M06 - Enterobacteriaceae GNRs and Parasitic Bacteria

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  1. What is the optimal growth temperature and incubation conditions for Campylobacter jejuni?

    A) 35C in microaerophillic and capnophilic conditions
    B) 35C in microaerophillic conditions
    C) 42C in capnophilic conditions
    D) 22C in capnophilic conditions
    E) 42C in microaerophillic and capnophilic conditions
    E) 42C in microaerophillic and capnophilic conditions
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. A genital specimen was streaked on New York City medium and allowed to grow for 5 days at 37 C in 5% CO . Resulting colonies demonstrated a distinctive "fried-egg" appearance. What is the presumptive identity of this bacterium?

    A) Mycoplasma hominis
    B) Treponema pallidum
    C) Rickettsia rickettsii
    D) Chlamydia trachomatis
    A) Mycoplasma hominis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. Choose the organism which is matched with the incorrect insect vector:

    A) Rickettsia typhi, fleas
    B) Rickettsia ricketsii, ticks
    C) Coxiella burnetii, mites
    D) Orientia tsutsugamushi, mites
    C) Coxiella burnetii, mites
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. How is Helicobacter pylori presumptively identified?

    A) A rapid oxidase test on gastric scrapings
    B) A rapid urease test done on a gastric biopsy
    C) A culture of a gastric biopsy
    D) A culture of gastric scrapings
    B) A rapid urease test done on a gastric biopsy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. The primary method used to diagnose rickettsial diseases is

    A) serologic assays
    B) tissue culture
    C) PCR
    D) testing the insect vector
    A) serologic assays
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. What would be the most appropriate screening tests to preemptively differentiate and identify the non-fermenting Gram negative bacilli from the Enterobacteriaceae?

    A) catalase, decarboxylation of arginine, growth on BAP
    B) motility, urease, morphology on MAC
    C) oxidase, indole, growth on BAP
    D) oxidase, TSI, nitrate reduction, growth on MAC
    D) oxidase, TSI, nitrate reduction, growth on MAC
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. Rickettsiae that infect humans multiply preferentially within which of the following cells?:

    A) red blood cells
    B) renal tubule
    C) hepatic
    D) endothelial
    D) endothelial
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. Which media should be used to recover Bordetella pertussis from a nasopharyngeal specimen?

    A) MacConkey agar
    B) Chocolate agar
    C) Bordet-Gengou agar
    D) Blood agar
    C) Bordet-Gengou agar
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. Which of the following products is responsible for satellite growth of Haemophilus spp around colonies of Staphylococcus aureus on blood agar plates?

    A) Hemin (X factor)
    B) NAD (V factor)
    C) Cystein
    D) Tryptophan
    B) NAD (V factor)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. What is the selective agent in TCBS?

    A) oxgall & sodium cholate
    B) saccharose
    C) yeast extract
    D) Sodium thiosulfate & ferric citrate
    A) oxgall & sodium cholate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. Match the following diseases with their appropriate bacterial agent.

    +Rickettsia rickettsii
    +Ureaplasma urealyticum
    +Rickettsia prowazekii
    +Rickettsia typhi
    +Mycoplasma pneumoniae
    +Chlamydia psittaci
    +Pseudomonas aeruginosa

    -endemic typhus
    -prostatitis, nongonococcal urethritis
    -Parrot fever
    -epidemic typhus
    -swimmer's ear
    -Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
    -"Walking pneumonia"
    • Rickettsia rickettsii: Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
    • Ureaplasma urealyticum: prostatitis, nongonococcal urethritis
    • Rickettsia prowazekii: epidemic typhus
    • Rickettsia typhi: endemic typhus
    • Mycoplasma pneumoniae: "Walking pneumonia"
    • Chlamydia psittaci: Parrot fever
    • Pseudomonas aeruginosa: swimmer's ear
  12. Which characteristic(s) apply to the HACEK bacteria?

    A) normal flora of oral cavity
    B) capnophilic
    C) all of the above
    D) affinity for heart valves
    C) all of the above
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. Identify the bacterium based upon the following characteristics:
    associated w/water environments
    strict aerobe
    ground-glass colonial morphology
    requires L-cysteine for primary isolation
    survives extreme ranges of environmental conditions for long periods of time

    A) Helicobacter pylogenes
    B) Kingella spp
    C) Legionella pneumophila
    D) Aggregatibacter aphorophilus
    C) Legionella pneumophila
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. Match the following organism with it's morphological appearance or growth characteristic.

    +drops of mercury on Regan-Lowe agar
    +chlorine bleach odor
    +grape-like odor
    +rosettes and spindles
    +fried-egg

    -Eikenella corrodens
    -Cardiobacterium hominis
    -Bordetella pertussis
    -Mycoplasma
    -Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    • drops of mercury on Regan-Lowe agar: Bordetella pertussis
    • chlorine bleach odor: Eikenella corrodens
    • grape-like odor: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    • rosettes and spindles: Cardiobacterium hominis
    • fried-egg: Mycoplasma
  15. A 29-year-old man is seen for recurrence of a purulent urethral discharge 10 days after the successful treatment of culture-proven gonorrhea. The most likely explanation is the patient had a co-infection with:

    A) Helicobacter pylori
    B) Chlamydia trachomatis
    C) Uropathogenic E. coli
    D) Trichomonas vaginalis
    B) Chlamydia trachomatis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. Select the characteristic that does NOT apply to Helicobacter pylori.

    A) strong urease activity
    B) 50% adults over 60 infected
    C) transmission by aerosol
    D) spiral-shaped
    C) transmission by aerosol
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. Which organism is described as being Gram negative gull-wing rods?

    A) Campylobacter jejuni
    B) Vibrio cholera
    C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    D) Haemophilus influenzae type b
    E) Helicobacter pylori
    A) Campylobacter jejuni
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. Match the following characteristics with the appropriate bacterium

    +growth around V factor disks
    +localizes in tissues rich in erythritol
    +darting motility
    +requires X and V factors for growth
    +causes soft chancroid disease

    -Haemophilus influenzae
    -Campylobacter spp.
    -Haemophilus parainfluenzae
    -Haemophilus ducreyi
    -Brucella spp.
    • growth around V factor disks: Haemophilus parainfluenzae
    • localizes in tissues rich in erythritol: Brucella spp.
    • darting motility: Campylobacter spp.
    • requires X and V factors for growth: Haemophilus influenzae
    • causes soft chancroid disease: Haemophilus ducreyi
  19. What organism may play a role in Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)?

    A) Helicobacter spp.
    B) Campylobacter spp.
    C) Plesiomonas spp.
    D) Aeromonas spp.
    B) Campylobacter spp.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. In order to speciate Vibrios recovered from a specimen, what media should be used?

    A) TCBS
    B) CHOC
    C) SBA
    D) BCYE
    A) TCBS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. What antibiotic is primarily used to treat Rickettsial infections and Q fever?

    A) 3rd generation cephalosporins
    B) Tetracycline
    C) SXT
    D) Penicillin
    B) Tetracycline
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. (T/F) Acinetobacter spp. may be mistaken for an enteric because it produces purplish colonies on MAC.
    True
  23. This organism requires sodium for growth and can cause fatal septicemia in patients with an underlying liver disease.

    A) Aeromonas hydrophila
    B) Vibrio cholerae
    C) Chromobacterium violaceum
    D) Vibrio vulnificus
    D) Vibrio vulnificus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. Plump Gram negative coccobacilli that tend to resist alcohol decolorization and may be mistaken for Gram positive cocci are

    A) Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
    B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    C) Acinetobacter spp.
    D) Bordetella spp.
    C) Acinetobacter spp.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. Which best describes the source of Burkholderia cepacia infections

    A) Plants and soil
    B) Medical devices and medical solutions
    C) Water
    D) All of the above are correct.
    e) None of the above are correct.
    D) All of the above are correct.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. The disease referred to as melioidosis is caused by

    A) Burkholderia pseudomallei.
    B) Ralstonia pickettii.
    C) Burkholderia mallei.
    D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
    A) Burkholderia pseudomallei.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. A 2-year-old patient is brought to his pediatrician with a purulent ear infection. The exudate is obtained and cultured. Based on the following growth characteristics, identify which organism was the cause of the ear infection.

    Beta-hemolytic spreading colonies with a metallic sheen on BAP
    Oxidase positive
    Growth on MAC
    Lactose negative
    Growth at 42 C.
    Corn-tortilla odor

    A) Campylobacter jejuni
    B) Bordetella pertussis
    C) Aeromonas hydrophila
    D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. The Haemophilus influenzae vaccine protects against which serotype?

    A) Serotype c
    B) Serotype d
    C) Serotype b
    D) Serotype a
    C) Serotype b
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. Which of the following diseases is most likely to be acquired from a hot tub or whirlpool?

    A) Q fever
    B) Acinetobacter cellulitis
    C) Pseudomonas dermatitis
    D) Erysipelas
    C) Pseudomonas dermatitis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. An important characteristic of Chlamydia trachomatis is

    A) A Gram stain of the organism reveals Gram-negative bacilli
    B) The bacteria survive long periods outside the host's body
    C) Asymptomatic infections are common in females
    D) Produces disease in humans and domestic animals
    C) Asymptomatic infections are common in females
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. Legionella pneumophila is the etiologic agent of both Legionnaires disease and

    A) Rift Valley fever
    B) Swine fever
    C) San Joaquin Valley fever
    D) Pontiac fever
    D) Pontiac fever
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. Infection of the gastric mucosa leading to gastritis or peptic ulcers is most commonly associated with

    A) Campylobacter jejuni
    B) Vibrio parahaemolyticus
    C) Salmonella Typhi
    D) Helicobacter pylori
    D) Helicobacter pylori
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. (T/F) Campylobacter jejuni is a leading cause of bacterial diarrhea worldwide
    True
  34. The optimal specimen for the recovery of Bordetella pertussis is

    A) Nasopharyngeal swab
    B) Blood
    C) Stool
    D) Expectorated sputum
    A) Nasopharyngeal swab
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. (T/F) Stenotrophomonas maltophilia is oxidase positive
    False
  36. All of the following are true regarding Coxiella burnetti except

    A) Highly infectious
    B) Transmitted via inhalation of contaminated aerosols
    C) Can replicate in the acidic environment of lysozomes
    D) Found only in New Zealand
    D) Found only in New Zealand
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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Author:
victimsofadown
ID:
327395
Filename:
M06 - Enterobacteriaceae GNRs and Parasitic Bacteria
Updated:
2017-01-14 05:50:32
Tags:
M06 Enterobacteriaceae GNRs Parasitic Bacteria
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Description:
M06 - Enterobacteriaceae GNRs and Parasitic Bacteria
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