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What are the conditions necessary for chemical sterilization?
- Temp 273F
- 20 Minutes
- 25 psi
What are the conditions necessary for Dry Heat sterilization?
What are the conditions necessary for Steam sterilization?
- Temp 250F
- 30 min
- 15 or 20 psi
What level of disinfectants are used in dental offices?
Type of spore test used for dry heat sterilization....
Define GV Black class III restoration...
Proximal surface of anterior teeth; does NOT involve incisal edge
T/F disinfectants kill or inactivate MOST pathogenic spores?
False pathogenic microbes NOT spores
Examples of regulated biohazard waste
- Items saturated in blood and/or saliva
- Hard and soft tissues removed from pt mouth
Type of spore test used for chemical sterilization....
Define GV Black class V restoration....
Cervical (gingival) 1/3 of the facial or lingual surfaces of any tooth. (root caries)
Define Angle's class I
Mesognathic: Normal;mesiobuccal cusp of maxillary 1st molar is positioned in the buccal groove of the mandibular 1st molar
Canine relationship - max canine occludes with the distal half of the mandibular canine and the mesial half of the mandibular 1st premolar.
Vertical overlap of the maxillary incisors to the mandibular incisors
Define GV Black class IV restoration....
Proximal surface of anterior teeth; involves the incisal edge
Define Angle's class II
Retrognathic: buccal groove of the mandibular 1st molar is distal to the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary 1st molar.
Canine: distal portion of the maxillary canine is mesial to the mesial portion of the mandibular canine by at least the width of a premolar
Div I: retruded mandible with one or more maxillary anterior teeth protruded facially
Div II: retruded mandible with one or more maxillary anterior teeth inclined lingually
Define GV Black class I restoration....
Pits and fissures on lingual surfaces of anterior and on occlusal, buccal, and lingual surfaces of posterior teeth
horizontal distance between the linguals of the maxillary anterior incisors and the facials of the mandibular anterior incisors
Define Angle's class III
Prognathic: buccal groove of the mandibular 1st molar is mesial to the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary 1st molar by at least the width of a premolar
Canine: mesial portion of the maxillary canine is distal to the distal surface of the mandibular canine by the width of a premolar
Define GV Black class VI restoration....
Incisal edge of anterior and/or cusp tips of posterior teeth
teeth not in occlusion between the maxillary and mandibular teeth or arches
Define GV Black class II restoration....
Proximal surface of posterior teeth; commonly involves occlusal surfaces
maxillary teeth are positioned lingual to or totally facial to mandibular teeth
- Class I: early bone loss, instrument can enter depression
- Class II: moderate bone loss, instrument can enter furcation
- Class III: severe bone loss, instrument can pass between roots
- Class IV: same as III but with recession
Class I slight horizontal movement
Class II moderate, greater than 1mm horizontal movement
Class III severe, greater than 1mm horizontal and vertical movement
What is the nutrient source for supragingival calculus?
Name 3 ways to detect calculus....
What is the nutrient source for subgingival calculus?
4 parts to fluoride role in caries process
- Interferes with bacterial metabolism
- Bactericidal (destructive)
- Bacteriostatic (inhibits)
What 4 ways can you get topical fluoride?
- Fluoride treatment
Optimal fluoride level in water....
- (prior to Jan 2011 the levels depended on climate)
T/F Fluoride supplements are recommended for pregnant women
What type of fluoride is recommended for rampant caries?
- Sodium fluoride
- 4 minutes in a tray for maximum efficacy
What fluoride is contraindicated for composite and porcelain restorations?
Acidulated Phosphate Fluoride
What are the adverse reactions of sodium fluoride?
What 3 compounds are used to fluoridate water?
- Sodium fluoride
- Sodium silicofluoride
- Hydrofluorosilicic acid
What is the most common adverse reaction to stannous fluoride?
T/F If a patient has hypersensitivity due to recession, use NaF
True, (NaF= sodium fluoride) varnish
What is the recommended age for children to start using fluoride rinse?
6 years old (due to risk of swallowing)
What are the active ingredients that are used for antihypersensitivity?
- Potassium nitrate
- Strontium chloride
- Sodium citrate
What is the therapeutic use of pyrophospahtes?
What is the antibacterial ingredient of dentifrices?
What is the cycles per sec for the magnetostrictive ultrasonic?
T/F the piezoelectric ultrasonic produces rapid linear strokes.
True, magnetostrictive is elliptical or orbital
What 4 systemic conditions are taken into consideration prior to use of any sonic scaler?
- Communicable disease
- Difficulty swallowing
- Susceptible to infection
T/F it is suggested to contact a patients physician for medical clearance prior to using ultrasonics if the patient has a pacemaker.
Define severe periodontitis
> or = to 5mm CAL, horizontal and vertical bone loss >50% with mobility and furcation involvement
What specific gracey curet is used for direct facials and linguals of posterior teeth?
- (9-10 is buccal/lingual of molars)
What type of curet or scaler is safe for implants?
List the 8 contraindications for rubber cup polishing...
- Decay or demineralized areas
- Tooth sensitivity
- Newly erupted teeth
- Severe gingivitis
- Lack of extrinsic stain and/or plaque
- Exposed root surfaces
- Respiratory conditions
Contraindications for air polishing
- Sodium restricted diet
- Spongy gingiva
- Restorative materials (composite, veneers)
- Exposed roots
- Anti-diuretics and steroid therapy
Define slight periodontitis
1-2mm CAL, slight horizontal bone loss up to 20%
What is the mechanism of action for chlorhexidine gluconate?
Bactericidal (inhibits) colonization and prevents pellicle formation, also has high substantivity
Side effects of chlorhexidine gluconate...
- Altered taste
- Increased supra calculus
Clinical uses of chlorhexidine gluconate...
- Pre-procedural rinse
- High caries risk - supress strep mutans
- Adjunct to surgical treatment
What are examples of quaternary ammonium compounds (cetylpyridinium chloride; CPC)?
- Crest Pro-Health
T/F a scaler removes deposits supragingivally and up to 2mm subgingivally.
Name 2 primary differences between scaler and curet....
- Scaler- triangular cross section and pointed tip
- Curet- half-moon cross section and rounded toe
Cancer patient presents with oral mucositis, what rinse would best be recommended?
Baking soda or saline solution followed by plain water.
Define moderate periodontitis
3-4mm CAL, moderate horizontal/vertical bone loss 20-50%
chemical attraction between unlike molecules (tape)
chemical attraction between like molecules (football team)
Coefficient of thermal expansion:
index that indicates how one material reacts to temperature extremes in relation to another (amalgam/enamel)
the force at which a material breaks under pressure (bite)
slow dimensional change caused by compression
ability to undergo change of form without breaking
a material's ability to recover its initial shape after undergoing force
an electrical current generated by dissimilar metals in a acidic environment
process of gelling (solidification by cold)
absorption of a solvent by a gel (sponge)
a materials]'s capacity to be shaped by force or pressure
passage of oral fluids/bacteria into and out of tooth structure due to a marginal gap or failure of the marginal (restorative) seal
the linking, branching, or cross-linking of smaller molecules to generate a larger molecule, as seen with composite bonding and impression setting
Proportional limit :
the force at which a material cannot return to its original shape
contraction of a gel due to the loss of a solvent
the force needed to stretch a material to the point of fracture
resistance to flow
Desirable features of amalgam:
- Similar compressive strength as enamel
- Relatively inexpensive
What is amalgam comprised of?
alloy of mercury with silver, copper, tin and zinc
T/F polishing amalgam reduces corrosion due to more surface area
False, polishing reduces surface area
What is most common reason for bonding failures?
Saliva or oil contamination
What is usually added to composite material for radiopacity?
Barium or strontium
What are liners generally used for?
Seal dentin or medicate the dental pulp
Types of liners....
- Calcium hydroxide (stimulates reaparative dentin formation/pulp exposure)
- Zinc-oxide/eugenol:IRM (soothes pulp, contraindicated for composite)
- Glass-ionomer (seals tubules and releases fluoride)
What are bases generally used for?
Provide thermal insulation or mechanical protection for the dental pulp ( insulate/protect)
Includes all cements because cements are poor thermal conductors and have adequate compressive strength
Name 6 types of cements:
- 1. Zinc phosphate- exothermic (use glass slab)
- 2. Polycarboxylate- powder and acid mixed, high chemical affinity for enamel
- 3. Glass ionomer- binds to dentin, releases fluoride, good for class V
- 4. Resin cement- tooth colored, good for veneers, tooth colored inlays, used for luting
- 5. Hybrid cements- seal dentin,release fluoride
- 6. Zinc-oxide eugenol (IRM)- common temp cement, orange solvent used to clean up
T/F Alginate is a water-soluble aqueous reversible hydrocolloid
False, alginate is irreversible
There are 2 types of calcium sulfate hemi-hydrate
Alpha and Beta Which is stone and which is plaster? Which has a lower compressive strength?
- Alpha- Stone (yellow, more accurate and wear resistant)
- Beta- Plaster (white, requires more water, undergoes greater setting expansion, therefore lower compressive strength)
A is better than B
What noble metals are used in casting alloys?
- Gold, platinum and palladium
- (noble metals resist tarnish and corrosion)
Nonprecious alloys contain what base metals?
Silver, copper, nickel, tin and zinc
T/F Intra-orally gold may be polished with rouge
False, extra-orally in the lab only, rouge is toxic.
Leading cause of implant failure:
Contra-indications to implant placement
- inadequate bone
- uncontrolled perio disease
- bisphosphonates (wait 2-3 years)
Antimicorbial active ingredient in gum care toothpaste:
Active ingredient in tartar control toothpaste:
GV Black Class I
all pits and fissures
GV Black class II
GV Black Class III
GV BLack class IV
anterior proximals involving the incisal edge
GV Black class V
facial or lingual gingival third
GV Black Class VI
cusp tip and/or incisal edge
The distal of the mesial buccal root of tooth #2 requires root planing. Which gracey curet is used to instrument this area?
The mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar is slightly mesial to the buccal groove of the mandibular first molar. Which Angle's classification of occlusion does this describe?
b. II Div I
c. II Div II
Which medical emergency is characterized by tachycardia, sweating, irritability, and dizziness?
b. heart attack
Patient presents with sensitivity due to recession. Each is an active ingredient in dentrifices that can decrease hypersensitivity EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. strontium chloride
b. potassium nitrate
c. sodium citrate
A material that is highly ductile:
a. will easily break when stretched
b. can undergo a change of form without breaking
c. will genrate an electrical current in an acidic environment
d. can recover its original shape after having undergone a force
Silver amalgam alloys contain copper to:
a. minimize galvanism
b. reduce the rate of corrosion
c. reduce thermal conductivity
d. improve compressive strength
The liner most commonly used to stimulate the development of secondary dentin in the event of a pulp exposure is:
a. calcium hydroxide
c. zinc phosphate cement
d. resin-modified glass ionomer
To slow the set of gypsum and gain more working time in pouring a model, a person would:
a. mix with hot water
b. add borax to the mix
c. mix with really cold water
d. add potassium sulfate to the mix
The best dental wax to modify an impression tray is:
a. sticky wax
b. utility wax
c. boxing wax
d. baseplate wax
The primary benefit of using noble metals in restorative alloys is:
a. less expensive
b. highly allergenic
c. extremely cosmetic
d. resist tarnish and corrosion
Contraindications to implant placement include:
a. inadequate bone
b. uncontrolled perio disease
c. history of bisphosphonate therapy
d. all of the above
A leading cause of dentinal hypersensitivity is due to the incorporation of what ingredient in toothpaste?
a. baking soda
c. potassium nitrate
d. hydrogen peroxide
According to GV Black's classification of restorations, an anterior proximal filling would be:
a. class I
b. class II
c. class III
d. class IV
One of the benefits of using glass ionomer cement, is that:
a. it releases fluoride
b. it's mixed with polyacrylic acid
c. it has a high chemical affinity for enamel
d. it undergoes an exothermic reaction when mixed
T/F Gram(-) bacteria contain endotoxins
Characteristics of gram (+) cell wall:
- 2 layers
- low lipid content
- susceptible to penicillin and lysozymes
- contain NO endotoxin
Characteristics of gram (-) cell wall
- 3 layers
- HIGH lipid content
- NOT susceptible to penicillin or lysozymes
- contains endotoxin
What is required for gram (+) cocci to invade tissue and infect the host?
Hyaluronidase or "spreading factor"
How are streptococcus differentiated?
By their ability to hemolyze red blood cells
- Beta-hemolytic strep completely lyses
- Alph-hemolytic strep partially lyses
- Gamma-hemolytic strep is unable to lyse
Which streptococcus are MOST pathogenic?
Beta-hemolytic, generally resistant to phagocytosis
Which streptococcus are caries causing?
Alpha-hemolytic - strep mutans create acid and dextrans from sucrose
What is the only sugar that is metabolized into dextrans causing caries?
sucrose, all others metabolized into lactic acid
Gram (+) rods associated with advanced caries
What bacteria are associated with root caries?
Gram (+) rods, actinomyces
What is the causative organism for gonorrhea?
Gram (-) cocci, neisseria
What causative organism is associated with syphilis, Lyme disease and are closely associated with NUP/NUG?
Gram (-) spiral, spirochetes
4 classifications of organisms based on oxygen metabolism:
- 1. obligate aerobes
- 2. facultative anaerobes
- 3. microaerophilic
- 4. obligate anaerobes
Bacteria in obligate aerobe classification:
Gram (-) rod associated with "pregnancy" gingivitis, cellulitis and NUP/NUG
What organism is associated with periodontal disease and connective tissue destruction?
Porphyromonas gingivalis, produces collangenase
What organism is aerobic but can grow in the absence of oxygen?
- facultative anaerobes grow via fermentation
What organism produces energy via the Kreb cycle and glycolysis and do NOT tolerate O2?
Bacterial growth has 4 phases, which phase is BEST time for abx treatment?
a. Lag phase
b. Logarithmic phase
c. Stationary phase
d. Death phase
What component of the normal oral flora is also present in the digestive, respiratory and urogenital tract and can lead to systemic infection?
When does candidiasis occur?
when normal oral flora is reduced
What is the topical treatment for Candidiasis?
Nystatin or clotrimazole
What is the systemic treatment for "thrush"?
"Thrush" or candidiasis systemic treatment is Ketoconazole or Fluconazole
T/F viruses can replicate without a host
False, viruses require host for energy and replication
the kinds of cells a virus can infect
Define host range:
the different kinds of organisms the virus can infect
What is a positive strand?
a viral genome similar to the host cell's mRNA
What serves as a template for mRNA production?
Examples of RNA viruses:
- Hep A, C, D, E
conversion of DNA into mRNA
decoding of mRNA
Examples of DNA viruses:
- Hep B
- Human papilloma virus
- Herpes simplex I and II
- Varicella zoster
- Epstein-barr (associated w/hairy leukoplakia)
T/F Hep B, C and D are blood-borne pathogens
True, hep A and E are not
____________ immunity occurs after exposure to an antigen, and improves with repeated exposure.
What immunity typically results from vaccination?
Artificially acquired active immunity
Naturally acquired active immunity results from....
What immunity occurs during pregnancy?
Naturally acquired passive immunity
Cells of the immune system are:
- Natural killer cells
Antibodies of the immune system:
- IgM- (largest) Monster big
- IgA- salivA
- IgD- respiratory protection
- IgG- primary responder (Gobs, most abundant)
- IgE- mediates anaphylactic hypersensitivity
2 types of T-cells:
CD8- cytotoxic directly attack and destroy disease cells
CD4- helper, produce cytokines which stimulate other immune cells
What immune cells are key components of the humoral immune response?
B-cells, differentiate into plasma cells which produce antibodies
What cells are the most numerous of all white blood cells and represent the first line of defense?
What are the 4 types of hypersensitivity reactions?
- I:anaphylactic (immediate)
- III:Immune complex
Process by which a pathogen is marked by an antibody for phagocytosis:
What are the simplest carbohydrates?
- Glucose- brain fuel
- Fructose- sweetes
- Galactose- milk sugar
What are disaccharides?
- Double sugars- 2 monosaccharides
- Sucrose (glucose+fructose)
- Lactose (glucose+galactose)
- Maltose (2 glucose)
What are complex sugars?
- Polysaccharides, 10 sugar units or more
What 2 monosaccharides make up sucrose?
Glycogen in the __________ regulates blood sugar for the brain, while in the ___________ serves as an energy source for contraction.
T/F functional (soluble) fiber increases peristalsis.
False, dietary (insoluble) does.
Initial digestion begins with what enzyme?
How much energy does 1 gram of polysaccharide provide?
What 2 monosaccharides make up lactose?
How much stored energy can glycogen provide?
What sugar is considered antimicrobial?
Xylitol, S. mutans are attracted but the bacteria cannot metabolize it
What 2 monosaccharides make up maltose?
What sugars do not promote tooth decay?
- Sugar alcohols- "tols" metabolize at a slower rate.
What active ingredient in NutrSweet and Equal must carry PKU warning?
Define type I diabetes....
- Insulin dependent
- Onset usually children and young adults
What is the MOST common type of diabetes?
- Type II
- usually develops over 40 yr old and obese
Signs and symptoms of diabetes....
- Ketosis, acetone breath (fruity odor)
- Ketonemia/ketonuria, ketones in blood/urine
- Polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, increase thirst, urination, appetite
Chronic complications of diabetes....
- Increase perio disease
- Xerostomia (therefore decay)
- Loss of sight and kidney function
- Poor circulation
- Heart disease
Name 3 dental treatment considerations for diabetic patient....
- schedule early, after breakfast
- have rapid absorbing sugars available
- stress reduction protocols
Patient presents with shakiness, sweating, irritability, hunger and palpitations, what is the cause?
The brain is fueled entirely by _____________.
What is important to evaluate in a diet survey?
- frequency of intake (MOST important)
- physical form of food
- amount of sugar added to foods
- total intake
What is the main function of proteins?
What are essential amino acids?
Indispensable-body can NOT synthesize, must obtain from diet
Nonessential (dispensable) amino acids are synthesized in the ____________.
What are complete proteins?
High quality- foods that consist of ALL 9 essential amino acids in sufficient amounts. Animal (fish, meat, eggs, cheese, milk) and soy proteins
Incomplete proteins are derived from _______
What is phenylketonuria?
(PKU) inborn error of metabolism. Liver cannot metabolize phenylalanine into nonessential amino acid tyrosine.
T/F Patients with PKU must avoid Equal/NutraSweet (aspartame)
Examples of complete proteins:
Fish, eggs, meat, cheese, milk
What are 2 forms of protein-energy malnutrition?
Marasmus- "to waste away"
Kwashiorkor- "bloated belly" (severe protein deficiency)
What is the acute form of protein-energy malnutrition?
Functions of lipids (fats):
- provide concentrate source of energy
- carry fat-soluble vitamins
- provide satiety
- provide flavor and texture to foods
- provide insulation to maintain body temp and protect organs
Saturated fats are ____________ at room temperature.
What essential fatty acids must be obtained from diet?
Linoleic- Omega 6 (sunflower, vegetable oils)
Linolenic- Omega 3 (fish, peanut and olive oil)
What consistency is polyunsaturated fatty acids?
Monounsaturated fatty acids are derived from....
canola and olive oils
How much energy does 1 gram of lipids provide?
What are sources of saturated fatty acids?
Beef, lard, and animal fats
Name the fat-soluble vitamins...
In children, softening of bones due to failure to calcify is called.....
Rickets, due to vitamin D deficiency
What vitamin assists in absorption of calcium and phosphorus and supports bone health and immune function?
Vitamin ______ functions as antioxidant; stimulates immune response.
What vitamin aid in formation of blood-clotting factor prothrombin?
What do vitamins A and D have in common?
Bone health and immune function
What is the main function of water-soluble vitamins?
Metabolism of carbohydrates, fats, proteins and blood formation
What nutritional deficiency is found in strict vegetarians?
Pernicious anemia, B12 deficient
Deficiency of what vitamin leads to cheilosis, glossitis and fatigue?
Spina bifida is from a deficiency of what vitamin?
What vitamin promotes synthesis of protein collagen, antioxidant and wound healing?
Vitamin C (ascorbic acid)
Thiamine (B1) is found in what sources?
Pork, enriched and fortified foods and whole grains
What is the MOST abundant mineral in the body?
What mineral contributes to high blood pressure?
2 common eating disorders....
Iron deficiency characterized by consuming non-nutritive substances (soil, paper, coal, paint chips)
What treatments are recommended for bulimia?
- Sodium fluoride rinses to aid remineralization
- Sodium bicarbonate rinses to neutralize acids
- Chew sugar free gum to stimulate salivary flow
What is a common oral manifestation of bulimia?
dental erosion (perimolysis) found on lingual surfaces of maxillary teeth
cheilosis associated with loss of moisture of saliva
Glucose is also known as:
Sucrose is hydrolyzed into:
a. glucose and fructose
b. glucose and galactose
c. two molecules of glucose
d. two molecules of fructose
Each of the following is a sign or symptom of diabetes mellitus EXCEPT...
b. Acetone breath
d. Decreased appetite
Good examples of complete proteins include:
a. meat, fruit and fish
b. meat, eggs and cheese
c. meat, fruit and vegetables
d. grains, fruit and vegetables
Aspartame should NOT be consumed by individuals with:
d. high blood pressure
Which fatty acids maintain serum cholesterol levels?
b. derived lipid
Linoleic fatty acid is also known at Omega-3. Sources of linoleic fatty acids include mackerel and salmon.
a. both true
b. both false
c. first true, second false
d. first false, second true
Which vitamin can interfere with the function of vitamin K?
Which vitamin is essential for the absorption of calcium and phosphorus?
Which is NOT a component of Vit B complex?
b. Folic acid
c. Ascorbic acid
d. Pantothenic acid
Which vitamin promotes the synthesis of collagen?
Community dental health increases emphasis on improving ________________ to oral healthcare.
Name 5 roles fulfilled by DH in conducting specific activities in relation to community programs.....
- 1. Educator
- 2. Admin/manager
- 3. Advocate
- 4. Clinician
- 5. Researcher
What is the MOST significant difference between public health and private practice?
- Community = population served
- Private = patient is served
Standard procedure in private practice is the review health history, in community health what is used?
Community health practice uses analysis while private practice uses.....
Treatment planning in private practice relates to _______________ in community health practice.
3 most efficient uses of DH in public health....
- 1. planning, conducting and evaluating programs
- 2. training others to provide services
- 3. serving as a resource
What is the LEAST efficient activity for a DH that is coordinating an oral health program in a nursing home?
A. provide daily oral hygiene for the residents
B. collect and analyze data to evaluate the oral health program
C. train aids to look for and recognize residents' oral health problems
D. arrange for a mobile dental practice to provide care at the facility
A. other staff can be trained for daily care
(this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
What is a condition, practice or situation that is widespread and an actual or potential cause of disease or death?
Public health problem
What is a solution to a public health problem that is directed to the community at large?
Public health solution
What is a description of economic and social position based on income, education and occupation?
Socioeconomic status (SES)
7 Characteristics of an ideal public health solution....(board alert** a question may ask which is BEST program, evaluate based on these)
- 1. safe
- 2. effective reduce or prevent target disease/condition
- 3. easy and efficient to implement
- 4. potential to maintain for a substantial period of time
- 5. attainable regardless of socioeconomic status (SES0
- 6. effective immediately upon application
- 7. affordable, cost effective, within means of community
All public health activities relate to these core public health functions....
- Policy development
What core public health function is reflected by making federal grants available for the development of state and local oral health programs?
Assurance, by encouraging action by other entities
What core public health function is reflected by adopting national oral health objectives to direct dental public health program planning activities?
What core public health function is reflected by conducting a program in a community center for older adults to screen for oral cancer, refer for treatment, and provide oral cancer education?
Assurance by directly providing services
What core public health function is reflected by performing national surveys annually to collect oral health data?
What organization is a key internationally?
World Health Organization (WHO)
What organization has jurisdiction to act on oral health problems nationally?
Dept of Health and Human Services (DHHS)
What are the 4 levels of community dental health programs?
- 1. International level
- 2. Federal level
- 3. State level
- 4. Local level
A faith-based oral health program was awarded a grant from the state health department that was funded through a DHHS block grant. The faith-based program used the funds to purchase mobile dental equipment and fund travel to be able to establish a school-based sealant program in the elementary schools of the local urban school district. What level program did the following?
1. Supplied the block grant funds?
2. Received the block grant funds?
3. Awarded the sealant grant?
4. Applied for the funds?
- 1. Federal level (DHHS)
- 2. State level
- 3. State level
- 4. Local level
Study of distribution and determinants of disease frequency and health among groups of people.....
What is information that can be counted or expressed numerically, represented in charts and graphs, and manipulated and statistically analyzed?
What data is descriptive in nature?
Epidemiology is based on a ______________ perspective.
What is the purpose of a descriptive study?
- define characteristics of a population (measured one time)
- large randomized sample
- surveys common
Why are questionnaires unreliable?
self-reporting results in inaccurate information or biased results, people often report incorrectly
Define cohort study:
one group is followed and observed over a long period (measured multiple times)
*Cohort means group*
Define case control study:
two groups are compared, one with the disease (cases) and the other without the disease (controls)
Define cross-sectional study:
Sometimes referred to as correlation study, represents cross-section of population
A clinical trial that utilized a hypothesis, control group, treatment group, independent variable and dependent variable is known as a(n) _______________________ study.
A survey of oral hygiene habits in the population is an example of what type of study?
Analysis of the relationship between oral hygiene habits and gingivitis by comparing past history of oral hygiene of a group with gingivitis and a group without gingivitis is an example of what type of study?
- Case control
- (with) (without)
A hypothesis testing of the effect of using a power toothbrush versus a manual toothbrush on brushing frequency and gingivitis is an example of what type of study?
what type of study is observation of changes in oral hygiene habits in children over a 10 yr period to establish risk relationship of oral hygiene and gingivitis?
Cohort (group over a long period)
What study is the BEST way to prevent bias in participants and examiner?
Double blind study
In terms of data collection:
validity refers to _____________, while consistency refers to _________________.
What is a nominal scale of measurement?
Named categories with no order (age, gender, race)
Ordinal scale of measurement is:
Categories are in ranked order (stages of cancer)
What scale of measurement has no oral health example?
Interval: equal intervals between values, but no true zero (dates, temps)
What is the MOST important thing to remember when looking at mean, median and mode?
Put the numbers in order!
- most frequent
What is a sophisticated measure that is affected by extreme scores?
What is a t-test?
statistical test used to test the difference between two mean scores
*"T" for two
What is a statistical test used to test the difference among three or more mean scores?
ANOVA (analysis of variance)
What test is computed by comparing entire data sets, not mean scores?
The decision to accept or reject the null hypothesis is made based on the probability of a statistical significance level, expressed as the __________.
What p value is considered statistically significant in oral health research?
- p < .05 equal to or less than .05
- (1 chance out of 20)
Ability of a test or index to correctly identify the presence of a disease
Ability of a test to identify the absence of a disease
What is tertiary prevention program planning?
Involve softening the impact of an ongoing illness (dental implants, dentures, perio maint etc)
What level of program planning involves preventing the onset of disease to reduce incidence?
Example of _________________ preventive interventions include restoration of carious lesions and non-surgical periodontal therapy.
Community programs use a systematic approach, what are the steps involved?
Language, money and location can all be considered _________________ to care.
Define type III examination:
- Inspection using
- mouth mirror
- explorer or probe
- adequate light
Define type IV examination:
- Screening using
- tongue depressor
- available lighting
What are the 6 levels of the learning ladder?
- 1. unawareness
- 2. awareness
- 3. self-interest
- 4. involvement
- 5. action
- 6. habit
*ugly apes sit in a hut
How is long-term change more likely to be produced?
Define Health Belief Model (HBM)
Individual's course of health action depends on perceptions of the benefits and barriers; stronger beliefs higher probability of action, while stronger perception of barriers lower probability
What is the non-articulated horseshoe shaped bone in the midline, inferior to the mandible?
Name the 12 cranial nerves:
- I. Olfactory
- II. Optic
- III. Oculomotor
- IV. Trochlear
- V. Trigeminal
- VI. Abducens
- VII. Facial
- VIII. Vestibulocochlear
- IX. Glossopharyngeal
- X. Vagus
- XI. Accessory
- XII. Hypoglossal
- (Oh once one takes the anatomy final, very good vacations are heavenly)
Which nerve has 3 major branches important to DH?
- v1 ophthalmic
- v2 maxillary
- v3 mandibular
The __________ leaves the skull through the foramen rotundum.
v2 maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve
The v3 mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve leaves the skull through____________.
What division of the trigeminal nerve is both sensory and motor?
- v3 Mandibular
- sensory lower teeth
- motor muscles of mastication
What nerve passes through the incisive foramen?
The mandibular molars are innervated by:
- inferior alveolar nerve
- buccal nerve
- lingual nerve
What nerve innervates the pulp of mandibular premolars?
What nerve innervates the facial gingiva of the mandibular cuspids/incisors?
What areas are innervated by the Posterior Superior Alveolar nerve?
maxillary molars, except MB root of 1st molar, facial gingival tissue
Patient needs root planing and scaling on maxillary premolars, what nerve innervates this area?
Middle superior alveolar nerve
Function of temporalis muscle?
retract and elevate the mandible
What muscle elevates and protrudes the mandible?
The ______________ is internal; the _____________ is external. Both have similar functions (elevate the mandible).
medial pterygoid, masseter
What is the function of the lateral pterygoid muscle?
protrude and/or depress the mandible (working with the hyoid muscles) and allow the side to side (lateral) shift of the mandible
Parts of the temporomandibular joint ...
- temporal bone
- articular disc
Hypomobility from trauma, disease or bruxism of the TMJ is......
Muscles of mastication:
- masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid
- lateral pterygoid (with hyoid)
- lateral pterygoid
- lateral pterygoid
What muscle works to depress, protrude and laterally shift the mandible?
What muscle becomes enlarged with bruxism?
What muscles are important for chewing, swallowing, and speaking?
What 2 nerves innervate the hyoid muscles?
- Trigeminal (V) h-y-o-i-d (5)
- Facial (VII) m-u-s-c-l-e-s (7)
The ______________ muscles make up the floor of the mouth.
What nerve innervates the muscles of facial expression?
Where do you check pulse on a child (6 yr old) in an emergency? Adult?
What 3 major branches of the external carotid artery supply blood flow to the oral and facial structures?
- Maxillary, teeth muscle of mastication and eat
- Lingual, tongue floor of mouth
- Facial, muscles of facial expression lips eyelids soft palate throat
Where does the blood flow originate for teeth, tongue, lips, and throat?
- 3 branches of the external carotid artery:
What artery controls blood flow from the heart to the skull, eyes and brain?
What is located on each side of the body, near the base of the brain, behind the bridge of the nose?
What can cause orthostatic hypotension in a pregnant patient?
Fetal pressure on the inferior vena cava
What structure drains into the plexus including the teeth, muscles of mastication, buccinator, nose and palate?
________________ may result from improper angulation during a ____________ block.
Submandibular nodes drain......
submental nodes, all teeth except mandibular incisors, may (or may not) include 3rd molars
Fluid from the mandibular incisors, tip of the tongue, midline of the lip, chin and floor of the mouth drain from.....
What node drains the 3rd molars, wall of the throat and submandibular nodes?
deep cervical nodes
What is the fundamental functional unit of the body?
center of energy production (ATP) and site of cellular respiration- Kreb cycle
Most structures of the oral cavity develop from 2 embryonic processes: (name them)
- 1. Frontal process
- 2. 1st branchial arch
Frontal process forms:
- median nasal process
- lateral nasal process
- globular process (philtrum)
The maxillary process and mandibular process are formed from?
the 1st branchial arch
Formed by the fusion of the median nasal process and right & left maxillary processes...
upper lip, 6-8 weeks
The ___________ develops between 6-12 weeks from the fusion of the globular process with the left & right palatal shelves.
Blood supply for the tongue.....
How many nerves innervate the tongue?
- XII motor to muscles
- V3 sensory to anterior 2/3
- VII taste to anterior 2/3
- IX taste sensory to posterior 1/3
What papillae of the tongue contain taste buds and glands of Von Ebner?
What papillae protect the tongue and contain NO taste buds?
- (silly fili cant taste)
What is the site of the embryonic origin of the thyroid gland?
foramen caecum of the tongue
The V-shape line separating the anterior 2/3 and posterior 1/3 of tongue....
What are the 3 major pairs of salivary glands?
What glands empty under the tongue?
Wharton's duct, submandibular gland
Where are the Bartholin's duct located?
Sublingual, open at the sublingual fold 10% of saliva
__________ duct or ______________ gland produces 25% of total saliva and empties opposite the maxillary molars.
What contains the duct opening for both the submandibular and sublingual salivary glands?
Development of the face begins at week ___ with the formation of the ___________ or stomodeum.
3, primitive oral cavity
Enamel derives from ____________.
Dentin and pulp derive from ______________.
DEJ derives from _____________.
Enamel comes from __________.
What is produced by odontoblasts from the dental papilla?
Cementum is produced by ________ located in the PDL.
What tooth has a mesial concavity that is often missed during instrumentation?
max first premolar
Premolar most often having 2 roots:
Tooth with the longest root:
Cuspid with occasionally bifurcated root:
Tooth which most often fails to develop:
third molar or max lateral
Non-functional lingual cusp:
mandibular first premolar
Premolar which commonly has three cusps:
Tooth which frequently has a fifth cusp:
- mandibular 1st molar
- maxillary 1st molar
Tooth most often affected by microdontia:
maxillary lateral incisor
Tooth most likely to have a root with 2 canals:
mandibular 1st molar (mesial root)
Tooth most likely to exhibit lingual caries;
maxillary lateral incisor
Max first molar oblique ridge runs from ___________ cusp to ________________ cusp.
Which root of the molars is the strongest and widest?
Mesial root mandibular 1st molar
Which tooth has a tendency to have divergent roots?
maxillary 1st molar
Tooth with the most unique anatomy:
Primary 1st mandibular molar
Three of the 6 bones which comprise the orbit include:
a. ethmoid, frontal, parietal
b. ethmoid, lacrimal, palatine
c. ethmoid, sphenoid, zygoma
d. ethmoid, spheniod, palatine
Four cranial nerves providing innervation of the tongue include:
a. V, VI, IX, and X
b. V, VI, VII and IX
c. V, VII, IX, and XII
d. V, VI, VII, and VIII
The muscles of mastication most responsible for protrusion of the jaw are:
c. medial pterygoids
d. lateral pterygoids
The articular fossa is provided by what bone?
Wharton's duct empties the:
a. Glands of Von Ebner
b. Parotid salivary glands
c. Sublingual salivary glands
d. Submandibular salivary glands
The keratinized papillae of the tongue are:
Three developmental processes must fuse to create the upper lip. They are:
a. median nasal, lateral nasal, and globular
b. globular and the left and right maxillary processes
c. left and right maxillary processes and the 1st branchial arch
d. lateral nasal, globular and the left and right maxillary process
The primary lymphatic node which drains the lower incisors, tip of the tongue, midline of the lip, chin and floor of the mouth is the:
a. submental node
b. submandibular node
c. inferior deep cervical node
d. superior deep cervical node
Fetal pressure on what structure can cause orthostatic hypotension?
a. internal jugular
b. cavernous sinus
c. pterygoid plexus
d. inferior vena cava
Cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal) provide motor innercation to all the muscles of the tongue except:
____________ results from elongated filiform.
________________ results from loss o filiform papillae.
______________ may be associated with candida albicans; devoid of filiform papillae
Median rhomboid glossitis
Enlarged tongue; _______________ - typically seen in patients with _____________
Macroglossia, Down syndrome
White benign lesion seen on the hard palate of heavy smokers........
Immuno-supressed patients, as well as denture wearers and diabetics may present with white lesions known as _______________.
5 types of candidiasis:
- 1. psuedomembranous
- 2. erythematous
- 3. chronic atrophic candidiasis
- 4. angular cheilitis
- 5. median rhomboid glossitits
Nutritional deficiency of Riboflavin (B2) is associated with ______________.
Benign anomaly which appears as a gray-to-white film on the buccal mucosa, giving tissue an opaque quality (stretching make the opalescence less noticeable), more common in African-Amercians is:
Hyperkeratotic lesion that extends antero-posteriorly on the buccal mucosa along the occlusal plane:
White patch or plaque of oral mucosa that can NOT be wiped off, may be related to use of tobacco:
Etiologic agent appears to be the Epstein-Barr virus in association with HIV, low CD-4 count, white patch seen on the lateral border of the tongue:
Racial or normal pigmentation, variable in dark-skinned patients:
Melatonic macule is:
Flat brown lesion, "oral freckle"
MOST common pigmented lesion, may be seen on radiographs:
Intraoral sebaceous gland, small yellow nodules on buccal mucosa and vermillion border, seen after puberty:
Signs of Addison's Disease:
- diffuse pigmentation of the skin
- melanotic macules; also petechiae seen on the palate
- bronzing, tinted skin
Insufficient production of adrenal steroids due to destruction of the adrenal gland:
MOST common tumor of the oral cavity:
Pedunculated, cauliflower-like, warty, soft lesion:
Papilloma, caused by HPV
Common vascular lesion, tongue most common intraoral location:
Common occurring oral lesion, maybe caused by changing hormone levels, often occuring in pregnant women (but can be seen in men and non-pregnant women):
An increase in the bulk of the free and attached gingiva, especially involving the interdental papilla, may be generalized or localized, and can be associated with certain medications:
What condition may be present in a patient taking phenytoin (dilantin), calcium channel blocker or cyclosporine?
Characteristic skin lesion presents with bull's eye (target) lesion which demonstrates circles of erythema and normal skin tones:
MOST severe form of erythema multiforme, larger painful mucosal lesions on 2 mucosal surfaces, may involve genitals and mucosa of the eyes:
Lace-like white lines, commonly seen on buccal mucosa, fine lines termed Wickham's striae:
Chronic, progressive with periods of remission, most common skin lesion is the "butterfly" rash over the nose, multi-organ involvement:
Painful, recurring ulcers seen only on movable mucosa of the oral cavity, minor, major, herpetiform; caused by trauma, emotional stress, or certain foods:
Type II herpes simplex virus causes _________ lesions, while type I causes _________ lesions.
HSV can cause painful infection of the fingers known as:
Palatal petichiae is an important oral manifestation of what virus that is transmittted by kissing, contact with saliva and has a clinical symptom of fatigue, sore throat and fever:
Infectious mononucleosis (mono), caused by the Epstein-Barr virus
A specific type of enamel hypoplasia seen in persons with congenital syphilis is termed:
a. turner tooth
b. mulberry molars
c. opalescent dentin
d. hypomineralized enamel pits
The overgrowth of candida albicans may occur in all circumstances EXCEPT:
b. denture wearer
c. antibiotic therapy
Angular cheilitis may be seen accompanying an intraoral candida infection. Angular cheilitis may be precipitated by a habit such as lip licking.
a. both true
b. both false
c. first true, second false
d. first false, second true
Identify the most common form of recurrent herpes simplex infection:
b. herpes labialis
c. herpetic whitlow
d. primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
Identify the virus associated with infectious mononucleosis:
A. Varicella zoster
B. Herpes simplex
C. Epstein Barr
D. Human papilloma virus
(this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
What is an oral manifestation that may be seen in a patient with infectious mononucleosis:
c. white plaques
d. palatal petichiae
"Partial anodontia" is another term for:
Fordyce granules are most likely noticed initially in which patient group?
c. senior citizens
d. middle-aged adults
The nasopalatine duct cyst demostrates a "heart shape" due to the superimposition of which anatomic structure?
a. inverted "Y"
b. nasal septum
c. anterior nasal spine
d. inferior nasal spine
An ill-fitting denture may cause all the pathologic lesions EXCEPT:
a. actinic cheilitis
b. epulis fissuratum
c. papillary hyperplasia
d. chronic atrophic candidiasis
An abnormal bend or curve in a tooth, usually maxillary incisors, and may be induced from trauma:
Bruxism is a pathologic manifestation of which of the following conditions?
Which of the following is the most common site for a supernumerary tooth?
a. distal to max 3rd
b. distal to mand 3rd
c. between mand bicuspids
d. between max central incisors
A permanent tooth that displays hypoplasia caused by trauma or infection during development has been termed:
a. "peg" lateral
b. mulberry tooth
c. turner's hypoplasia
d. hutchinson's incisor
Hairy tongue is characterized by hyperplasia of which of the following papillae?
All of the following medications have been associated with gingival hyperplasia EXCEPT:
What is the MOST common location for AIDS-related "oral hairy leukoplakia"?
a. soft palate
b. buccal mucosa
c. dorsum of the tongue
d. lateral border of the tongue
The most common location for a mucocele is the:
b. lower lip
c. upper lip
d. retromolar pad
A radiograph shows an unerupted mandibular third molar with a 3 cm pericoronal radiolucency. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. primordial cyst
b. dentigerous cyst
c. later periodonatal cyst
d. odontogenic keratocyst
All of the following present as radiolucent lesions EXCEPT:
c. dentigerous cyst
d. odontogenic keratocyst
e. lateral periodontal cyst
The study of the diagnosis treatment and prevention of diseases affecting the periodontium:
Tissues of the periodontium:
- Periodontal ligament
- Cementum (also tooth)
- Alveolar bone
The PDL is a __________ _____________ complex, made up of fiber bundles and cells.
T/F interradicular fibers are found in all teeth (located in furcations).
False, ONLY in multi-rooted teeth
The ____________ fibers are most numerous and resist "intrusive" and "vertical" masticatory forces.
What fibers serve to hold teeth in interproximal contact with each other?
Transseptal fibers - "interdental ligament"
The fibers responsible for resisting horizontal and tilting forces:
Horizontal fibers also called Alveolar crest fibers
What fibers resist "extrusive" forces?
Primary cell of the PDL:
What cells are responsible for the break down of bone?
What cells are responsible for the production of cementum?
All PDL fibers attach to the tooth's __________.
Signs of healthy gingiva:
- light (coral) pink
- gingival margin on enamel
- 1-3 mm gingival sulcus
Signs of unhealthy gingiva:
- spongy, swollen
- red, bleeds upon probing
- bulbous, festooned
- recession, hyperplastic
- deep periodontal pockets
What gingiva condition develops rapidly, obvious inflammation, may be painful and neutrophil is most prevelant?
What gingiva condition develops slowly, may appear normal and not usually painful?
Edema is the result of _____________ of the peripheral circulation.
Light, coral pink, erythema, cyanosis and pallor are used to describe what?
Gingival surface texture can be described as:
Drugs that increase the risk of gingival enlargement:
- Phenytoin (dilantin)- anticonvulsant
- Nifedipine (procardia)- antihypertensive
- Cyclosporine- immunosupressive
Normal, clefted, bulbous, festoon, recession all terms used to describe.....
Reversible inflammation of the gingiva, directly related to the accumulation of plaque is called what?
Causes of gingival enlargement (not medication related)....
- Periodontal inflammation
- Genetic/hereditary factors
- Systemic conditions (leukemia, hormonal imbalance)
Gingival enlargement due to an increase in cell NUMBERS:
Gingival enlargement due to an increase in cell SIZE:
A loss of alveolar bone, usually of the facial aspect of the tooth root oval-shaped root exposure apical to the CEJ, includes recession, alveolar bone loss and root exposure:
A window-like opening in the bone covering the root of a tooth, bordered by alveolar bone on the coronal aspect of the tooth:
_____________ from saliva are absorbed to the tooth surface, forming the acquired pellicle.
Round/spherical-shaped bacteria associated with early plaque formation:
Rod shaped bacteria, most common type found in periodontal disease:
Spiral-shaped bacteria, often associated with NUG/NUP:
What bacteria can grow with OR without oxygen?
Non-motile, gram (+), aerobic, cocci are found in ____________ gingiva.
Motile, gram (-), anaerobic, bacilli & spirochetes are associated with:
Most common/most important periodontal pathogen:
Porphyromonas gingivalis (p. gingivalis)
A facultative anaerobe, associated with periodontal disease and inflammation during pregnancy:
Campylobacter rectus (c. rectus)
Gram (-) rod-shaped bacteria associated with aggressive periodontal disease:
- Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans
- (a. actinomycetemcomitans)
MOST often associated with inflammation during pregnancy, gram (-) anaerobe:
Prevotella intermedia (p. intermedia)
4 causes/local etiology of gingivitis:
- Irritating restorations
- Food impaction
Associated with gram (-) bacteria, stimulate osteoclasts, inhibit fibroblasts and may harm neutrophils:
_______________ directly breaks down connective tissue.
___________ directly breaks down tissues.
Inflammation of the periodontal tissues, loss of connective tissue attachment to the tooth, bone resorption, and apical migration of the junctional epithelium is .....
Periodontal rate of destruction varies due to virulence of __________ AND __________.
bacteria, host response
What is the BEST instrument to detect a furcation?
What radiographs are BEST for evaluated periodontitis?
occur ABOVE (coronal to) the aleveolar crest of bone
base of the pocket is BELOW (apical to) the alveolar crest
T/F occlusal trauma causes periodontal disease.
Moderate mobility, 1-2mm horizontally (facial-lingual) is what class?
What class of mobility is the tooth depressible in the socket?
2 characteristics that distinguish between Herpes and Aphthous ulcers:
- Herpes: keratinized mucosa, vesicles first
- Aphthous: non-keratinized mucosa, NO vesicles
Periodontist associated with what genetic disorders?
- Down syndrome
- Papillon-LaFevre syndrome (premature tooth loss, hyperkertosis of the hands and soles of feet)
- Chediak-Higashi syndrome (impairment of neutrophils)
Necrotizing periodontal disease associated with HIV, loss of clinical attachment and bone:
NUP (necrotizing ulcertative periodontitis)
Necrotizing periodontal disease that affects the gingiva only:
NUG (necrotizing ulcerativie gingivitis)
What type of abscess results from injury to or infection of the surface of gingival tissue?
What type of abscess results when infection spreads deep into pocket, and drainage is blocked?
What type of infection results from tooth pulp?
Stage I periodontal lesions: (initial)
- 2-4 days
- No clinical changes
Stage II periodontal:(early)
- 4-7 days
- Clinical signs of gingivitis
- Rete pegs develop
- Collagen destruction
Stage III periodontal: (established)
- 2-3 weeks
- Capillary proliferation causes erythema
- Increase probing depths
Stage IV: (advanced)
- 3 wks - years
- Transition from gingivitis to periodontitis
What is the movement of WBCs to the periphery of vessel walls?
What is pavementing?
WBCs line the wall of the vessel
Process by which neutrophils squeeze between endothelial cells in the vessel wall
What is the movement of cells into the tissues from the blood vessel?
The movement of cells to the site of inflammation
Main function of neutrophils:
Four stages of fibrous repair:
- Blood clotting
- Wound cleansing
- Tissue rebuild
- Wound remodeling
Tobacco use affect the periodontium by:
b. enhance phagocytosis
c. loss of protective keratin
d. reduced blood supply to the tissues
The most common type of bacteria on the dorsum of the tongue and other soft tissues in a healthy mouth is:
Porphyromonas gingivalis are:
a. sprial-shaped bacteria found in early plaque biofilms
b. spherical shaped bacteria important to the formation of endotoxin
c. aerobic bacillus bacteria found in high proportions on the tongue oral mucosa
d. pathogenic bacillus bacteria that are prevalent in many chronic periodontal diseases
An initial gingivitis lesion (stage I) will exhibit:
a. no clinical signs
b. alveolar bone loss
c. bleeding upon probing
d. swelling and erythema of gingival tissues
Which bacterial species is NOT associated with chronic periodontitis?
a. treponema denticola
b. prevotella intermedia
c. streptococcus mutans
d. porphyromonas gingivalis
Which of the following is a characteristic of the progression of periodontal disease?
b. motile organisms
c. aerobic organisms
d. gram positive organisms
a. is produced by mast cells
b. stimulates osteoclast activity
c. is produced by B-lymphocytes
d. stimulates the secretion of immunoglobins
Which assessment finding indicates that a patient's periodontal disease is progressing?
a. periodontal pockets
b. bleeding upon probing
c. evidence of radiographic bone loss
d. attachment loss increasing over time
Sharpey's fibers are found in:
a. dentin and gingiva
b. dentin and alveolar bone
c. enamel and alveolar bone
d. cementum and alveolar bone
When probing a tooth with a Class II furcation:
a. the probe will not be able to enter the furcation area
b. the probe will penetrate the furcation, but will not pass completely through
c. the probe will pass completely through the furcation, from the buccal to the lingual
d. the probe will pass completely through the furcation, and the tooth will exhibit mobility and bleeding upon probing
Controlled substances act states that schedule II drug is:
High abuse potential, written prescription w/signature, no refills
Controlled substances act states that schedule III drug is:
Moderate abuse potential, may phone in, 5 rx in 6 months
Controlled substances act states that schedule I drug is:
Highest abuse potential, no medical use
Controlled substances act states that schedule IV drug is:
Lower abuse potential, may phone in, 5 rx in 6 months
Controlled substances act states that schedule V drug is:
Lowest abuse potential, some available OTC
What pharmocologic activity of a drug, related to dose?
The maximum response of a drug, regardless of dose is:
What is the time it takes for a drug to have an effect?
What is the length of time that a drug has an effect?
What route of administration is placed directly into the GI tract?
What route of administration bypasses the GI tract?
What route of administration is the safest, least expensive but less predictable?
What route of administration is the most rapid, best for emergency situations?
What is the first-pass effect?
When orally administered drugs initially pass through the liver, reducing the effect of the drug. Require larger dose
_________ ___________ is most important for absorption of oral drugs.
___________ is most important site for metabolism of drugs.
____________ most important organ for elimination of drugs from the body.
Hypersensitivity response to a drug to which the patient was previously exposed, NOT dose related......
Dose-related reaction that is not a part of the desired therapeutic action:
What branch of the autonomic nervous system is known as "fight or flight"?
What branch of the autonomic nervous system is known as "rest and digest"?
What drugs mimic the sympathetic nervous system?
What drugs mimic the parasympathetic nervous system?
What is the analgesic drug of choice for children and patients on anti-coagulants?
What drug is used to treat opioid overdose?
What is the most commonly prescribed bactericidal antibiotic in dentistry?
Name a broad spectrum ABX that is bacteriostatic and should NOT be taken during pregnancy or early childhood due to tooth discoloration:
T/F patient states on medical history that they have a heart stent, premedication is required.
False (shunt, should. not stent)
Patient lists Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide and Ethambutol as current medications. What condition is this patient being treated for?
- Active TB.
- RIPE. all four used together for treatment.
What antibiotic is used to treat anaerobic infections?
What is the mechanism of action of local anesthetics?
block peripheral nerve conduction by decreasing the sodium ion permeability of the nerve membrane
There are 2 major families of local anesthetics: Amides and Esters
Where are the amides metabolized?
Where are the esters metabolized?
- Esters:blood plasma
What is the cardiac does of epinephrine?
.04 mg about 2 cartridges
T/F Benzodiazepines are NOT analgesic
What may be contraindicated in cardiovascular patients due to sodium content?
Nitroglycerin works as a ____________ and is the drug of choice for ___________.
vasodilator, angina pectoris
What hypertension medications reduce blood pressure by decreasing cardiac output?
Calcium channel blockers reduce blood pressure by causing systemic ____________.
What does the abbreviation ac stand for on a prescription?
What abbreviation is written on a prescription if the patient is to take a medication at bedtime?
When written on a prescription, "PO" is an abbreviation for:
a. by mouth
b. after meals
c. before meals
Which describes the function of a filter in the dental x-ray tubehead?
a. removes low energy x-rays
b. decreases the mean energy of the beam
c. reduces the size and shape of the beam
d. eliminates the radiation dose to the thyroid.
The 8-inch PID is more effective in reducing radiation exposure than the 16-inch PID. Pointed cones are not recommended due to the production of excess scatter radiation.
a. both true
b. both false
c. first true, second false
d. first false, second true
The acronym "ALARA" refers to which principle?
a. film processing
b. infection control
c. radiation protection
d. radiation measurements
Federal regulations require the x-ray beam be collimated to a diameter of no more than ____ inches as it reaches the patient's face.
What is the purpose of including a sheet of lead foil inside the intraoral film packet?
a. provides patient comfort
b. protects the film from saliva or blood
c. shields the film from backscattered radiation
d. distinguishes between the pateints right and left side
Your patient states that movement occurred during an intraoral exposure. Which error are you likely to see on the resultant image?
b. increased density
c. decreased sharpness
d. increased magnification
All the structures may be visible on maxillary periapical images EXCEPT one....
b. inverted "Y"
c. mental ridge
d. medial palatal suture
On which image would you most likely see the external oblique ridge?
a. molar bitewing
b. premolar bitewing
c. max anterior PA
d. mand anterior PA
The periodontal ligament space appears as a dense radiopaque line around the root of the tooth. The lamina dura appears as a thin radiolucent line that surrounds the root of the tooth.
a. both true
b. both false
c. first true, second false
d. first false, second true
Where is the location of the hyiod bone on panoramic images?
a. superimposed over the styloid process
b. covers the apices of the maxillary posterior teeth
c. extends from the temporal bone anterior to the mastoid process
d. lies below or superimposed over the inferior border of the body of the mandible
Error in panoramic image where as the anterior teeth are blurred and thin?
too far anterior (a=anorexic)
Error in panoramic image where as the anterior teeth are blurred and wide?
too far posterior (p=pudgy)