ABX 767-200 Systems Initial Flash Cards

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  1. What is the maximum operating pressure altitude?
    43,100 feet PA.
  2. When will the RETURN TO SEAT sign illuminate when the selector is in AUTO?
    Flap handle out of the Zero position.
  3. What is the maximum airspeed for opening a cockpit No. 2 window?
    Recommended- VREF +80 knots. Max 250 knots.
  4. How is the Optimum Eye Reference position determined?
    Sight along upper surface of glareshield and over control column to bottom of HSI.
  5. If a light bulb is inoperative in an alternate action switchlight, may flight crew personnel relamp the switchlight?
    No, maintenance should be contacted for all relamping operations.
  6. When the LT OVRD switch is selected ON, what is the result?
    Captain's, First Officer's, and center instrument panel floodlights, forward and aft dome lights illuminate.
  7. Which EICAS computer is normally controlling the primary and secondary screens when the computer selector is in AUTO?
  8. How many events may be recorded manually with the EVENT RECORD switch?
    Only the last recorded event.
  9. How is a warning presented on the primary EICAS screen?
    Red text at top of message list.
  10. What condition will cause a siren to sound?
    Overspeed warning.
  11. How can an advisory be differentiated from a caution?
    Amber message indented one space from cautions on the primary EICAS screen.
  12. What indicates more than one page of messages is available, and how would the pilot page through the messages?
    The descriptor, Page 1 appears on the 11th line; Press Cancel switch to go to next page.
  13. True or False? Warning EICAS messages are cancelled in the same manner as the caution messages.
    False. The problem must be corrected to erase warning messages.
  14. During which portion of the flight is the fire bell and master warning light inhibited?
    Takeoff from nose strut extension until 400? RA or 20 seconds later.
  15. What indications show that a new status message is available?
    Cyan STATUS cue appears on the upper left corner of the secondary screen.
  16. When may status messages be erased?
    During preflight or prior to takeoff.
  17. What actions must the flight crew take if a status message reappears after erasing it?
    Review MEL for relief.
  18. What actions will cause the stick nudger to operate?
    Flaps zero and aircraft pitch increased above stick shaker, or when testing both stall warning systems using both switches simultaneously.
  19. What happens if one EICAS CRT fails when the full up engine indications are displayed?
    Engine indications display in compacted mode on the operable CRT.
  20. When the EICAS computer selector is in AUTO, what will happen if the right EICAS computer fails?
    Nothing. The default computer is the left one.
  21. A takeoff configuration warning will indicated how?
    A siren, a CONFIG light on the forward instrument panel, both master warning lights on the glareshield, and a red message on EICAS.
  22. When a takeoff configuration warning is activated, how may the warning be silenced?
    Configure the airplane for takeoff correctly or retard both thrust levers to idle.
  23. What conditions will cause a landing configuration warning; can it be silenced?
    Flying below 800 feet with the gear not down and thrust levers at idle, which can be silenced with either master warning light.
  24. If any of the landing gear falsely indicates not down and locked, how may the landing configuration warning be inhibited?
    Select OVRD on CONFIG/GEAR OVRD switch on the first officer's side of the forward instrument panel.
  25. What must be accomplished to silence an overspeed warning aural? Choose the most correct answer.
    Either slow aircraft below VMO/MMO or push on either master warning lights.
  26. How may a Mode 5 caution (Below Glideslope) be inhibited?
    Press G/S INHIBIT switch below 1000 feet RA.
  27. What are the indications for a windshear warning?
    Master warning lights, windshear discrete light, WINDSHEAR appears in red characters on the ADI, siren, and "WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR" voice alert.
  28. How may the primary oxygen bottle pressure be read?
    Primary O2 bottle pressure displayed on Status page by default.
  29. What indication will be observed on the oxygen regulator when oxygen is flowing?
    Yellow cross (blinker) in view.
  30. For what purpose should the pilot ensure the vent valve selector is positioned up when using oxygen?
    When using O2 mask without smoke goggles.
  31. The portable fire extinguishers installed in the flight compartment are rated for what fires?
    A, B, and C class fires.
  32. How can proper operation of the PELS PBE be determined after activating the oxygen cylinders?
    Green LED blinking and sound of oxygen flowing in hood.
  33. What indications will be observed on a servicable PELS PBE when stowed in it?s container?
    Green tamper-evident seals intact, and a blue humidity indicator.
  34. What indicates that the emergency lighting system is manually activated or the emergency lights switch is not in the ARMED position?
    An UNARMED light on the overhead panel that is illuminated and the EICAS message, EMER LIGHTS is displayed.
  35. What does the BUS OFF light indicate?
    Respective main AC bus is unpowered.
  36. What must be accomplished to allow the APU generator to power the main AC busses if external power is already powering the aircraft?
    Deselect external power with the APU operating.
  37. What will happen when both engine generators are powering the main AC busses and external power is connected and selected ON?
    Both engine generators trip off and external power will power the main AC busses.
  38. In flight, with APU running, if the left generator fails, what unit, if any, will power the left AC bus?
    The APU generator will power the left AC bus.
  39. Which bus(ses) automatic bus tie operations are controlled by the bus tie breaker (BTB) switches?
    Main AC busses, main DC busses, and flight instrument transfer busses.
  40. What will cause the standby power OFF light to illuminate?
    Standby AC or standby DC bus is unpowered.
  41. Which AC bus normally powers the ground service bus?
    Right main AC bus.
  42. What power source may power the ground handling bus, and when may it be powered?
    Ground handling bus is power either by external power or APU generator and only on the ground.
  43. If the utility busses tripped off line due to a generator loss in flight, how may they be reset?
    Establish a second AC generator to power the busses.
  44. Assuming a normal airplane, of the following, what would cause the battery DISCH light to illuminate?
    Standby power switch to the BAT position.
  45. Assuming a normal airplane, if the standby power switch is in AUTO position, what is powering the standby AC and standby DC busses?
    Left AC powers the standby AC bus and left DC powers the standby DC bus.
  46. During autoland operations, what is powering the center AC and DC busses?
    Hot battery bus and static inverter.
  47. During an autoland, if a generator should fail prior to reaching 200 feet RA, what happens to the triple isolation feature of the electrical system?
    Center AC and DC busses revert to receiving power from the left main AC and DC busses.
  48. If the APU is operating prior to beginning the approach, what will happen if an engine generator fails prior to 200 feet AGL during triple isolation?
    APU generator powers the failed generator's main AC bus and triple isolation remains available.
  49. What indication shows that electrical power and pneumatic pressure are available from the APU?
    Run Light
  50. Barometric control of APU components automatically reduces APU pneumatic pressure and results in?
    Insufficient pressure for cabin pressurization above FL 200.
  51. How many consecutive start attempts are allowed on the APU in a 60 minute period?
    Three start attempts (maximum) followed by 60 minutes to let the temperature of the starter decrease.
  52. If a fault is detected when the APU is running, what indications will be displayed on the APU panel and what affect will this have on APU operation?
    FAULT is the indication displayed and the Apu will automatically terminate operation.
  53. Why is it undesireable to use the battery switch to terminate APU operation?
    Because there is no fire detection available.
  54. What is the maximum temperature for Jet A?
    49° C
  55. What will cause the FUEL CONFIG light to illuminate?
    More than 1,200 lbs. in center fuel tank with center fuel boost pumps OFF
  56. On the ground, with APU powering the busses, which fuel pump is supplying fuel to the APU?
    The left forward AC-powered fuel boost pump.
  57. How is total fuel quantity calculated compared to the individual tank fuel quantity?
    It is a separate calculation, not a summation of the individual fuel quantity indicators.
  58. What is the minimum fuel temperature?
    3° C above the freezing point of the fuel being used.
  59. What condition(s) will cause the left engine?s bleed air valve to open?
    Left bleed air switch selected ON with engine operating.
  60. How can the APU bleed air valve be opened when both engines are operating?
    Only by selecting both engines bleed air switches OFF, or selecting center ISOL switch OFF.
  61. If both engines and the APU are operating and all three bleed air switches are selected ON, what is supplying pneumatic pressure to the center pneumatic duct?
    Both engines.
  62. What indications will be present if a bleed air leak is detected in the left pneumatic duct?
    Left DUCT LEAK light illuminated, caution beeper sounds and "L BLD DUCT LEAK" caution message is displayed on EICAS.
  63. If a high stage air valve is open when it should be closed, what indications will be present?
    Respective engine BLEED light will be illuminated, caution beeper sounds and "ENG BLEED VAL" caution message displayed.
  64. On the 767-200 series aircraft, what indication is there for excessive engine bleed air temperature?
    HI STAGE light appears and L/R ENG HI STAGE advisory-level message appears on EICAS.
  65. What duct supplies pressure to the center demand pump?
  66. If the left isolation switch is OFF (isolated) and the left engine bleed air switch is OFF, what can supply pneumatic pressure to the left wing anti-ice system?
    No air is available to the left pneumatic manifold.
  67. When the pack control selector is in AUTO, to what temperature are both packs controlled?
    The temperature of the coldest compartment.
  68. If the pack control selector is in STBY N, what temperature are the packs going to maintain?
    Constant moderate temperature.
  69. What indicates a pack has tripped due to an internal overheat and how may the pack be reset?
    PACK OFF and INOP lights illuminated; push reset switch after cooling.
  70. What does the PACK OFF light indicate when it is illuminated?
    Pack valve is closed.
  71. If trim air is selected OFF, what temperature will the packs maintain?
    75° F (24° C).
  72. If the flight deck INOP light illuminates with the pack selector in AUTO, how may the flight deck temperature be controlled?
    Manually, with FLT DECK compartment temperature control.
  73. When are the foot and shoulder heaters inhibited?
    Whenever the aircraft is on the ground.
  74. What does the AUTO INOP light on the pressurization panel indicate when illuminated?
    Both auto controllers have failed, or MAN mode selected.
  75. What is set in the landing altitude indicator during the cockpit preflight?
    Destination airport elevation.
  76. At what cabin altitude will the cabin altitude warning be terminated?
    below 8,500 feet.
  77. If the operating cabin controller fails when the selector switch is in AUTO 2, what affect will this have on the pressurization system?
    Aircraft will switch to AUTO 1 automatically.
  78. How are faults in the alternate cabin automatic controller detected if the operating cabin auto controller is in control of cabin pressurization?
    Alternate controller is self-tested upon landing.
  79. What is maximum differential pressure in auto mode?
    8.6 PSID.
  80. If the cabin auto controller is in the CRUISE mode, what must happen to place the controller in a CLIMB mode? A DESCENT mode?
    Airplane altitude climbs or descends more than 500 feet.
  81. What will cause the cabin altitude warning to activate?
    Cabin altitude above 10,000 feet PA.
  82. Assume the aircraft is in flight. With the AUTO position selected on the equipment cooling panel, what will occur if the exhaust fan fails?
    Suppy fan starts automatically.
  83. How long is the OVHT light inhibited after selecting the STBY position on the equipment cooling selector?
    5 minutes.
  84. What indication would be present if no reverse airflow is detected after selecting OVRD on the equipment cooling panel?
    "NO COOLING" light illuminates after 1 minute.
  85. When will the probe heat system be activated?
    When first engine is started.
  86. If both the Captain?s and Right Auxiliary pitot probes have failed, what EICAS message may you expect to see?
  87. Assume the aircraft is ready for takeoff. Which of the following components are correct regarding the conditions requiring the use of engine anti-ice?
    Temperature 10° C or below
  88. Which part(s) of the flight controls are anti-iced/de-iced?
    Outboard three slats on each wing only are anti-iced.
  89. If the wing anti-ice is selected ON during the approach, what will occur at landing?
    Wing anti-ice valves automatically close.
  90. What indication (if any) would be provided if the left wing anti-ice valve sticks open when the wing anti-ice switch is selected OFF?
    The VALVE light illuminates and the EICAS advisory message L WING ANTI-ICE displays.
  91. What can supply pressure to the left hydraulic system if the left engine is shutdown?
    Left electric demand pump.
  92. If the right engine driven primary pump PRESS light is illuminated with the engine running and the primary pump switch selected ON, what is being indicated?
    The primary pump is not putting out required pressure.
  93. To which hydraulic system will the air driven demand pump supply pressure?
    Center hydraulic system.
  94. Where can the hydraulic reservoir quantity be checked?
    Status page.
  95. When will the left electric demand pump be inhibited on the ground?
    During start of either engine, when only one electrical generator is operating.
  96. What should happen if both center electric primary pump switches are turned on with both left and right demand pumps operating, and only the APU generator supplying electrical power?
    Center No. 2 electric primary pump operation is inhibited.
  97. What will cause the right electric demand pump to operate if the selector switch is in AUTO?
    Right engine-driven pump pressure is low, or takeoff flaps selected with airplane on ground.
  98. If the reserve brake and steering system is automatically activated because of a center reservoir fluid loss, what pump(s) will supply pressure to the reserve brakes and nose wheel steering?
    Center number 1 primary pump.
  99. If the ISLN light on the accessory panel is illuminated, what has occurred?
    Center number 1 electric primary pump output is ported to the brakes and nose wheel steering.
  100. What conditions will cause the RAT (ram air turbine) to deploy automatically?
    Both engines fail in flight.
  101. When can the RAT be deployed manually?
    Anytime the RAT deploy switch is pressed.
  102. When will the green LEFT gear safe light illuminate?
    When the left drag brace and side brace are down and locked.
  103. What prevents inadvertant landing gear retraction when the aircraft is on the ground?
    The landing gear lever lock.
  104. What keeps the main gear in the retracted position when the landing gear lever is placed to OFF?
    The main gear doors.
  105. What is the maximum airspeed for normal gear operation?
    Normal extension- 270 knots/M.82, retraction- 270 knots.
  106. What is the minimum pavement width requirement for a 180? turn in a 767-200 series aircraft?
    129 feet.
  107. What is the maximum nosewheel steering using the tiller?
    65 degrees left and right of center.
  108. Which brake systems have antiskid protection?
    Both normal and alternate brake systems.
  109. Which brake systems have autobrake operation?
    Normal brake system only.
  110. If the BRAKE SOURCE light is illuminated, what source of hydraulic pressure is available to the normal or alternate brake systems?
    Accumulator pressure only.
  111. From the list below, choose the item that will disarm the autobrakes after landing if they were armed before landing?
    Manual braking.
  112. During takeoff, when will the autobrakes operate automatically if RTO is selected?
    Above 85 knots and both thrust levers are retarded to idle.
  113. Which hydraulic system is used to operate the landing gear and nosewheel steering?
  114. With the total loss of fluid (quantity zero) in the center hydraulic system, which hydraulic system can operate the nosewheel steering?
    None, the steering system is dead.
  115. The normal brakes are powered by which hydraulic system?
  116. If the brake temperature is in the 4 range, how will the display change from the normal indication?
    White box around a cyan number.
  117. On aircraft equipped with General Electric engines, what engine indications appear on the secondary EICAS display?
    Oil pressure, oil temperature, oil quantity, engine vibration, N2, and fuel flow.
  118. What indications will occur if the N2 exceeds the maximum limits?
    Respective N2 pointer, digital counter, and box turn red.
  119. If EGT exceeds the amber (caution) band during takeoff, what indications will occur?
    No change while in amber range during takeoff or G/A for five minutes.
  120. If one CRT fails and the full up engine indications were in view, what would be displayed on the operable CRT?
    Compacted mode would automatically be displayed.
  121. Cyan (blue) V?s displayed in lower left corner of the primary EICAS screen have what meaning?
    The secondary EICAS screen should be displaying either engine indicators or status page.
  122. How is reference N1 displayed when calculated by the thrust management computer?
    Digital values displayed in green above N1 digital counter box, and a bug positioned relative to these values on the indicator perimeter.
  123. What does the Command Sector on the N1display represent?
    Momentary difference between selected N1 and actual N1.
  124. If the maximum starting EGT is exceeded during an engine start, what changes would occur on the EGT display?
    Respective EGT pointer, digital counter, and box turn red.
  125. How would an N2 exceedance be displayed if the secondary engine indications are in view?
    Respective N2 pointer, digital counter, and box turn red.
  126. How long may a CF6 engine be operated with the oil temperature in the amber range?
    15 minutes.
  127. When must the engine vibration display be in view of the flight crew?
    During takeoff.
  128. Assume that the airplane is in flight. From the following list, choose the item that would cause the standby engine indicators to display, with the SEI selector in AUTO:
    Both EICAS computers or CRTs fail.
  129. What is the indication that the reverser(s) is in transit toward reverse?
    The abbreviation, REV appears in amber characters above the N1 indicators (GE).
  130. When will approach idle automatically be selected on CF6 engines?
    Engine anti-ice selected ON, or with gear down and landing flaps selected.
  131. On the 767's with improved thrust reversers, what prevents the use of reverse thrust in flight?
    Each thrust reverser is automatically protected against unintentional reverse thrust by an autostow feature in the thrust reverser system.
  132. What does a magenta N1 bug indicate?
    VNAV engaged with FMC commanding a target N1.
  133. Under what conditions are assumed temperature reductions to a rated thrust not allowed?
    EEC inoperative
  134. If the EEC fails, what must be accomplished to prevent an overboost when turning off the EEC switch?
    Retard thrust lever to mid-level position.
  135. With the ignition selector in the number 1 position, which igniter(s) will operate when the start selector in CONT position?
    No. 1 igniter only.
  136. With the start selector in the AUTO position, when will the selected ignition system(s) operate automatically?
    Engine anti-ice selected ON, or flaps 1 or beyond.
  137. What is the maximum extended duty cycle for the CF6 starter?
    Two consequtive 5-minute cycles with a 10-minute cooling period.
  138. On the GE engine, what is the maximum RECOMMENDED starter re-engagement speed?
  139. When must an EGT rise be observed when starting a CF6 engine on the ground?
    25 seconds after selecting RUN
  140. When is the in-flight start envelope displayed on EICAS?
    With engine shutdown in flight and secondary engine display in view.
  141. What will be displayed if the windmill speed of N2 is insufficient for an in-flight start?
    XBLD displayed above respective N2 gauge and minimum fuel on bug displayed on N2 dial.
  142. Where may the flight control positions be viewed?
    Status page on the secondary EICAS screen.
  143. Which hydraulic system does the rudder ratio changer use?
    Left hydraulic system.
  144. With one autopilot engaged, selecting pitch trim with the control wheel switches will?
    Cause the autopilot to disconnect.
  145. How may left and center hydraulic pressure be cutoff from the stabilizer trim system? Choose the best answer.
    Select both stabilizer cutoff switches to CUTOFF.
  146. Pick from the following list the item that will cause an UNSCHD STAB TRIM light to illuminate:
    Stabilizer trimming without a trim signal.
  147. If both the left and center hydraulic systems are inoperative, how would stabilizer trim operate?
    Using the pitch enhancement system.
  148. When do the inboard ailerons droop?
    When greater than flaps 5 is selected.
  149. Why are the outboard ailerons locked out at higher airspeeds?
    To prevent overcontrolling the airplane.
  150. For electric aileron trim, which switch(es) must be moved to trim the ailerons and why?
    Both must be moved in same direction; for arming and direction signals.
  151. What indication would be present if the speedbrake lever is deployed past the ARMED detent at 500 feet AGL?
    SPEEDBRAKES light illuminates, SPEEDBRAKES EXT caution message displayed, caution beeper sounds and master caution light illuminates.
  152. What does the AUTO SPDBK light mean?
    Auto spoiler deployment is inoperative; do not arm speedbrake handle.
  153. What relationship to Vref is the Flaps 1 maneuvering speed?
    Vref +60
  154. Why is a "gate" installed at the Flaps 20 position?
    To prevent the pilot from placing the handle past the flaps 20 position during GA.
  155. When is asymmetry protection NOT available to the leading edge slats?
    During alternate LE FLAP operation.
  156. What could cause the TRAILING EDGE light to illuminate and the EICAS message TRAILING EDGE DISAGREE to be displayed?
    Trailing edge flaps not driving to or are not in commanded position.
  157. If center hydraulic system pressure is lost, how would the flaps be operated?
    Using alternate LE and TE FLAP switches.
  158. What is flap load relief?
    Flaps auto-drive to 25 position until airspeed decreases below Flaps 30 placard speed.
  159. From the following list, choose what is NOT a component of an engine fire warning:
    The green squib lights on the accessory panel.
  160. From the following list, choose the item that will NOT silence a fire bell:
    Pushing the P-TEST switch.
  161. How many fire bottles are available to the main cargo deck?
  162. From the following list, choose what is NOT accomplished with the single action of pulling up on the engine fire switch:
    Fires the first bottle.
  163. How will a single loop fault affect the engine fire protection system?
    The system will automatically reconfigure itself for single loop detection.
  164. How many fire bottles are available to each engine?
  165. If an engine fire switch does not unlock automatically, how can the engine fire bottles be fired?
    Push the override button and pull and rotate the fire switch.
  166. From the following list, choose the item that is not a part of an APU fire warning:
    Fire warning horn on the APU remote panel will sound on the ground.
  167. What will cause the APU fire warning light to extinguish?
    Extinguishing the fire.
  168. From how many stations can one fight an APU fire?
    Two: The flight deck and the APU remote panel (P40).
  169. If an APU fire is detected during the exterior preflight, what actions can the First Officer take?
    Push the APU shutdown switch on the APU remote panel and push the APU fire bottle discharge switch.
  170. What actions may the crew take in the event of a wheel well fire warning?
    Lower the landing gear for at least 20 minutes after the wheel well fire light extinguishes.
  171. What fire extinguishing provisions are there for the main cargo deck?
    There is no fire extinguishing per se, it's a fire supression system, which suffocates the fire.
  172. From the following list, choose the item which will NOT occur when the CARGO DEPR switch is depressed?
    Shuts down the left pack and the right pack goes to low flow.
  173. If a forward cargo compartment fire is detected on a non-ETOPS airplane, when should the No. 2 fire bottle be discharged?
    30 minutes after discharging the first bottle or during the approach, whichever comes first.
  174. What will be selected by the Captain when his EFI switch is in ALTN?
    Center symbol generator, center ILS receiver and radio altimeter.
  175. Which of the Captain?s flight instruments are not connected to the left data sources?
  176. If the First Officer has selected the EXP ILS position on his HSI control panel, what receiver is supplying the DME information displayed on his HSI?
    Right ILS (localizer) receiver.
  177. Which indicator(s) below have an actual barometric input?
    Standby airspeed.
  178. If the ADI on the First Officer?s side blanks, how may the displays be restored?
    Select EFI switch to ALTN.
  179. Which modes on the HSI cannot display weather returns?
    FULL VOR, FULL ILS, and PLAN modes.
  180. How may the map display be restored if a MAP flag appears on the First Officer?s HSI?
    First officer must select ALTN FMC.
  181. What system must be operative for the Captain?s ADI to display attitude information?
    Left IRS.
  182. How will the decision height and the radio altitude displays change when the aircraft descends below the selected DH?
    Both displays change to amber with DH flashing.
  183. Below what altitude will the radio altimeter information be displayed on the ADI?
    2500 feet RA.
  184. What is the maximum deviation shown on the Fast/Slow scale?
    10 knots fast or slow.
  185. In which mode(s) on the HSI will the active route be displayed with a true north up depiction?
    Plan mode.
  186. When will the Pitch Limit Indicator (PLI) be displayed on the ADI?
    Flaps not up.
  187. Of the following, which instrument will NOT display failure flags if the left air data computer fails?
    Standby altimeter.
  188. Given a normal aircraft, what unit supplies GMT to the FMC?
    Captains clock.
  189. What does an illuminated mode select switch on the Mode Control Panel (MCP) indicate?
    The respective mode has been requested.
  190. What indications will be apparent if the flight director pitch command fails (when engaged)?
    Pitch command bar removed from view.
  191. What must be accomplished to disengage the APP mode after both the localizer and the glideslope have been captured? Choose the best answer.
    Turn off both flight directors and disengage autopilots.
  192. How many Flight Control Computers (FCC) are required to engage an autopilot?
  193. If the left main AC bus is unpowered in flight, how many autopilots are inoperative?
    All autopilots are inoperative.
  194. If a flight director is engaged in flight with all autopilots and the opposite flight director disengaged, which pitch and roll modes will be engaged in a 10? turn?
    V/S and ATT.
  195. Which of the following is NOT an indication that would be present if the autopilot disengaged?
    Beeper sounding.
  196. What indications would be displayed on the ADI when LNAV is armed?
    LNAV in white characters.
  197. Within what radius will LNAV capture the active route and become the engaged roll mode?
    Turning radius of the airplane.
  198. What has occurred if the throttles stop moving forward during takeoff with the autothrottles engaged in the N1/ EPR mode?
    The first thrust lever has reached the reference N1/EPR.
  199. What is the minimum rate of climb that will be maintained by the autothrottles when G/A is engaged?
    2000 feet per minute.
  200. If during an autoland a G/A is selected and the aircraft altitude is above 400 feet, what occurs when another pitch or roll mode is selected?
    Two autopilots automatically disengage, with the first autopilot in CMD remaining engaged.
  201. When is the rudder controlled during an autoland?
    Below 1500 feet and LAND 3 or LAND 2 is annunciated on each ASA.
  202. What does the autothrottle system (if engaged) do when reverse thrust is selected after landing?
    Autothrottle disengages.
  203. Which is the preferred roll mode to turn the aircraft toward the first waypoint of the active route if a departure procedure is not available?
  204. Below what altitude is the NO LAND 3 annuciation inhibited?
    200 feet RA.
  205. From the list below, choose what is NOT an indication provided if the aircraft deviates more than 300 feet from the MCP altitude.
    Altitude alerter chime sounds.
  206. Of the following modes, which will NOT honor the flap speeds limitation?
    Vertical speed mode.
  207. Of the following modes, which will honor the 250-below-10,000 feet restriction?
  208. What must be set in the ILS control panel to remove the glideslope and localizer deviation scales from view?
    Set the control panel to display all dashes (-----) or park (PK).
  209. What mode should the captain select on his/her HSI control panel to enable manual VOR tuning?
  210. What will happen if the IRS (all three IRUs) loses both AC and DC power?
    Alignment will be lost.
  211. What indication will be displayed if the left IRU is operating on AC power but the DC power source is not available?
    DC FAIL light illuminated for left IRU.
  212. What CDU heading will be displayed on the TAKEOFF REF page if required information has not been entered?
  213. What indication will be displayed on the SET IRS POS line when all IRS have entered the navigation mode?
    Line will be blank.
  214. What do boxes or dashes indicate on CDU pages?
    FMC required information for LNAV operation and VNAV performance operation.
  215. On which page will aircraft weights, reserve fuel, cost index, and cruise altitude information be entered?
    PERF INIT (performance initialization) page.
  216. On which page(s) can route modifications be made on the FMC CDU?
    RTE, LEGS, or DIR/INTC pages.
  217. When the top of descent (T/D) point is reached with VNAV controlling the autopilots, what may you expect the aircraft to do?
    Autoflight systems begin VNAV descent if a lower altitude has been selected in the MCP.
  218. What information is required by the IRS to complete alignment and enter the navigation mode?
    Present position (latitude/longitude) entered.
  219. What does the ALIGN light indicate when illuminated on the IRS control panel?
    IRS is not aligned or entered navigation mode, or has lost alignment.
  220. If either the localizer or glideslope is captured, what part of the ILS system is inhibited?
    Frequency changes inhibited with three autopilots in CMD.
  221. When may a fast alignment of the IRS be accomplished?
    Aircraft stationary on ground.
  222. From the list below, choose the task that is NOT part of the IRS alignment process:
    Select ATT.
  223. How is the lowest altitude constraint after T/D depicted on the HSI map displayed?
    A green Circle with the abbreviation E/D next to it.
  224. What message will be displayed during a VNAV descent if airspeed is higher than ECON descent speed?
  225. If the planned route will encroach on the reserve fuel, what message may be displayed on the CDU?
  226. Within what distance of the T/D will the STEP TO line be blank on the CRUISE page?
    200 NM.
  227. If modifications have been made on the RTE 1 LEGS page but not executed, what should the page title show?
  228. What must be accomplished to activate a route that has been entered on the RTE 1 page?
    Select ACTIVATE> prompt, and press illuminated EXEC key.
  229. What is the purpose of the frequency transfer switch on the VHF COMM control panel?
    Selects the active frequency on the panel.
  230. The ground crew hears a short blast of a small horn coming from the nose wheel well, prompting them to communicate with the flight deck. How is this horn activated from the flight deck?
    Pressing the GND CALL switch on the Pilot Call Panel.
  231. Depressing the audio control panel receiver control does what?
    Turns respective receiver ON/OFF at any volume setting.
  232. What determines whether the boom mike or the oxygen mask mike is transmitting when the mike switch is pushed?
    Boom / Oxygen Switch on the audio control panel.
  233. If an incident or accident has occurred, what action should the crew take in regards to the cockpit voice recorder?
    Pull C/B to preserve recording.
Card Set:
ABX 767-200 Systems Initial Flash Cards
2017-01-23 18:03:02
767 200 systems initial Boeing767

This is a study help for those going through B767-200 systems initial ground school at ABX Air.
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