M01 - Immunology and Autoimmune Disease

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  1. Match the following disorders to the antibody with which it is associated. Answers can only be used once.

    +Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
    +Rheumatoid Arthritis
    +Hashimoto's thyroiditis
    +Graves' disease
    +Celiac disease
    +Sjogren's syndrome
    +Scleroderma
    +Polymyositis

    -anti-TSH receptor antibody
    -anti-thyroglobulin antibody
    -anti-Scl antibody
    -anti-CCP (cyclic citrullinated peptide)
    -anti-SSA and SSB antibodies
    -anti-tTGA (tissue transglutaminase)
    -anti-dsDNA
    -anti-Jo-1
    • Systemic Lupus Erythematosus: anti-dsDNA
    • Rheumatoid Arthritis: anti-CCP (cyclic citrullinated peptide)
    • Hashimoto's thyroiditis: anti-thyroglobulin antibody
    • Graves' disease: anti-TSH receptor antibody
    • Celiac disease: anti-tTGA (tissue transglutaminase)
    • Sjogren's syndrome: anti-SSA and SSB antibodies
    • Scleroderma: anti-Scl antibody
    • Polymyositis: anti-Jo-1
  2. Macrophages that migrate to the liver are called:

    A) Kupffer cells
    B) histiocytes
    C) microglial cells
    D) Langerhans cells
    A) Kupffer cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. (T/F) After infection with EBV or HSV, T cells have receptors which cross-react with myelin basic protein, a basic component of the myelin sheath of nerves in the CNS, causing the symptoms of multiple sclerosis.
    True
  4. (T/F) Oligoclonal bands present in CSF protein electrophoresis but absent in serum protein electrophoresis of a patient is diagnostic for MS.
    True
  5. Which of the following helps protect against helminth infection?

    A) Eosinophils
    B) Basophils
    C) Macrophages
    D) Granulocytes
    A) Eosinophils
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. If a patient has IgM antibodies to the mumps virus, this indicates they have

    A) been vaccinated against mumps virus.
    B) a chronic mumps infection
    C) an acute or very recent mumps infection.
    D) a recent or current infection, or vaccination against mumps virus.
    C) an acute or very recent mumps infection.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. In the anti-dsDNA fluorescent antibody screening test the antigen most commonly utilized is:

    A) Crithidia luciliae
    B) rabbit thymus epithelium
    C) mouse kidney tissue
    D) Cryptococcus neoformans
    A) Crithidia luciliae
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. The function(s) of macrophages/monocytes in the host immune response is (are):

    A) phagocytosis
    B) all the above
    C) antigen presentation and phagocytosis
    D) secretion of cytokines
    E) antigen presentation
    B) all the above
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. The purpose or end result of negative selection of the T cell is to ensure:

    A) MHC restriction
    B) T-cell receptor expression
    C) expression of CD3
    D) self-tolerance
    D) self-tolerance
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. Which of the following is true of NK cells?

    A) They produce antibody.
    B) They have markers CD4 and CD16.
    C) They are capable of phagocytosis.
    D) They kill tumor and virus-infected cells.
    D) They kill tumor and virus-infected cells.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. Cells that are precursors of plasma cells and also produce immunoglobulins are

    A) monocytes
    B) macrophages
    C) B lymphocytes
    D) T lymphocytes
    C) B lymphocytes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. The technologist observes apparent homogenous staining of the nucleus of interphase cells while performing an IFA-ANA, as well as staining of the chromosomes in mitotic cells. This result is:

    A) indicative of two antibodies that should be separately reported after titration
    B) expected for anti-DNA antibodies
    C) inconsistent; the test should be reported with new reagent
    D) expected for anticentromere antibodies
    B) expected for anti-DNA antibodies
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. Macrophage phagocytosis of bacteria is enhanced by which of the following

    A) opsonin
    B) antigen
    C) hapten
    D) secretory piece
    A) opsonin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. All of the following are functions of immunoglobulins except

    A) neutralization of toxins
    B) combining with complement to destroy cellular antigens
    C) interacting with T cells to lyse viruses
    D) facilitation of phagocytosis through opsonization
    C) interacting with T cells to lyse viruses
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. (T/F) The presence of anti-Smith antibodies is diagnostic for systemic lupus erythematosus.
    True
  16. SLE can be distinguished from RA on the basis of which of the following?

    A) immune complex formation with activation of complement
    B) presence of anti-mitochondrial antibodies
    C) anti-dsDNA antibodies
    D) presence of antinuclear antibodies
    C) anti-dsDNA antibodies
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. Which of the following best describes the slide agglutination test for rheumatoid factor?

    A) it detects IgG made against IgM
    B) it is a sensitive screening tool
    C) it is specific for RA
    D) a negative result rules out RA
    B) it is a sensitive screening tool
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. Toll-like receptors are found on which cells?

    A) B cells
    B) Eosinophils and neutrophils
    C) Dendritic cells
    D) T cells
    C) Dendritic cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. A specimen was drawn from a 25-year-old woman with suspected SLE. A FANA screen revealed a speckled pattern. What should be done next?

    A) perform an antibody profile
    B) report out as Sjogren's syndrome
    C) test contaminated, repeat the test
    D) report a diagnosis of SLE
    A) perform an antibody profile
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. Which of the following is cleaved as a result of activation of the classical complement pathway?

    A) properdin factor B
    B) C4
    C) C1q
    D) C3a
    B) C4
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. Compare and contrast the "sequestered antigen" and the "molecular mimicry" theories of autoimmune disease.
    The sequestered antigen theory proposes that damage to certains tissues or organs exposes previously separated of hidden antigens thatmay be identified as foreign antigens since they have not been encountered by the host immune system before. The molecuar mimicrytheory is based on smilarities between pathogen and self antigens that may induce a cross reaction from host made antibidoes originallyproduced to respond to infection from such pathogens. Both theroires result in a loss of self tolerance where the host immunesystem recognizes, and attacks self antigens. Molecular mimicry is associated with infectious disease states while mimicry is more related totrauma and injury. Though diseases can cause tissue and organ damage.
  22. The immunoglobulin classes MOST commonly found on the surface of circulating B lymphocytes in the peripheral blood of normal persons are:

    A) IgM, IgA
    B) IgM, IgD
    C) IgM, IgE
    D) IgG, IgM
    B) IgM, IgD
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. (T/F) Systemic lupus erythematosus is associated with the DR3 HLA type.
    True
  24. The assembly of the complement "membrane attack unit" is initiated with the binding of:

    A) C4
    B) C1
    C) C3
    D) C5
    D) C5
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. Which immunoglobulin appears in highest titer in the secondary response?

    A) IgG
    B) IgM
    C) IgE
    D) IgA
    A) IgG
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. A homogeneous pattern of staining of the nuclei on IIF may be caused by which of the following antibodies?

    A) anti-SSA antibody
    B) anti-histone antibody
    C) anti-RNP
    D) anti-Smith antibody
    B) anti-histone antibody
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. Which immunoglobulin appears first in the primary immune response?

    A) IgM
    B) IgG
    C) IgA
    D) IgE
    A) IgM
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. Which immunologic mechanism is usually involved in bronchial asthma?

    A) antibody mediated cytotoxicity
    B) immediate hypersensitivity
    C) delayed hypersensitivity
    D) Immune complex
    B) immediate hypersensitivity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. (T/F) Type 1 diabetes (juvenile diabetes) often occurs after a viral infection and is an example of the molecular mimicry theory of autoimmunity.
    True
  30. Natural killer cells destroy invading organisms by

    A) releasing cytotoxic perforins and granzymes
    B) activating immunoglobulins
    C) activating complement
    D) phagocytosis
    A) releasing cytotoxic perforins and granzymes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. A new-born infant who receives IgA from it's mother's milk develops

    A) naturally acquired active immunity
    B) artificially acquired passive immunity
    C) naturally acquired passive immunity
    D) artificially acquired active immunity
    C) naturally acquired passive immunity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. Rheumatoid factor is:

    A) IgM antibody produced against IgG
    B) an antigen found in the serum of patients with rheumatoid arthritis
    C) identical to the rheumatoid arthritis precipitin
    D) capable of forming circulating immune complexes only when IgM type autoantibody is present
    A) IgM antibody produced against IgG
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. T lymphocytes that possess the CD8 surface marker mediate which of the following T cell functions?

    A) delayed type hypersensitivity
    B) cytotoxic
    C) regulatory
    D) helper
    B) cytotoxic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. Measurement of serum levels of which of the following immunoglobulins can serve as a screening test for multiple allergies?

    A) IgG
    B) IgM
    C) IgA
    D) IgE
    D) IgE
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. Which of the following is an important cellular mediator in immune complex tissue injury?

    A) mast cell
    B) eosinophil
    C) basophil
    D) neutrophil
    D) neutrophil
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. (T/F) T cells can only see and respond to antigens when they are combined with MHC molecules.
    True
  37. Select the answer that does NOT apply to class II MHC molecules:

    A) Class II MHC molecules are found on all antigen presenting cells
    B) Class II MHC molecules bind to bacterial antigens and are presented to CD4+ T cells
    C) Class II MHC molecules present viral antigens to CD8+ T cells
    D) Class II MHC molecules mainly bind to exogenous proteins
    C) Class II MHC molecules present viral antigens to CD8+ T cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. (T/F) Class I and Class II MHC molecules determine the type of peptide antigens to which an individual can mount an immune response.
    True
  39. Which antibody class is best at agglutination and complement fixation?

    A) IgG
    B) IgD
    C) IgA
    D) IgM
    D) Igm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

Card Set Information

Author:
victimsofadown
ID:
327378
Filename:
M01 - Immunology and Autoimmune Disease
Updated:
2017-01-13 05:30:05
Tags:
M01 Immunology Autoimmune Disease
Folders:
TESTS,M
Description:
M01 - Immunology and Autoimmune Disease
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