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  1. What are the conditions necessary for chemical sterilization?
    • Temp 273F
    • 20 Minutes
    • 25 psi
  2. What are the conditions necessary for Dry Heat sterilization?
    • Temp 340F
    • 1 hour

    OR

    • Temp 320F
    • 2 hours
  3. What are the conditions necessary for Steam sterilization?
    • Temp 250F
    • 30 min
    • 15 or 20 psi
  4. What level of disinfectants are used in dental offices?
    a. Intermediate
    b. High
    c. Low
    a
  5. Type of spore test used for dry heat sterilization....
    Bacillus atrophaeus
  6. Define GV Black class III restoration...
    Proximal surface of anterior teeth; does NOT involve incisal edge
  7. T/F disinfectants kill or inactivate MOST pathogenic spores?
    False  pathogenic microbes NOT spores
  8. Examples of regulated biohazard waste
    • Sharps
    • Items saturated in blood and/or saliva
    • Hard and soft tissues removed from pt mouth
  9. Type of spore test used for chemical sterilization....
    Geobacillus stearothermophilus
  10. Define GV Black class V restoration....
    Cervical (gingival) 1/3 of the facial or lingual surfaces of any tooth. (root caries)
  11. Define Angle's class I
    Mesognathic: Normal;mesiobuccal cusp of maxillary 1st molar is positioned in the buccal groove of the mandibular 1st molar

    Canine relationship - max canine occludes with the distal half of the mandibular canine and the mesial half of the mandibular 1st premolar.
  12. Define overbite:
    Vertical overlap of the maxillary incisors to the mandibular incisors
  13. Define GV Black class IV restoration....
    Proximal surface of anterior teeth; involves the incisal edge
  14. Define Angle's class II
    Retrognathic: buccal groove of the mandibular 1st molar is distal to the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary 1st molar.

    Canine: distal portion of the maxillary canine is mesial to the mesial portion of the mandibular canine by at least the width of a premolar

    Div I: retruded mandible with one or more maxillary anterior teeth protruded facially

    Div II: retruded mandible with one or more maxillary anterior teeth inclined lingually
  15. Define GV Black class I restoration....
    Pits and fissures on lingual surfaces of anterior and on occlusal, buccal, and lingual surfaces of posterior teeth
  16. Define Overjet
    horizontal distance between the linguals of the maxillary anterior incisors and the facials of the mandibular anterior incisors
  17. Define Angle's class III
    Prognathic: buccal groove of the mandibular 1st molar is mesial to the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary 1st molar by at least the width of a premolar

    Canine: mesial portion of the maxillary canine is distal to the distal surface of the mandibular canine by the width of a premolar
  18. Define GV Black class VI restoration....
    Incisal edge of anterior and/or cusp tips of posterior teeth
  19. Define Openbite:
    teeth not in occlusion between the maxillary and mandibular teeth or arches
  20. Define GV Black class II restoration....
    Proximal surface of posterior teeth; commonly involves occlusal surfaces
  21. Define crossbite
    maxillary teeth are positioned lingual to or totally facial to mandibular teeth
  22. Furcations:
    • Class I: early bone loss, instrument can enter depression
    • Class II: moderate bone loss, instrument can enter furcation
    • Class III: severe bone loss, instrument can pass between roots
    • Class IV: same as III but with recession
  23. Mobility
    Class I slight horizontal movement

    Class II moderate, greater than 1mm horizontal movement

    Class III severe, greater than 1mm horizontal and vertical movement
  24. What is the nutrient source for supragingival calculus?
    Saliva
  25. Name 3 ways to detect calculus....
    • Explorer
    • Air
    • Radiographs
  26. What is the nutrient source for subgingival calculus?
    Crevicular fluid
  27. 4 parts to fluoride role in caries process
    • Interferes with bacterial metabolism
    • Bactericidal (destructive)
    • Bacteriostatic (inhibits)
    • Substantivity
  28. What 4 ways can you get topical fluoride?
    • Water
    • Toothpaste
    • Rinses
    • Fluoride treatment
  29. Optimal fluoride level in water....
    • 0.7ppm
    • (prior to Jan 2011 the levels depended on climate)
  30. T/F Fluoride supplements are recommended for pregnant women
    False
  31. What type of fluoride is recommended for rampant caries?
    • Sodium fluoride
    • 4 minutes in a tray for maximum efficacy
  32. What fluoride is contraindicated for composite and porcelain restorations?
    Acidulated Phosphate Fluoride
  33. What are the adverse reactions of sodium fluoride?
    None
  34. What 3 compounds are used to fluoridate water?
    • Sodium fluoride
    • Sodium silicofluoride
    • Hydrofluorosilicic acid
  35. What is the most common adverse reaction to stannous fluoride?
    Brown staining
  36. T/F If a patient has hypersensitivity due to recession, use NaF
    True, (NaF= sodium fluoride) varnish
  37. What is the recommended age for children to start using fluoride rinse?
    6 years old (due to risk of swallowing)
  38. What are the active ingredients that are used for antihypersensitivity?
    • Potassium nitrate
    • Strontium chloride
    • Sodium citrate
  39. What is the therapeutic use of pyrophospahtes?
    Tartar control
  40. What is the antibacterial ingredient of dentifrices?
    Triclosan
  41. What is the cycles per sec for the magnetostrictive ultrasonic?
    a. 15,000-17,000
    b. 18,000-45,000
    c. 46,000-48,000
    d. 20,000-25,000
    B
  42. T/F the piezoelectric ultrasonic produces rapid linear strokes.
    True, magnetostrictive is elliptical or orbital
  43. What 4 systemic conditions are taken into consideration prior to use of any sonic scaler?
    • Communicable disease
    • Respiratory
    • Difficulty swallowing
    • Susceptible to infection
  44. T/F it is suggested to contact a patients physician for medical clearance prior to using ultrasonics if the patient has a pacemaker.
    True
  45. Define severe periodontitis
    > or = to 5mm CAL, horizontal and vertical bone loss >50% with mobility and furcation involvement
  46. What specific gracey curet is used for direct facials and linguals of posterior teeth?
    • 7-8
    • (9-10 is buccal/lingual of molars)
  47. What type of curet or scaler is safe for implants?
    • Plastic
    • Nylon
    • Graphite
    • Gold-tipped
  48. List the 8 contraindications for rubber cup polishing...
    • Xerostomia
    • Decay or demineralized areas
    • Tooth sensitivity
    • Newly erupted teeth
    • Severe gingivitis
    • Lack of extrinsic stain and/or plaque
    • Exposed root surfaces
    • Respiratory conditions
  49. Contraindications for air polishing
    • Sodium restricted diet
    • Spongy gingiva
    • Respirtory
    • Restorative materials (composite, veneers)
    • Exposed roots
    • immunocompromised
    • Anti-diuretics and steroid therapy
  50. Define slight periodontitis
    1-2mm CAL, slight horizontal bone loss up to 20%
  51. What is the mechanism of action for chlorhexidine gluconate?
    Bactericidal (inhibits) colonization and prevents pellicle formation, also has high substantivity
  52. Side effects of chlorhexidine gluconate...
    • Staining
    • Altered taste
    • Irritant
    • Increased supra calculus
  53. Clinical uses of chlorhexidine gluconate...
    • Pre-procedural rinse
    • High caries risk - supress strep mutans
    • Adjunct to surgical treatment
  54. What are examples of quaternary ammonium compounds (cetylpyridinium chloride; CPC)?
    • Scope
    • Cepacol
    • Crest Pro-Health
  55. T/F a scaler removes deposits supragingivally and up to 2mm subgingivally.
    True
  56. Name 2 primary differences between scaler and curet....
    • Scaler- triangular cross section and pointed tip
    • Curet- half-moon cross section and rounded toe
  57. Cancer patient presents with oral mucositis, what rinse would best be recommended?
    Baking soda or saline solution followed by plain water.
  58. Define moderate periodontitis
    3-4mm CAL, moderate horizontal/vertical bone loss 20-50%
  59. Adhesion:
    chemical attraction between unlike molecules (tape)
  60. Cohesion:
    chemical attraction between like molecules (football team)
  61. Coefficient of thermal expansion:
    index that indicates how one material reacts to temperature extremes in relation to another (amalgam/enamel)
  62. Compressive Strength:
    the force at which a material breaks under pressure (bite)
  63. Creep:
    slow dimensional change caused by compression
  64. Ductility:
    ability to undergo change of form without breaking
  65. Elasticity:
    a material's ability to recover its initial shape after undergoing force
  66. Galvanism:
    an electrical current generated by dissimilar metals in a acidic environment
  67. Gelation:
    process of gelling (solidification by cold)
  68. Imbibition:
    absorption of a solvent by a gel (sponge)
  69. Malleability:
    a materials]'s capacity to be shaped by force or pressure
  70. Microleakage (percolation):
    passage of oral fluids/bacteria into and out of tooth structure due to a marginal gap or failure of the marginal (restorative) seal
  71. Polymerization:
    the linking, branching, or cross-linking of smaller molecules to generate a larger molecule, as seen with composite bonding and impression setting
  72. Proportional limit :
    the force at which a material cannot return to its original shape
  73. Syneresis:
    contraction of a gel due to the loss of a solvent
  74. Tensile strength:
    the force needed to stretch a material to the point of fracture
  75. Viscosity:
    resistance to flow
  76. Desirable features of amalgam:
    • Durable
    • Similar compressive strength as enamel
    • Relatively inexpensive
  77. What is amalgam comprised of?
    alloy of mercury with silver, copper, tin and zinc
  78. T/F polishing amalgam reduces corrosion due to more surface area
    False, polishing reduces surface area
  79. What is most common reason for bonding failures?
    Saliva or oil contamination
  80. What is usually added to composite material for radiopacity?
    Barium or strontium
  81. What are liners generally used for?
    Seal dentin or medicate the dental pulp
  82. Types of liners....
    • Calcium hydroxide (stimulates reaparative dentin formation/pulp exposure)
    • Zinc-oxide/eugenol:IRM (soothes pulp, contraindicated for composite)
    • Glass-ionomer (seals tubules and releases fluoride)
  83. What are bases generally used for?
    Provide thermal insulation or mechanical protection for the dental pulp ( insulate/protect)

    Includes all cements because cements are poor thermal conductors and have adequate compressive strength
  84. Name 6 types of cements:
    • 1. Zinc phosphate- exothermic (use glass slab)
    • 2. Polycarboxylate- powder and acid mixed, high chemical affinity for enamel
    • 3. Glass ionomer- binds to dentin, releases fluoride, good for class V
    • 4. Resin cement- tooth colored, good for veneers, tooth colored inlays, used for luting
    • 5. Hybrid cements- seal dentin,release fluoride
    • 6. Zinc-oxide eugenol (IRM)- common temp cement, orange solvent used to clean up
  85. T/F Alginate is a water-soluble aqueous reversible hydrocolloid
    False, alginate is irreversible
  86. Gypsum Products:
    There are 2 types of calcium sulfate hemi-hydrate
    Alpha and Beta  Which is stone and which is plaster? Which has a lower compressive strength?
    • Alpha- Stone (yellow, more accurate and wear resistant)
    • Beta- Plaster (white, requires more water, undergoes greater setting expansion, therefore lower compressive strength)

    A is better than B
  87. What noble metals are used in casting alloys?
    • Gold, platinum and palladium
    • (noble metals resist tarnish and corrosion)
  88. Nonprecious alloys contain what base metals?
    Silver, copper, nickel, tin and zinc
  89. T/F Intra-orally gold may be polished with rouge
    False, extra-orally in the lab only, rouge is toxic.
  90. Leading cause of implant failure:
    Mobility
  91. Contra-indications to implant placement
    • inadequate bone
    • uncontrolled perio disease
    • smoking
    • infection
    • bisphosphonates (wait 2-3 years)
  92. Antimicorbial active ingredient in gum care toothpaste:
    Triclosan
  93. Active ingredient in tartar control toothpaste:
    pyrophosphate
  94. GV Black Class I
    all pits and fissures
  95. GV Black class II
    posterior proximals
  96. GV Black Class III
    anterior proximals
  97. GV BLack class IV
    anterior proximals involving the incisal edge
  98. GV Black class V
    facial or lingual gingival third
  99. GV Black Class VI
    cusp tip and/or incisal edge
  100. The distal of the mesial buccal root of tooth #2 requires root planing. Which gracey curet is used to instrument this area?
    a. 1/2
    b. 5/6
    c. 11/12
    d. 13/14
    D
  101. The mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar is slightly mesial to the buccal groove of the mandibular first molar. Which Angle's classification of occlusion does this describe?
    a. I
    b. II Div I
    c. II Div II
    d. III
    C
  102. Which medical emergency is characterized by tachycardia, sweating, irritability, and dizziness?
    a. syncope
    b. heart attack
    c. hypoglycemia
    d. hyperglycemia
    c
  103. Patient presents with sensitivity due to recession. Each is an active ingredient in dentrifices that can decrease hypersensitivity EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
    a. strontium chloride
    b. potassium nitrate
    c. sodium citrate
    d. stannous
    D
  104. A material that is highly ductile:
    a. will easily break when stretched
    b. can undergo a change of form without breaking
    c. will genrate an electrical current in an acidic environment
    d. can recover its original shape after having undergone a force
    B
  105. Silver amalgam alloys contain copper to:
    a. minimize galvanism
    b. reduce the rate of corrosion
    c. reduce thermal conductivity
    d. improve compressive strength
    B
  106. The liner most commonly used to stimulate the development of secondary dentin in the event of a pulp exposure is:
    a. calcium hydroxide
    b. zinc-oxide/eugenol
    c. zinc phosphate cement
    d. resin-modified glass ionomer
    A
  107. To slow the set of gypsum and gain more working time in pouring a model, a person would:
    a. mix with hot water
    b. add borax to the mix
    c. mix with really cold water
    d. add potassium sulfate to the mix
    B
  108. The best dental wax to modify an impression tray is:
    a. sticky wax
    b. utility wax
    c. boxing wax
    d. baseplate wax
    B
  109. The primary benefit of using noble metals in restorative alloys is:
    a. less expensive
    b. highly allergenic
    c. extremely cosmetic
    d. resist tarnish and corrosion
    D
  110. Contraindications to implant placement include:

    a. inadequate bone

    b. uncontrolled perio disease

    c. history of bisphosphonate therapy

    d. all of the above
    D
  111. A leading cause of dentinal hypersensitivity is due to the incorporation of what ingredient in toothpaste?
    a. baking soda
    b. pyrohosphates
    c. potassium nitrate
    d. hydrogen peroxide
    B
  112. According to GV Black's classification of restorations, an anterior proximal filling would be:
    a. class I
    b. class II
    c. class III
    d. class IV
    C
  113. One of the benefits of using glass ionomer cement, is that:
    a. it releases fluoride
    b. it's mixed with polyacrylic acid
    c. it has a high chemical affinity for enamel
    d. it undergoes an exothermic reaction when mixed
    A
  114. T/F Gram(-) bacteria contain endotoxins
    True
  115. Characteristics of gram (+) cell wall:
    • 2 layers
    • low lipid content
    • susceptible to penicillin and lysozymes
    • contain NO endotoxin
  116. Characteristics of gram (-) cell wall
    • 3 layers
    • HIGH lipid content
    • NOT susceptible to penicillin or lysozymes
    • contains endotoxin
  117. What is required for gram (+) cocci to invade tissue and infect the host?
    Hyaluronidase or "spreading factor"
  118. How are streptococcus differentiated?
    By their ability to hemolyze red blood cells

    • Beta-hemolytic strep completely lyses
    • Alph-hemolytic strep partially lyses
    • Gamma-hemolytic strep is unable to lyse
  119. Which streptococcus are MOST pathogenic?
    Beta-hemolytic, generally resistant to phagocytosis
  120. Which streptococcus are caries causing?
    Alpha-hemolytic - strep mutans create acid and dextrans from sucrose
  121. What is the only sugar that is metabolized into dextrans causing caries?
    sucrose, all others metabolized into lactic acid
  122. Lactobacillus are:
    Gram (+) rods associated with advanced caries
  123. What bacteria are associated with root caries?
    Gram (+) rods, actinomyces
  124. What is the causative organism for gonorrhea?
    Gram (-) cocci, neisseria
  125. What causative organism is associated with syphilis, Lyme disease and are closely associated with NUP/NUG?
    Gram (-) spiral, spirochetes
  126. 4 classifications of organisms based on oxygen metabolism:
    • 1. obligate aerobes
    • 2. facultative anaerobes
    • 3. microaerophilic
    • 4. obligate anaerobes
  127. Bacteria in obligate aerobe classification:
    • Neisseria
    • Psuedomonas
    • Mycobacterium
  128. Prevotella is:
    Gram (-) rod associated with "pregnancy" gingivitis, cellulitis and NUP/NUG
  129. What organism is associated with periodontal disease and connective tissue destruction?
    Porphyromonas gingivalis, produces collangenase
  130. What organism is aerobic but can grow in the absence of oxygen?
    • facultative anaerobes grow via fermentation
    • Staphylococcus
    • Listeria
    • Actinomyces
  131. What organism produces energy via the Kreb cycle and glycolysis and do NOT tolerate O2?
    Obligate anaerobes
  132. Bacterial growth has 4 phases, which phase is BEST time for abx treatment?
    a. Lag phase
    b. Logarithmic phase
    c. Stationary phase
    d. Death phase
    B
  133. What component of the normal oral flora is also present in the digestive, respiratory and urogenital tract and can lead to systemic infection?
    Candida albicans
  134. When does candidiasis occur?
    when normal oral flora is reduced
  135. What is the topical treatment for Candidiasis?
    Nystatin or clotrimazole
  136. What is the systemic treatment for "thrush"?
    "Thrush" or candidiasis systemic treatment is Ketoconazole or Fluconazole
  137. T/F viruses can replicate without a host
    False, viruses require host for energy and replication
  138. Define specificity:
    the kinds of cells a virus can infect
  139. Define host range:
    the different kinds of organisms the virus can infect
  140. What is a positive strand?
    a viral genome similar to the host cell's mRNA
  141. What serves as a template for mRNA production?
    Negative strand
  142. Examples of RNA viruses:
    • Hep A, C, D, E
    • Rhinovirus
    • Influenza
    • Mumps
    • Measles
    • Rabies
    • HIV
  143. Transcription:
    conversion of DNA into mRNA
  144. Translation:
    decoding of mRNA
  145. Examples of DNA viruses:
    • Hep B
    • Human papilloma virus
    • Herpes simplex I and II
    • Varicella zoster
    • Epstein-barr (associated w/hairy leukoplakia)
  146. T/F Hep B, C and D are blood-borne pathogens
    True, hep A and E are not
  147. ____________ immunity occurs after exposure to an antigen, and improves with repeated exposure.
    Acquired
  148. What immunity typically results from vaccination?
    Artificially acquired active immunity
  149. Naturally acquired active immunity results from....
    Infection
  150. What immunity occurs during pregnancy?
    Naturally acquired passive immunity
  151. Cells of the immune system are:
    • Leukocytes
    • Lymphocytes
    • T-Cells
    • B-Cells
    • Natural killer cells
    • Neutrophils
    • Dendritic
    • Antibodies
  152. Antibodies of the immune system:
    • MADGE
    • IgM- (largest) Monster big
    • IgA- salivA
    • IgD- respiratory protection
    • IgG- primary responder (Gobs, most abundant)
    • IgE- mediates anaphylactic hypersensitivity
  153. 2 types of T-cells:
    CD8- cytotoxic directly attack and destroy disease cells

    CD4- helper, produce cytokines which stimulate other immune cells
  154. What immune cells are key components of the humoral immune response?
    B-cells, differentiate into plasma cells which produce antibodies
  155. What cells are the most numerous of all white blood cells and represent the first line of defense?
    Neutrophils
  156. What are the 4 types of hypersensitivity reactions?
    • I:anaphylactic (immediate)
    • II:Cytotoxic
    • III:Immune complex
    • IV:Delayed
  157. Process by which a pathogen is marked by an antibody for phagocytosis:
    opsonization
  158. What are the simplest carbohydrates?
    • Monosaccharides-
    •    Glucose- brain fuel
    •    Fructose- sweetes
    •    Galactose- milk sugar
  159. What are disaccharides?
    • Double sugars- 2 monosaccharides
    •    Sucrose (glucose+fructose)
    •    Lactose (glucose+galactose)
    •    Maltose (2 glucose)
  160. What are complex sugars?
    • Polysaccharides, 10 sugar units or more
    •    Starch
    •    Glycogen
    •    Fibers
  161. What 2 monosaccharides make up sucrose?
    glucose+fructose
  162. Glycogen in the __________ regulates blood sugar for the brain, while in the ___________ serves as an energy source for contraction.
    Liver, muscle
  163. T/F functional (soluble) fiber increases peristalsis.
    False, dietary (insoluble) does.
  164. Initial digestion begins with what enzyme?
    Salivary amylase
  165. How much energy does 1 gram of polysaccharide provide?
    4 kilocalories/gram
  166. What 2 monosaccharides make up lactose?
    glucose+galactose
  167. How much stored energy can glycogen provide?
    12-24 hours
  168. What sugar is considered antimicrobial?
    Xylitol, S. mutans are attracted but the bacteria cannot metabolize it
  169. What 2 monosaccharides make up maltose?
    2 glucose
  170. What sugars do not promote tooth decay?
    • Sugar alcohols-   "tols"   metabolize at a slower rate.
    •    Sorbitol
    •    Mannitol
    •    Xylitol
  171. What active ingredient in NutrSweet and Equal must carry PKU warning?
    Aspartame
  172. Define type I diabetes....
    • Insulin dependent
    • Onset usually children and young adults
  173. What is the MOST common type of diabetes?
    • Type II
    • usually develops over 40 yr old and obese
  174. Signs and symptoms of diabetes....
    • Hyperglycemia
    • Ketosis, acetone breath (fruity odor)
    • Ketonemia/ketonuria, ketones in blood/urine
    • Polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, increase thirst, urination, appetite
  175. Chronic complications of diabetes....
    • Increase perio disease
    • Xerostomia (therefore decay)
    • Loss of sight and kidney function
    • Poor circulation
    • Heart disease
  176. Name 3 dental treatment considerations for diabetic patient....
    • schedule early, after breakfast
    • have rapid absorbing sugars available
    • stress reduction protocols
  177. Patient presents with shakiness, sweating, irritability, hunger and palpitations, what is the cause?
    HYPOglycemia
  178. The brain is fueled entirely by _____________.
    Glucose
  179. What is important to evaluate in a diet survey?
    • frequency of intake (MOST important)
    • physical form of food
    • amount of sugar added to foods
    • total intake
  180. What is the main function of proteins?
    Repair/build tissue/cells
  181. What are essential amino acids?
    Indispensable-body can NOT synthesize, must obtain from diet
  182. Nonessential (dispensable) amino acids are synthesized in the ____________.
    Liver
  183. What are complete proteins?
    High quality- foods that consist of ALL 9 essential amino acids in sufficient amounts. Animal (fish, meat, eggs, cheese, milk) and soy proteins
  184. Incomplete proteins are derived from _______
    plant proteins.
  185. What  is phenylketonuria?
    (PKU) inborn error of metabolism. Liver cannot metabolize phenylalanine into nonessential amino acid tyrosine.
  186. T/F Patients with PKU must avoid Equal/NutraSweet (aspartame)
    True
  187. Examples of complete proteins:
    Fish, eggs, meat, cheese, milk
  188. What are 2 forms of protein-energy malnutrition?
    Marasmus- "to waste away"

    Kwashiorkor- "bloated belly" (severe protein deficiency)
  189. What is the acute form of protein-energy malnutrition?
    Kwashiorkor
  190. Functions of lipids (fats):
    • provide concentrate source of energy
    • carry fat-soluble vitamins
    • provide satiety
    • provide flavor and texture to foods
    • provide insulation to maintain body temp and protect organs
  191. Saturated fats are ____________ at room temperature.
    solid
  192. What essential fatty acids must be obtained from diet?
    Linoleic- Omega 6 (sunflower, vegetable oils)

    Linolenic- Omega 3 (fish, peanut and olive oil)
  193. What consistency is polyunsaturated fatty acids?
    liquid
  194. Monounsaturated fatty acids are derived from....
    canola and olive oils
  195. How much energy does 1 gram of lipids provide?
    9 kilocalories/gram
  196. What are sources of saturated fatty acids?
    Beef, lard, and animal fats
  197. Name the fat-soluble vitamins...
    • A
    • D
    • E
    • K
  198. In children, softening of bones due to failure to calcify is called.....
    Rickets, due to vitamin D deficiency
  199. What vitamin assists in absorption of calcium and phosphorus and supports bone health and immune function?
    Vitamin D
  200. Vitamin ______ functions as antioxidant; stimulates immune response.
    E
  201. What vitamin aid in formation of blood-clotting factor prothrombin?
    Vitamin K
  202. What do vitamins A and D have in common?
    Bone health and immune function
  203. What is the main function of water-soluble vitamins?
    Metabolism of carbohydrates, fats, proteins and blood formation
  204. What nutritional deficiency is found in strict vegetarians?
    Pernicious anemia, B12 deficient
  205. Deficiency of what vitamin leads to cheilosis, glossitis and fatigue?
    Riboflavin (B2)
  206. Spina bifida is from a deficiency of what vitamin?
    Folate (B9)
  207. What vitamin promotes synthesis of protein collagen, antioxidant and wound healing?
    Vitamin C (ascorbic acid)
  208. Thiamine (B1) is found in what sources?
    Pork, enriched and fortified foods and whole grains
  209. What is the MOST abundant mineral in the body?
    Calcium
  210. What mineral contributes to high blood pressure?
    Sodium
  211. 2 common eating disorders....
    • Anorexia-starvation
    • Bulimia-binge/purge
  212. Pica is.....
    Iron deficiency characterized by consuming non-nutritive substances (soil, paper, coal, paint chips)
  213. What treatments are recommended for bulimia?
    • Sodium fluoride rinses to aid remineralization
    • Sodium bicarbonate rinses to neutralize acids
    • Chew sugar free gum to stimulate salivary flow
  214. What is a common oral manifestation of bulimia?
    dental erosion (perimolysis) found on lingual surfaces of maxillary teeth

    cheilosis associated with loss of moisture of saliva
  215. Glucose is also known as:
    a. maltose
    b. levulose
    c. glycogen
    d. dextrose
    D
  216. Sucrose is hydrolyzed into:
    a. glucose and fructose
    b. glucose and galactose
    c. two molecules of glucose
    d. two molecules of fructose
    A
  217. Each of the following is a sign or symptom of diabetes mellitus EXCEPT...
    a. Ketonemia
    b. Acetone breath
    c. Hyperglycemia
    d. Decreased appetite
    D
  218. Good examples of complete proteins include:
    a. meat, fruit and fish
    b. meat, eggs and cheese
    c. meat, fruit and vegetables
    d. grains, fruit and vegetables
    B
  219. Aspartame should NOT be consumed by individuals with:
    a. diabetes
    b. marasmus
    c. phenylketonuria
    d. high blood pressure
    C
  220. Which fatty acids maintain serum cholesterol levels?
    a. saturated
    b. derived lipid
    c. polyunsaturated
    d. monounsaturated
    D
  221. Linoleic fatty acid is also known at Omega-3. Sources of linoleic fatty acids include mackerel and salmon.
    a. both true
    b. both false
    c. first true, second false
    d. first false, second true
    B
  222. Which vitamin can interfere with the function of vitamin K?
    a. B1
    b. C
    c. D
    D. E
    D
  223. Which vitamin is essential for the absorption of calcium and phosphorus?
    a. E
    b. A
    c. D
    d. B3
    C
  224. Which is NOT a component of Vit B complex?
    a. Thiamine
    b. Folic acid
    c. Ascorbic acid
    d. Pantothenic acid
    C
  225. Which vitamin promotes the synthesis of collagen?
    a. D
    b. A
    c. C
    d. K
    C
  226. Community dental health increases emphasis on improving ________________ to oral healthcare.
    public access
  227. Name 5 roles fulfilled by DH in conducting specific activities in relation to community programs.....
    • 1. Educator
    • 2. Admin/manager
    • 3. Advocate
    • 4. Clinician
    • 5. Researcher
  228. What is the MOST significant difference between public health and private practice?
    • Community = population served
    • Private = patient is served
  229. Standard procedure in private practice is the review health history, in community health what is used?
    Survey
  230. Community health practice uses analysis while private practice uses.....
    diagnosis
  231. Treatment planning in private practice relates to _______________ in community health practice.
    program planning
  232. 3 most efficient uses of DH in public health....
    • 1. planning, conducting and evaluating programs
    • 2. training others to provide services
    • 3. serving as a resource
  233. What is the LEAST efficient activity for a DH that is coordinating an oral health program in a nursing home?
    A. provide daily oral hygiene for the residents
    B. collect and analyze data to evaluate the oral health program
    C. train aids to look for and recognize residents' oral health problems
    D. arrange for a mobile dental practice to provide care at the facility
    A. other staff can be trained for daily care
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  234. What is a condition, practice or situation that is widespread and an actual or potential cause of disease or death?
    Public health problem
  235. What is a solution to a public health problem that is directed to the community at large?
    Public health solution
  236. What is a description of economic and social position based on income, education and occupation?
    Socioeconomic status (SES)
  237. 7 Characteristics of an ideal public health solution....(board alert** a question may ask which is BEST program, evaluate based on these)
    • 1. safe
    • 2. effective reduce or prevent target disease/condition
    • 3. easy and efficient to implement
    • 4. potential to maintain for a substantial period of time
    • 5. attainable regardless of socioeconomic status (SES0
    • 6. effective immediately upon application
    • 7. affordable, cost effective, within means of community
  238. All public health activities relate to these core public health functions....
    • Assessment
    • Policy development
    • Assurance
  239. What core public health function is reflected by making federal grants available for the development of state and local oral health programs?
    Assurance, by encouraging action by other entities
  240. What core public health function is reflected by adopting national oral health objectives to direct dental public health program planning activities?
    Policy development
  241. What core public health function is reflected by conducting a program in a community center for older adults to screen for oral cancer, refer for treatment, and provide oral cancer education?
    Assurance by directly providing services
  242. What core public health function is reflected by performing national surveys annually to collect oral health data?
    Assessment
  243. What organization is a key internationally?
    World Health Organization (WHO)
  244. What organization has jurisdiction to act on oral health problems nationally?
    Dept of Health and Human Services (DHHS)
  245. What are the 4 levels of community dental health programs?
    • 1. International level
    • 2. Federal level
    • 3. State level
    • 4. Local level
  246. A faith-based oral health program was awarded a grant from the state health department that was funded through a DHHS block grant. The faith-based program used the funds to purchase mobile dental equipment and fund travel to be able to establish a school-based sealant program in the elementary schools of the local urban school district. What level program did the following?
    1. Supplied the block grant funds?
    2. Received the block grant funds?
    3. Awarded the sealant grant?
    4. Applied for the funds?
    • 1. Federal level (DHHS)
    • 2. State level
    • 3. State level
    • 4. Local level
  247. Study of distribution and determinants of disease frequency and health among groups of people.....
    Epidemiology
  248. What is information that can be counted or expressed numerically, represented in charts and graphs, and manipulated and statistically analyzed?
    Quantitative data
  249. What data is descriptive in nature?
    Qualitative data
  250. Epidemiology is based on a ______________ perspective.
    mulitfactoral
  251. What is the purpose of a descriptive study?
    • define characteristics of a population (measured one time)
    •       large randomized sample
    •       surveys common
  252. Why are questionnaires unreliable?
    self-reporting results in inaccurate information or biased results, people often report incorrectly
  253. Define cohort study:
    one group is followed and observed over a long period (measured multiple times)

    *Cohort means group*
  254. Define case control study:
    two groups are compared, one with the disease (cases) and the other without the disease (controls)
  255. Define cross-sectional study:
    Sometimes referred to as correlation study, represents cross-section of population
  256. A clinical trial that utilized a hypothesis, control group, treatment group, independent variable and dependent variable is known as a(n) _______________________ study.
    experimental research
  257. A survey of oral hygiene habits in the population is an example of what type of study?
    Descriptive
  258. Analysis of the relationship between oral hygiene habits and gingivitis by comparing past history of oral hygiene of a group with gingivitis and a group without gingivitis is an example of what type of study?
    • Case control
    • (with) (without)
  259. A hypothesis testing of the effect of using a power toothbrush versus a manual toothbrush on brushing frequency and gingivitis is an example of what type of study?
    Experimental
  260. what type of study is observation of changes in oral hygiene habits in children over a 10 yr period to establish risk relationship of oral hygiene and gingivitis?
    Cohort (group over a long period)
  261. What study is the BEST way to prevent bias in participants and examiner?
    Double blind study
  262. In terms of data collection:
    validity refers to _____________, while consistency refers to _________________.
    accuracy, reliability
  263. Intraexaminer:

    Interexaminer:
    Same examiner

    Different examiners
  264. What is a nominal scale of measurement?
    Named categories with no order (age, gender, race)
  265. Ordinal scale of measurement is:
    Categories are in ranked order (stages of cancer)
  266. What scale of measurement has no oral health example?
    Interval: equal intervals between values, but no true zero (dates, temps)
  267. What is the MOST important thing to remember when looking at mean, median and mode?
    Put the numbers in order!
  268. Mode:

    Mean:

    Median:
    • most frequent
    • average
    • mid-point
  269. What is a sophisticated measure that is affected by extreme scores?
    Standard deviation
  270. What is a t-test?
    statistical test used to test the difference between two mean scores

    *"T" for two
  271. What is a statistical test used to test the difference among three or more mean scores?
    ANOVA (analysis of variance)
  272. What test is computed by comparing entire data sets, not mean scores?
    Chi-square test
  273. The decision to accept or reject the null hypothesis is made based on the probability of a statistical significance level, expressed as the __________.
    p value
  274. What p value is considered statistically significant in oral health research?
    • p < .05     equal to or less than .05
    • (1 chance out of 20)
  275. Ability of a test or index to correctly identify the presence of a disease
    sensitivity
  276. Ability of a test to identify the absence of a disease
    specificity
  277. What is tertiary prevention program planning?
    Involve softening the impact of an ongoing illness (dental implants, dentures, perio maint etc)
  278. What level of program planning involves preventing the onset of disease to reduce incidence?
    Primary prevention
  279. Example of _________________ preventive interventions include restoration of carious lesions and non-surgical periodontal therapy.
    secondary
  280. Community programs use a systematic approach, what are the steps involved?
    assessment-planning-implementation-evaluation (APIE)
  281. Language, money and location can all be considered _________________ to care.
    barriers
  282. Define type III examination:
    • Inspection using
    •    mouth mirror
    •    explorer or probe
    •    adequate light
  283. Define type IV examination:
    • Screening using
    •    tongue depressor
    •    available lighting
  284. What are the 6 levels of the learning ladder?
    • 1. unawareness
    • 2. awareness
    • 3. self-interest
    • 4. involvement
    • 5. action
    • 6. habit

    *ugly apes sit in a hut
  285. How is long-term change more likely to be produced?
    cognitive/behavioral learning
  286. Define Health Belief Model (HBM)
    Individual's course of health action depends on perceptions of the benefits and barriers; stronger beliefs higher probability of action, while stronger perception of barriers lower probability
  287. What is the non-articulated horseshoe shaped bone in the midline, inferior to the mandible?
    Hyoid bone
  288. Name the 12 cranial nerves:
    • I. Olfactory
    • II. Optic
    • III. Oculomotor
    • IV. Trochlear
    • V. Trigeminal
    • VI. Abducens
    • VII. Facial
    • VIII. Vestibulocochlear
    • IX. Glossopharyngeal
    • X. Vagus
    • XI. Accessory
    • XII. Hypoglossal
    • (Oh once one takes the anatomy final, very good vacations are heavenly)
  289. Which nerve has 3 major branches important to DH?
    V trigeminal

    • v1 ophthalmic
    • v2 maxillary
    • v3 mandibular
  290. The __________ leaves the skull through the foramen rotundum.
    v2 maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve
  291. The v3 mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve leaves the skull through____________.
    Foramen Ovale
  292. What division of the trigeminal nerve is both sensory and motor?
    • v3 Mandibular
    • sensory lower teeth
    • motor muscles of mastication
  293. What nerve passes through the incisive foramen?
    Nasopalantine
  294. The mandibular molars are innervated by:
    pulp
    buccal gingiva
    lingual gingiva
    • inferior alveolar nerve
    • buccal nerve
    • lingual nerve
  295. What nerve innervates the pulp of mandibular premolars?
    IA
  296. What nerve innervates the facial gingiva of the mandibular cuspids/incisors?
    Mental nerve
  297. What areas are innervated by the Posterior Superior Alveolar nerve?
    maxillary molars, except MB root of 1st molar, facial gingival tissue
  298. Patient needs root planing and scaling on maxillary premolars, what nerve innervates this area?
    Middle superior alveolar nerve
  299. Function of temporalis muscle?
    retract and elevate the mandible
  300. What muscle elevates and protrudes the mandible?
    Medial pterygoid
  301. The ______________ is internal; the _____________ is external. Both have similar functions (elevate the mandible).
    medial pterygoid, masseter
  302. What is the function of the lateral pterygoid muscle?
    protrude and/or depress the mandible (working with the hyoid muscles) and allow the side to side (lateral) shift of the mandible
  303. Parts of the temporomandibular joint ...
    • temporal bone
    • mandible
    • articular disc
    • capsule
  304. Hypomobility from trauma, disease or bruxism of the TMJ is......
    Trismus
  305. Muscles of mastication:
    Elevation:
    Depression:
    Protrusion:
    Retrusion:
    Lateral shift:
    • masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid
    • lateral pterygoid (with hyoid)
    • lateral pterygoid
    • temporalis
    • lateral pterygoid
  306. What muscle works to depress, protrude and laterally shift the mandible?
    Lateral pterygoid
  307. What muscle becomes enlarged with bruxism?
    Buccinator
  308. What muscles are important for chewing, swallowing, and speaking?
    Hyoid muscles
  309. What 2 nerves innervate the hyoid muscles?
    • Trigeminal (V) h-y-o-i-d (5)
    • Facial (VII) m-u-s-c-l-e-s (7)
  310. The ______________ muscles make up the floor of the mouth.
    mylohyoid
  311. What nerve innervates the muscles of facial expression?
    VII  facial
  312. Where do you check pulse on a child (6 yr old) in an emergency? Adult?
    • brachial
    • carotid
  313. What 3 major branches of the external carotid artery supply blood flow to the oral and facial structures?
    • Maxillary, teeth muscle of mastication and eat
    • Lingual, tongue floor of mouth
    • Facial, muscles of facial expression lips eyelids soft palate throat
  314. Where does the blood flow originate for teeth, tongue, lips, and throat?
    • 3 branches of the external carotid artery:
    •    maxillary
    •    lingual
    •    facial
  315. What artery controls blood flow from the heart to the skull, eyes and brain?
    Internal carotid
  316. What is located on each side of the body, near the base of the brain, behind the bridge of the nose?
    cavernous sinus
  317. What can cause orthostatic hypotension in a pregnant patient?
    Fetal pressure on the inferior vena cava
  318. What structure drains into the plexus including the teeth, muscles of mastication, buccinator, nose and palate?
    Pterygoid plexus
  319. ________________ may result from improper angulation during a ____________ block.
    Hematoma, PSA
  320. Submandibular nodes drain......
    submental nodes, all teeth except mandibular incisors, may (or may not) include 3rd molars
  321. Fluid from the mandibular incisors, tip of the tongue, midline of the lip, chin and floor of the mouth drain from.....
    submental nodes
  322. What node drains the 3rd molars, wall of the throat and submandibular nodes?
    deep cervical nodes
  323. What is the fundamental functional unit of the body?
    The cell
  324. Mitochondria are:
    center of energy production (ATP) and site of cellular respiration- Kreb cycle
  325. Most structures of the oral cavity develop  from 2 embryonic processes: (name them)
    • 1. Frontal process
    • 2. 1st branchial arch
  326. Frontal process forms:
    • median nasal process
    • lateral nasal process
    • globular process (philtrum)
  327. The maxillary process and mandibular process are formed from?
    the 1st branchial arch
  328. Formed by the fusion of the median nasal process and right & left maxillary processes...
    upper lip, 6-8 weeks
  329. The ___________ develops between 6-12 weeks from the fusion of the globular process with the left & right palatal shelves.
    palate
  330. Blood supply for the tongue.....
    lingual artery
  331. How many nerves innervate the tongue?
    • XII motor to muscles
    • V3 sensory to anterior 2/3
    • VII taste to anterior 2/3
    • IX taste sensory to posterior 1/3
  332. What papillae of the tongue contain taste buds and glands of Von Ebner?
    Circumvallate
  333. What papillae protect the tongue and contain NO taste buds?
    • filiform
    •  (silly fili cant taste)
  334. What is the site of the embryonic origin of the thyroid gland?
    foramen caecum of the tongue
  335. The V-shape line separating the anterior 2/3 and posterior 1/3 of tongue....
    Sulcus terminalis
  336. What are the 3 major pairs of salivary glands?
    • submandibular
    • sublingual
    • parotid
  337. What glands empty under the tongue?
    Wharton's duct, submandibular gland
  338. Where are the Bartholin's duct located?
    Sublingual, open at the sublingual fold 10% of saliva
  339. __________ duct or ______________ gland produces 25% of total saliva and empties opposite the maxillary molars.
    Stenson's, parotid
  340. What contains the duct opening for both the submandibular and sublingual salivary glands?
    subingual caruncle
  341. Development of the face begins at week ___ with the formation of the ___________ or stomodeum.
    3, primitive oral cavity
  342. Enamel derives from ____________.
    ectoderm
  343. Dentin and pulp derive from ______________.
    ectomesenchyme
  344. DEJ derives from _____________.
    basement membrane
  345. Enamel comes from __________.
    ameloblasts
  346. What is produced by odontoblasts from the dental papilla?
    Dentin
  347. Cementum is produced by ________ located in the PDL.
    cementoblasts
  348. What tooth has a mesial concavity that is often missed during instrumentation?
    max first premolar
  349. Premolar most often having 2 roots:
    maxillary 1st
  350. Tooth with the longest root:
    maxillary canine
  351. Cuspid with occasionally bifurcated root:
    mandibular (facial-lingual)
  352. Tooth which most often fails to develop:
    third molar or max lateral
  353. Non-functional lingual cusp:
    mandibular first premolar
  354. Premolar which commonly has three cusps:
    mandibular second
  355. Tooth which frequently has a fifth cusp:
    • mandibular 1st molar
    • maxillary 1st molar
  356. Tooth most often affected by microdontia:
    maxillary lateral incisor
  357. Tooth most likely to have a root with 2 canals:
    mandibular 1st molar (mesial root)
  358. Tooth most likely to exhibit lingual caries;
    maxillary lateral incisor
  359. Max first molar oblique ridge runs from ___________ cusp to ________________ cusp.
    distobuccal, mesiolingual
  360. Which root of the molars is the strongest and widest?
    Mesial root mandibular 1st molar
  361. Which tooth has a tendency to have divergent roots?
    Dauntless (hahaha)

    maxillary 1st molar
  362. Tooth with the most unique anatomy:
    Primary 1st mandibular molar
  363. Three of the 6 bones which comprise the orbit include:
    a. ethmoid, frontal, parietal
    b. ethmoid, lacrimal, palatine
    c. ethmoid, sphenoid, zygoma
    d. ethmoid, spheniod, palatine
    C
  364. Four cranial nerves providing innervation of the tongue include:
    a. V, VI, IX, and X
    b. V, VI, VII and IX
    c. V, VII, IX, and XII
    d. V, VI, VII, and VIII
    C
  365. The muscles of mastication most responsible for protrusion of the jaw are:
    a. masseters
    b. temporalis
    c. medial pterygoids
    d. lateral pterygoids
    D
  366. The articular fossa is provided by what bone?
    a. parietal
    b. occipital
    c. sphenoid
    d. temporal
    D
  367. Wharton's duct empties the:
    a. Glands of Von Ebner
    b. Parotid salivary glands
    c. Sublingual salivary glands
    d. Submandibular salivary glands
    D
  368. The keratinized papillae of the tongue are:
    a. foliate
    b. filiform
    c. fungiform
    d. circumvallate
    B
  369. Three developmental processes must fuse to create the upper lip. They are:
    a. median nasal, lateral nasal, and globular
    b. globular and the left and right maxillary processes
    c. left and right maxillary processes and the 1st branchial arch
    d. lateral nasal, globular and the left and right maxillary process
    B
  370. The primary lymphatic node which drains the lower incisors, tip of the tongue, midline of the lip, chin and floor of the mouth is the:
    a. submental node
    b. submandibular node
    c. inferior deep cervical node
    d. superior deep cervical node
    A
  371. Fetal pressure on what structure can cause orthostatic hypotension?
    a. internal jugular
    b. cavernous sinus
    c. pterygoid plexus
    d. inferior vena cava
    D
  372. Cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal) provide motor innercation to all the muscles of the tongue except:
    a. hyoglossus
    b. styloglossus
    c. genioglossus
    d. palatoglossus
    D
  373. ____________ results from elongated filiform.
    Hairy tongue
  374. ________________ results from loss o filiform papillae.
    Geographic tongue
  375. ______________ may be associated with candida albicans; devoid of filiform papillae
    Median rhomboid glossitis
  376. Enlarged tongue; _______________ - typically seen in patients with _____________
    Macroglossia, Down syndrome
  377. White benign lesion seen on the hard palate of heavy smokers........
    Nicotine stomatitis
  378. Immuno-supressed patients, as well as denture wearers and diabetics may present with white lesions known as _______________.
    Candidiasis
  379. 5 types of candidiasis:
    • 1. psuedomembranous
    • 2. erythematous
    • 3. chronic atrophic candidiasis
    • 4. angular cheilitis
    • 5. median rhomboid glossitits
  380. Nutritional deficiency of Riboflavin (B2) is associated with ______________.
    Angular cheilitis
  381. Benign anomaly which appears as a gray-to-white film on the buccal mucosa, giving tissue an opaque quality (stretching make the opalescence less noticeable), more common in African-Amercians is:
    Leukodema
  382. Hyperkeratotic lesion that extends antero-posteriorly on the buccal mucosa along the occlusal plane:
    Linea alba
  383. White patch or plaque of oral mucosa that can NOT be wiped off, may be related to use of tobacco:
    Leukoplakia
  384. Etiologic agent appears to be the Epstein-Barr virus in association with HIV, low CD-4 count, white patch seen on the lateral border of the tongue:
    Hairy leukoplakia
  385. Racial or normal pigmentation, variable in dark-skinned patients:
    physiological pigmentation
  386. Melatonic macule is:
    Flat brown lesion, "oral freckle"
  387. MOST common pigmented lesion, may be seen on radiographs:
    amalgam tatoo
  388. Intraoral sebaceous gland, small yellow nodules on buccal mucosa and vermillion border, seen after puberty:
    Fordyce's granules
  389. Signs of Addison's Disease:
    • diffuse pigmentation of the skin
    • melanotic macules; also petechiae seen on the palate
    • bronzing, tinted skin
  390. Insufficient production of adrenal steroids due to destruction of the adrenal gland:
    Addison's disease
  391. MOST common tumor of the oral cavity:
    Irritation/traumatic fibroma
  392. Pedunculated, cauliflower-like, warty, soft lesion:
    Papilloma, caused by HPV
  393. Common vascular lesion, tongue most common intraoral location:
    Hemangioma
  394. Common occurring oral lesion, maybe caused by changing hormone levels, often occuring in pregnant women (but can be seen in men and non-pregnant women):
    Pyogenic granuloma
  395. An increase in the bulk of the free and attached gingiva, especially involving the interdental papilla, may be generalized or localized, and can be associated with certain medications:
    gingival hyperplasia
  396. What condition may be present in a patient taking phenytoin (dilantin), calcium channel blocker or cyclosporine?
    Gingival hyperplasia
  397. Characteristic skin lesion presents with bull's eye (target) lesion which demonstrates circles of erythema and normal skin tones:
    Erythema multiforme
  398. MOST severe form of erythema multiforme, larger painful mucosal lesions on 2 mucosal surfaces, may involve genitals and mucosa of the eyes:
    Stevens-Johnson syndrome
  399. Lace-like white lines, commonly seen on buccal mucosa, fine lines termed Wickham's striae:
    Lichen planus
  400. Chronic, progressive with periods of remission, most common skin lesion is the "butterfly" rash over the nose, multi-organ involvement:
    Lupus
  401. Painful, recurring ulcers seen only on movable mucosa of the oral cavity, minor, major, herpetiform; caused by trauma, emotional stress, or certain foods:
    Aphthous ulcer
  402. Type II herpes simplex virus causes _________ lesions, while type I causes _________ lesions.
    genital, oral
  403. HSV can cause painful infection of the fingers known as:
    Herpetic whitlow
  404. Palatal petichiae is an important oral manifestation of what virus that is transmittted by kissing, contact with saliva and has a clinical symptom of fatigue, sore throat and fever:
    Infectious mononucleosis (mono), caused by the Epstein-Barr virus
  405. A specific type of enamel hypoplasia seen in persons with congenital syphilis is termed:
    a. turner tooth
    b. mulberry molars
    c. opalescent dentin
    d. hypomineralized enamel pits
    B
  406. The overgrowth of candida albicans may occur in all circumstances EXCEPT:
    a. NUG
    b. denture wearer
    c. antibiotic therapy
    d. radiation/chemotherapy
    A
  407. Angular cheilitis may be seen accompanying an intraoral candida infection. Angular cheilitis may be precipitated by a habit such as lip licking.
    a. both true
    b. both false
    c. first true, second false
    d. first false, second true
    A
  408. Identify the most common form of recurrent herpes simplex infection:
    a. herpangina
    b. herpes labialis
    c. herpetic whitlow
    d. primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
    B
  409. Identify the virus associated with infectious mononucleosis:
    A. Varicella zoster
    B. Herpes simplex
    C. Epstein Barr
    D. Human papilloma virus
    C. Epstein-Barr
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  410. What is an oral manifestation that may be seen in a patient with infectious mononucleosis:
    a. mobility
    b. periodontitis
    c. white plaques
    d. palatal petichiae
    D
  411. "Partial anodontia" is another term for:
    a. dysplasia
    b. mesiodens
    c. hypodontia
    d. hyperdontia
    C
  412. Fordyce granules are most likely noticed initially in which patient group?
    a. infants
    b. teenagers
    c. senior citizens
    d. middle-aged adults
    B
  413. The nasopalatine duct cyst demostrates a "heart shape" due to the superimposition of which anatomic structure?
    a. inverted "Y"
    b. nasal septum
    c. anterior nasal spine
    d. inferior nasal spine
    C
  414. An ill-fitting denture may cause all the pathologic lesions EXCEPT:
    a. actinic cheilitis
    b. epulis fissuratum
    c. papillary hyperplasia
    d. chronic atrophic candidiasis
    A
  415. An abnormal bend or curve in a tooth, usually maxillary incisors, and may be induced from trauma:
    Dilaceration
  416. Bruxism is a pathologic manifestation of which of the following conditions?
    a. erosion
    b. attrition
    c. abrasion
    d. abfraction
    B
  417. Which of the following is the most common site for a supernumerary tooth?
    a. distal to max 3rd
    b. distal to mand 3rd
    c. between mand bicuspids
    d. between max central incisors
    D
  418. A permanent tooth that displays hypoplasia caused by trauma or infection during development has been termed:
    a. "peg" lateral
    b. mulberry tooth
    c. turner's hypoplasia
    d. hutchinson's incisor
    C
  419. Hairy tongue is characterized by hyperplasia of which of the following papillae?
    a. foliate
    b. filiform
    c. fungiform
    d. circumvallate
    B
  420. All of the following medications have been associated with gingival hyperplasia EXCEPT:
    a. inderal
    b. phenytoin
    c. nifedipine
    d. cyclosporine
    A
  421. What is the MOST common location for AIDS-related "oral hairy leukoplakia"?
    a. soft palate
    b. buccal mucosa
    c. dorsum of the tongue
    d. lateral border of the tongue
    D
  422. The most common location for a mucocele is the:
    a. palate
    b. lower lip
    c. upper lip
    d. retromolar pad
    B
  423. A radiograph shows an unerupted mandibular third molar with a 3 cm pericoronal radiolucency. The most likely diagnosis is:
    a. primordial cyst
    b. dentigerous cyst
    c. later periodonatal cyst
    d. odontogenic keratocyst
    B
  424. All of the following present as radiolucent lesions EXCEPT:
    a. odontoma
    b. ameloblastoma
    c. dentigerous cyst
    d. odontogenic keratocyst
    e. lateral periodontal cyst
    A
  425. The study of the diagnosis treatment and prevention of diseases affecting the periodontium:
    Periodontology
  426. Tissues of the periodontium:
    • Periodontal ligament
    • Gingiva
    • Cementum (also tooth)
    • Alveolar bone
  427. The PDL is a __________  _____________ complex, made up of fiber bundles and cells.
    connective tissue
  428. T/F interradicular fibers are found in all teeth (located in furcations).
    False, ONLY in multi-rooted teeth
  429. The ____________ fibers are most numerous and resist "intrusive" and "vertical" masticatory forces.
    oblique
  430. What fibers serve to hold teeth in interproximal contact with each other?
    Transseptal fibers - "interdental ligament"
  431. The fibers responsible for resisting horizontal and tilting forces:
    Horizontal fibers also called Alveolar crest fibers
  432. What fibers resist "extrusive" forces?
    Apical
  433. Primary cell of the PDL:
    Fibroblasts
  434. What cells are responsible for the break down of bone?
    Osteoclasts
  435. What cells are responsible for the production of cementum?
    Cementoblasts
  436. All PDL fibers attach to the tooth's __________.
    cementum
  437. Signs of healthy gingiva:
    • Firm
    • light (coral) pink
    • gingival margin on enamel
    • 1-3 mm gingival sulcus
  438. Signs of unhealthy gingiva:
    • spongy, swollen
    • red, bleeds upon probing
    • bulbous, festooned
    • recession, hyperplastic
    • deep periodontal pockets
  439. What gingiva condition develops rapidly, obvious inflammation, may be painful and neutrophil is most prevelant?
    Acute gingivitis
  440. What gingiva condition develops slowly, may appear normal and not usually painful?
    Chronic gingivitis
  441. Edema is the result of _____________ of the peripheral circulation.
    vasodilation
  442. Light, coral pink, erythema, cyanosis and pallor are used to describe what?
    Gingival color
  443. Gingival surface texture can be described as:
    • Stippled
    • Edematous
    • Fibrotic
  444. Drugs that increase the risk of gingival enlargement:
    • Phenytoin (dilantin)- anticonvulsant
    • Nifedipine (procardia)- antihypertensive
    • Cyclosporine- immunosupressive
  445. Normal, clefted, bulbous, festoon, recession all terms used to describe.....
    gingival contour
  446. Reversible inflammation of the gingiva, directly related to the accumulation of plaque is called what?
    Gingivitis
  447. Causes of gingival enlargement (not medication related)....
    • Mouthbreathing
    • Periodontal inflammation
    • Genetic/hereditary factors
    • Systemic conditions (leukemia, hormonal imbalance)
  448. Gingival enlargement due to an increase in cell NUMBERS:
    Hyperplasia
  449. Gingival enlargement due to an increase in cell SIZE:
    Hypertrophy
  450. A loss of alveolar bone, usually of the facial aspect of the tooth root oval-shaped root exposure apical to the CEJ, includes recession, alveolar bone loss and root exposure:
    Dehiscence
  451. A window-like opening in the bone covering the root of a tooth, bordered by alveolar bone on the coronal aspect of the tooth:
    Fenestration
  452. _____________ from saliva are absorbed to the tooth surface, forming the acquired pellicle.
    Glycoproteins
  453. Round/spherical-shaped bacteria associated with early plaque formation:
    Cocci
  454. Rod shaped bacteria, most common type found in periodontal disease:
    Bacilli
  455. Spiral-shaped bacteria, often associated with NUG/NUP:
    spirochetes
  456. What bacteria can grow with OR without oxygen?
    Facultative anaerobic
  457. Non-motile, gram (+), aerobic, cocci are found in ____________ gingiva.
    healthy
  458. Motile, gram (-), anaerobic, bacilli & spirochetes are associated with:
    Periodontal disease
  459. Most common/most important periodontal pathogen:
    Porphyromonas gingivalis (p. gingivalis)
  460. A facultative anaerobe, associated with periodontal disease and inflammation during pregnancy:
    Campylobacter rectus (c. rectus)
  461. Gram (-) rod-shaped bacteria associated with aggressive periodontal disease:
    • Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans
    • (a. actinomycetemcomitans)
  462. MOST often associated with inflammation during pregnancy, gram (-) anaerobe:
    Prevotella intermedia (p. intermedia)
  463. 4 causes/local etiology of gingivitis:
    • Plaque
    • Calculus
    • Irritating restorations
    • Food impaction
  464. Associated with gram (-) bacteria, stimulate osteoclasts, inhibit fibroblasts and may harm neutrophils:
    Endotoxins
  465. _______________ directly breaks down connective tissue.
    Collangenase
  466. ___________ directly breaks down tissues.
    Protease
  467. Inflammation of the periodontal tissues, loss of connective tissue attachment to the tooth, bone resorption, and apical migration of the junctional epithelium is .....
    Periodontitis
  468. Periodontal rate of destruction varies due to virulence of __________ AND __________.
    bacteria, host response
  469. What is the BEST instrument to detect a furcation?
    Nabers probe
  470. What radiographs are BEST for evaluated periodontitis?
    Bitewings
  471. Suprabony pockets:
    occur ABOVE (coronal to) the aleveolar crest of bone
  472. Infrabony pockets:
    base of the pocket is BELOW (apical to) the alveolar crest
  473. T/F occlusal trauma causes periodontal disease.
    False
  474. Moderate mobility, 1-2mm horizontally (facial-lingual) is what class?
    Class II
  475. What class of mobility is the tooth depressible in the socket?
    Class III
  476. 2 characteristics that distinguish between Herpes and Aphthous ulcers:
    • Herpes: keratinized mucosa, vesicles first
    • Aphthous: non-keratinized mucosa, NO vesicles
  477. Periodontist associated with what genetic disorders?
    • Down syndrome
    • Papillon-LaFevre syndrome (premature tooth loss, hyperkertosis of the hands and soles of feet)
    • Chediak-Higashi syndrome (impairment of neutrophils)
  478. Necrotizing periodontal disease associated with HIV, loss of clinical attachment and bone:
    NUP (necrotizing ulcertative periodontitis)
  479. Necrotizing periodontal disease that affects the gingiva only:
    NUG (necrotizing ulcerativie gingivitis)
  480. What type of abscess results from injury to or infection of the surface of gingival tissue?
    Gingival abscess
  481. What type of abscess results when infection spreads deep into pocket, and drainage is blocked?
    Periodontal abscess
  482. What type of infection results from tooth pulp?
    Periapical abscess
  483. Stage I periodontal lesions: (initial)
    • 2-4 days
    • No clinical changes
    • Vasodilation
  484. Stage II periodontal:(early)
    • 4-7 days
    • Clinical signs of gingivitis
    • Rete pegs develop
    • Collagen destruction
    • BOP
  485. Stage III periodontal: (established)
    • 2-3 weeks
    • Capillary proliferation causes erythema
    • Increase probing depths
  486. Stage IV: (advanced)
    • 3 wks - years
    • Transition from gingivitis to periodontitis
    • Irreversible
    • CAL
  487. What is the movement of WBCs to the periphery of vessel walls?
    Margination
  488. What is pavementing?
    WBCs line the wall of the vessel
  489. Define diapidesis:
    Process by which neutrophils squeeze between endothelial cells in the vessel wall
  490. What is the movement of cells into the tissues from the blood vessel?
    Emigration
  491. Chemotaxis:
    The movement of cells to the site of inflammation
  492. Main function of neutrophils:
    Phagocytosis
  493. Four stages of fibrous repair:
    • Blood clotting
    • Wound cleansing
    • Tissue rebuild
    • Wound remodeling
  494. Tobacco use affect the periodontium by:
    a. vasodilation
    b. enhance phagocytosis
    c. loss of protective keratin
    d. reduced blood supply to the tissues
    D
  495. The most common type of bacteria on the dorsum of the tongue and other soft tissues in a healthy mouth is:
    a. streptococci
    b. staphylococci
    c. fusobacterium
    d. porphyromonas
    A
  496. Porphyromonas gingivalis are:
    a. sprial-shaped bacteria found in early plaque biofilms
    b. spherical shaped bacteria important to the formation of endotoxin
    c. aerobic bacillus bacteria found in high proportions on the tongue oral mucosa
    d. pathogenic bacillus bacteria that are prevalent in many chronic periodontal diseases
    D
  497. An initial gingivitis lesion (stage I) will exhibit:
    a. no clinical signs
    b. alveolar bone loss
    c. bleeding upon probing
    d. swelling and erythema of gingival tissues
    A
  498. Which bacterial species is NOT associated with chronic periodontitis?
    a. treponema denticola
    b. prevotella intermedia
    c. streptococcus mutans
    d. porphyromonas gingivalis
    C
  499. Which of the following is a characteristic of the progression of periodontal disease?
    a. cocci
    b. motile organisms
    c. aerobic organisms
    d. gram positive organisms
    B
  500. Endotoxin:
    a. is produced by mast cells
    b. stimulates osteoclast activity
    c. is produced by B-lymphocytes
    d. stimulates the secretion of immunoglobins
    B
  501. Which assessment finding indicates that a patient's periodontal disease is progressing?
    a. periodontal pockets
    b. bleeding upon probing
    c. evidence of radiographic bone loss
    d. attachment loss increasing over time
    D
  502. Sharpey's fibers are found in:
    a. dentin and gingiva
    b. dentin and alveolar bone
    c. enamel and alveolar bone
    d. cementum and alveolar bone
    D
  503. When probing a tooth with a Class II furcation:
    a. the probe will not be able to enter the furcation area
    b. the probe will penetrate the furcation, but will not pass completely through
    c. the probe will pass completely through the furcation, from the buccal to the lingual
    d. the probe will pass completely through the furcation, and the tooth will exhibit mobility and bleeding upon probing
    B
  504. Controlled substances act states that schedule II drug is:
    High abuse potential, written prescription w/signature, no refills
  505. Controlled substances act states that schedule III drug is:
    Moderate abuse potential, may phone in, 5 rx in 6 months
  506. Controlled substances act states that schedule I drug is:
    Highest abuse potential, no medical use
  507. Controlled substances act states that schedule IV drug is:
    Lower abuse potential, may phone in, 5 rx in 6 months
  508. Controlled substances act states that schedule V drug is:
    Lowest abuse potential, some available OTC
  509. What pharmocologic activity of a drug, related to dose?
    Potency
  510. The maximum response of a drug, regardless of dose is:
    Efficacy
  511. What is the time it takes for a drug to have an effect?
    Onset
  512. What is the length of time that a drug has an effect?
    Duration
  513. What route of administration is placed directly into the GI tract?
    Enteral
  514. What route of administration bypasses the GI tract?
    Parenteral
  515. What route of administration is the safest, least expensive but less predictable?
    Oral
  516. What route of administration is the most rapid, best for emergency situations?
    Intravascular (IV)
  517. What is the first-pass effect?
    When orally administered drugs initially pass through the liver, reducing the effect of the drug. Require larger dose
  518. _________ ___________ is most important for absorption of oral drugs.
    Small intestine
  519. ___________ is most important site for metabolism of drugs.
    Liver (biotransformation)
  520. ____________ most important organ for elimination of drugs from the body.
    Kidney (excretion)
  521. Hypersensitivity response to a drug to which the patient was previously exposed, NOT dose related......
    Allergy
  522. Dose-related reaction that is not a part of the desired therapeutic action:
    side effect
  523. What branch of the autonomic nervous system is known as "fight or flight"?
    Sympathetic (SANS)
  524. What branch of the autonomic nervous system is known as "rest and digest"?
    Parasympathetic
  525. What drugs mimic the sympathetic nervous system?
    Adrenergic
  526. What drugs mimic the parasympathetic nervous system?
    Cholinergic
  527. What is the analgesic drug of choice for children and patients on anti-coagulants?
    Acetaminophen
  528. What drug is used to treat opioid overdose?
    Narcan
  529. What is the most commonly prescribed bactericidal antibiotic in dentistry?
    Penicillin
  530. Name  a broad spectrum ABX that is bacteriostatic and should NOT be taken during pregnancy or early childhood due to tooth discoloration:
    Tetracycline
  531. T/F patient states on medical history that they have a heart stent, premedication is required.
    False (shunt, should. not stent)
  532. Patient lists Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide and Ethambutol as current medications. What condition is this patient being treated for?
    • Active TB.
    • RIPE. all four used together for treatment.
  533. What antibiotic is used to treat anaerobic infections?
    Metronidazole (Flagyl)
  534. What is the mechanism of action of local anesthetics?
    block peripheral nerve conduction by decreasing the sodium ion permeability of the nerve membrane
  535. There are 2 major families of local anesthetics: Amides and Esters
    Where are the amides metabolized?
    Where are the esters metabolized?
    • Amides:Liver
    • Esters:blood plasma
  536. What is the cardiac does of epinephrine?
    .04 mg about 2 cartridges
  537. T/F Benzodiazepines are NOT analgesic
    True
  538. What may be contraindicated in cardiovascular patients due to sodium content?
    Sodium bicarbonate
  539. Nitroglycerin works as a ____________ and is the drug of choice for ___________.
    vasodilator, angina pectoris
  540. What hypertension medications reduce blood pressure by decreasing cardiac output?
    Beta-adrenergic blockers
  541. Calcium channel blockers reduce blood pressure by causing systemic ____________.
    Vasodilation
  542. What does the abbreviation ac stand for on a prescription?
    before meals
  543. What abbreviation is written on a prescription if the patient is to take a medication at bedtime?
    hs
  544. When written on a prescription, "PO" is an abbreviation for:
    a. by mouth
    b. after meals
    c. before meals
    d. post-operatively
    A
  545. Which describes the function of a filter in the dental x-ray tubehead?
    a. removes low energy x-rays
    b. decreases the mean energy of the beam
    c. reduces the size and shape of the beam
    d. eliminates the radiation dose to the thyroid.
    A
  546. The 8-inch PID is more effective in reducing radiation exposure than the 16-inch PID. Pointed cones are not recommended due to the production of excess scatter radiation.
    a. both true
    b. both false
    c. first true, second false
    d. first false, second true
    D
  547. The acronym "ALARA" refers to which principle?
    a. film processing
    b. infection control
    c. radiation protection
    d. radiation measurements
    C
  548. Federal regulations require the x-ray beam be collimated to a diameter of no more than ____ inches as it reaches the patient's face.
    a. 1.75
    b. 2.25
    c. 2.75
    d. 3.25
    C
  549. What is the purpose of including a sheet of lead foil inside the intraoral film packet?
    a. provides patient comfort
    b. protects the film from saliva or blood
    c. shields the film from backscattered radiation
    d. distinguishes between the pateints right and left side
    C
  550. Your patient states that movement occurred during an intraoral exposure. Which error are you likely to see on the resultant image?
    a. elongation
    b. increased density
    c. decreased sharpness
    d. increased magnification
    C
  551. All the structures may be visible on maxillary periapical images EXCEPT one....
    a. zygoma
    b. inverted "Y"
    c. mental ridge
    d. medial palatal suture
    C
  552. On which image would you most likely see the external oblique ridge?
    a. molar bitewing
    b. premolar bitewing
    c. max anterior PA
    d. mand anterior PA
    A
  553. The periodontal ligament space appears as a dense radiopaque line around the root of the tooth. The lamina dura appears as a thin radiolucent line that surrounds the root of the tooth.
    a. both true
    b. both false
    c. first true, second false
    d. first false, second true
    B
  554. Where is the location of the hyiod bone on panoramic images?
    a. superimposed over the styloid process
    b. covers the apices of the maxillary posterior teeth
    c. extends from the temporal bone anterior to the mastoid process
    d. lies below or superimposed over the inferior border of the body of the mandible
    D
  555. Error in panoramic image where as the anterior teeth are blurred and thin?
    too far anterior (a=anorexic)
  556. Error in panoramic image where as the anterior teeth are blurred and wide?
    too far posterior (p=pudgy)

Card Set Information

Author:
TracieMo
ID:
329650
Filename:
NDHBE
Updated:
2017-03-26 17:44:43
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DH 2017
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Description:
National Dental Hygiene Board Exam 2017
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