and XLD
    B) fermentation on MAC and no fermentation on SMAC
    C) production of indole and positive result on MUG (production of B-glucuronidase)
    D) indole production and growth on MAC
    B) fermentation on MAC and no fermentation on SMAC
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. Which of the following characteristics would NOT be used to identify Streptococcus species?

    A) C substance
    B) growth in 6.5% NaCl broth
    C) catalase
    D) PYR
    E) hemolysis on sheep blood agar
    F) CAMP
    C) catalase
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. IMMUNO vaccination immunoglobulin response

    A) IgM is produced
    B) IgA is produced
    C) IgG is produced
    D) All of the above
    D) All of the above
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. In which technique is the signal amplified instead of the actual target DNA?

    A) branched DNA amplification
    B) solution hybridization
    C) PCR
    D) transcription mediated amplification
    A) branched DNA amplification
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. Precipitates of diphtheria toxin and antitoxin formed in agar gels are an in vitro means for detecting toxigenic strains of Corynebacterium diphtheriae. The name of this test procedure is the

    A) Schlicter test
    B) Ascoli test
    C) Elek test
    D) Anton test
    C) Elek test
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. The etiologic agent of epidemic relapsing fever is Borrelia recurrentis, which is transmitted by:

    A) ticks
    B) mosquitoes
    C) fleas
    D) human body lice
    D) human body lice
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. Image Upload



    A) Histoplasma capsulatum
    B) Blastomyces dermatitidis
    C) Coccidiodes immitis
    D) Sporothrix schenckii
    C) Coccidiodes immitis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. Most people have antibodies to the following because of previous exposure that caused little or no illness.

    A) All of the above
    B) HSV-I
    C) EBV
    D) CMV
    A) All of the above
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. Chocolate agar base containing vancomycin, colistin, nystatin, and trimethoprim is also known as___________ and is used for ______________________

    A) Columbia CNA agar, isolation of Gram positive bacteria
    B) EMB agar, isolation of enteric bacteria
    C) modified Thayer Martin agar, cultivation and isolation of Neisseria
    D) KV laked blood agar, cultivation & isolation of anaerobic bacteria
    C) modified ThayerMartinagar, cultivation and isolation of Neisseria
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. The term syncytia is used to describe

    A) multinucleated cells formed from the fusion between cells penetrated by virions and other host cells nearby.
    B) the attachment of viral particles to certain transmitting molecules like blood cells to enable infectious spreading of the virus.
    C) the attraction of viral particles to specific tissue types within the host.
    D) the ability of virions to synchronize penetration and release from host cells.
    A) multinucleated cells formed from the fusion between cells penetrated by virions and other host cells nearby.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. Which group of tests differentiates Acinetobacter spp. from Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

    A) hemolysis on Blood agar, oxidase, catalase
    B) Oxidase, TSI, MacConkey growth
    C) Oxidase, motility, growth at 42°C
    D) Growth on MacConkey, growth at 37°C, catalase
    C) Oxidase, motility, growth at 42°C
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. Chlamydia trachomatis produces all the following conditions in adult women EXCEPT:

    A) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
    B) Bacterial vaginosis
    C) Salpingitis
    D) Endometritis
    B) Bacterial vaginosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. The specimen of choice for detecting rotavirus is a

    A) midstream clean catch urine
    B) stool specimen.
    C) throat swab.
    D) bronchoalveolar wash.
    B) stool specimen.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. Specimens for Mycobacterium studies that require concentration, decontamination, or liquefaction include

    A) CSF
    B) sputum
    C) urine
    D) synovial fluid
    B) sputum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. The image shows a smear from a vaginal swab indicating the presence of small rods and clue cells. This indicates bacterial vaginosis due to:

    A) Corynbacterium diphtheriae
    B) Listeria monocytogenes
    C) Trichomonas vaginalis
    D) Gardernella vaginalis
    D) Gardernella vaginalis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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Author:
victimsofadown
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327377
Filename:
M00 - Combo Rotation Exam
Updated:
2017-01-13 04:17:52
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M00 Combo Rotation Exam
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M00 - Combo Rotation Exam
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