CCNP R&S Switch 300-115

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  1. What is the command to display the Switch Database Management (SDM) template?
    show sdm prefer
  2. What are the types of SDM templates for IPv4?
    Routing, VLAN, Default and Access
  3. Which of the SDM templates does not allocate resources for Policy-based routing ACEs?
    Default and VLAN
  4. Which SDM template does not allocate resources to Unicast routes?
  5. Which SDM Templates is feature resources  has 512 and 1K resources allocated to it?

    A) Policy-based routing ACEs
    B) IGMP groups and multicast routes
    C) Security ACEs
    D) Unicast MAC addresses
    E) Layer 2 VLANs
    F) QoS classification ACEs
  6. Which of the IPv4 SDM Template maximizes on the ACLs?
  7. What is the number of resources allocated to the Unicast MAC address for the VLAN SDM template?
  8. What SDM template can be set to allow for IPv6 functionality?
  9. What is required to be done to the switch after the SDM template has been changed?
  10. Which SDM template is displayed below:

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  11. Which SDM template is displayed below:

    Image Upload
  12. Which SDM template is displayed below:

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    Desktop default
  13. Which SDM template is displayed below:

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  14. Which SDM template is displayed below:

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    Desktop IPv4 and IPv6 default
  15. Which SDM template is displayed below:

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    Desktop IPv4 and IPv6 Routing
  16. Which SDM template is displayed below:

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    Desktop IPv4 and IPv6 VLAN
  17. Name the three (3) Layers in the Enterprise Campus Network Design?
    • Access Layer
    • Distribution Layer
    • Core Layer
  18. Which Enterprise Campus Network Layer aggregates multiples access layer switches?
    Distribution layer
  19. Which characteristics determine the size of a switch block?

    a) Traffic types and behavior
    b) Type of users
    c) size and number of common workgroups
    d) number of users 
    e) Where the server resource is located
    A, C
  20. What are the type of Core Design?
    • Dual Core
    • Mutli-node Core
    • Collapse Core
  21. What is the process called when the  frame is forwarded in a "best effort" fashion by flooding it out all switch ports assigned to the source VLAN?
    Unknown unicast flooding
  22. What are the two types of Multilayer Switching?
    • 1) Route caching
    • 2) Topology based
  23. What are the other names for the MLS type Route caching?

    a) NetFlow LAN switching
    b) Flow-based switching
    c) Demand-based switching
    d) Route once, Switch many
    e) Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)
    a, b, c, d
  24. Which statements are true?

    a) The data plane exists in the RP (Route Processor)
    b) The data plane exists in the SE (Switch Engine)
    c) The control plane exists in the SE
    d) The control plane exists in the RP
    B, D
  25. What is the default aging time for the MAC address table?
    300 seconds
  26. What two features are part of the TCAM operation?
    • Feature Manager (FM)
    • Switching Database Manager (SDM)
  27. Which component compiles or merges the ACEs into entries in the TCAM table?
    Feature Manager (FM)
  28. Which component is responsible for partitioning the TCAM into several areas that support different functions?
    SDM (Switch Database Manager)
  29. The TCAM entries are consist of which three (3) combinations?

    a) Value
    b) 1
    c) Mask
    d) Subnet
    e) ACE
    f) Result
    A, C, F
  30. What is the maximum size of the values and mask for the TCAM entries?
  31. The TCAM tables is always organized by this entry:

    a) Value
    b) Mask
    c) Result
    d) ACE
    e) LOU
  32. Which operator or operand are compiled and store in the (Logical operation unit) LOU register:

    a) gt
    b) lt
    c) neq
    d) range
    e) eq
    f) one of the above
    A, B, C, D
  33. Please which technology are the following standards are based on?

    a) IEEE 802.3      __________
    b) IEEE 802.3af   __________
    c) IEEE 802.3at   __________
    d) IEEE 802.1D   __________
    e) IEEE 802.1w   __________
    f) IEEE 802.1Q   __________
    g) IEEE 802.1s   __________
    h) IEEE 802.3ad __________
    i)  IEEE 802.1X  __________
    j) IEEE 802.3ae ___________
    k) IEEE 802.1ab ___________
    l) IEEE 802.1t   ___________
    • A - Ethernet
    • B - PoE Standard (15.4W)
    • C - PoW+ Standard (30W)
    • D - Spanning-Tree Protocol (STP)
    • E - Rapid Spanning-Tree Protocol (RSTP)
    • F - Trunking Standards
    • G - Multiple Spanning-Tree (MST)
    • H - Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP)
    • I - Port-based Network Access Control
    • J - 10 Gigabit Ethernet Standard
    • K - LLDP standard
    • L - Extended system ID
  34. Which statement is true about CST:

    A) All CST BPDUs are transmitted over the trunk link using VLAN 1.
    B) CST can have more than one instance of STP to encompasses all VLANs.
    C) CST is apart of the IEEE 802.1t standards which specify how VLANs are to be trunked between switches.
    D) All CST BPDUs are transmitted over trunk links using the native VLAN with untagged frames.
  35. Which STP states are valid in 802.1D STP?

    a) Disabled
    b) Disable
    c) Blocking
    d) Listening
    d) Learning
    e) Active
  36. What is the default STP priority?
  37. In which VTP mode and version that allows for  extended vlan id?
    • VTP transparent mode
    • VTPv3
  38. What is the STP multicast address?
  39. What us the default load-balancing method for the Etherchannel group?
    Source MAC address
  40. Which EtherChannel Negotiation Protocol is Cisco proprietary?
  41. Which method is used to load-balance two or more IP address or MAC address for the EtherChannel bundle link?
    Exclusive-OR (XOR)
  42. Which of the Etherchannel Negotiation protcol used the mode Active- Passive?
  43. Which of the Etherchannel negotiation protocol uses the Auto - Desirable?
  44. What are the three session modes?
    • User EXEC mode
    • Privileged EXEC mode
    • Global Configuration mode
  45. What features needs to enabled for DAI to Work?

    a) dhcp snooping
    b) dynamic arp inspection
    c) ip source guard
    d) Port security
  46. Which features prevents a switch from connect to an end device port?

    A) DAI
    B) ip source guard
    C) BPDU Guard
    D) Port security
    E) LACP
  47. Which features protects an end user port from CAM table overflow?

    A) dhcp snooping 
    B) ip source guard
    C) Port security
    D) DAI
  48. Which features prevents a rogue device from snooping the default gateway ip address?

    A) ip source guard
    B) DAI
    C) Port security
    D) dhcp snooping
  49. What is the command to enable dhcp snooping for vlan 10 and setting port fa0/24 as trusted port?
    • Sw(config)# Ip dhcp snooping
    • Sw(config)# ip dhcp snooping vlan 10
    • Sw(config)# Interface f0/24
    • Sw(config-if)# ip dhcp snooping trust
  50. What is the command to enable DAI for vlan 100 and while configuring the 24-ports switch interface f0/1 - f0/20 to be untrusted?
    • Sw(config)# ip dhcp snooping
    • Sw(config)#ip dhcp snooping for vlan 100
    • Sw(config)# ip arp inspection vlan 100
    • Sw(config)# interface range f0/21-24
    • Sw(config-if-range)#ip dhcp snooping trust 
    • Sw(config-if-range)#ip arp inspection trust
    • Sw(config)#
  51. What is the default packet rate limit for DAI per port?
  52. What is the command to set the packet rate limit of 10 for DAI on switch interface?
    ip arp inspection limit rate 10
  53. What can be done to exempt a router from arp inspection without trusting the port?
    ARP Access List
  54. Show the command to to configure an access list to prevent arp inspection for dhcp server with ip address and MAC address 002a.0f31.0012 for vlan 100?
    • Sw(config)# arp access-list Allow-DCHP-ARP
    • Sw (config-nacl)# permit ip host Mac host 002a.0f31.0012
    • Sw(config)# ip arp inspection filter Allow-DHCP-ARP vlan 100
  55. What feature prevent a Man-in-Middle attack on a switch?
    Dynamic ARP Inspection  (DAI)
  56. Which statement is true about VTP version 2:

    A) the vtp server will accept updates from a newly added vtp client switch with the same domain name and higher revision number.
    B) the vtp server with no domain name will accept the first vtp update over a trunk link and reject any other update regardless of it revision number.
    C) the vtp client will accept all updates from a vtp server with the same domain name even with a lower revision number.
    D) the vtp client and server has to have the same domain name and revision number in order to exchange vlan information.
    A, D
  57. Which VTP parameters must match in order for the switch to exchange vlan information:

    A) Management Domain
    B) vtp password
    C) revision number
    D) version
    E) vtp mode
    A, B, D
  58. What can be done to reset a VTP revision number to zero:

    A) switch to vtp mode transparent and back to vtp mode server
    B) change vtp domain name to a non- existent domain name and back to same domain name
    C) switch the vtp version from 1 to 2 and back
    D) change the vtp password to reset revision number
    A, B
  59. Which information is correct about the different vtp modes:
    A) vtp server mode does not saves VLAN configuration information to NVRAM but in vlan database.
    B) vtp client mode stores VLAN information to the NVRAM.
    C) vtp transparent mode saves VLAN configuration information in the NVRAM
    D) vtp server mode saves VLAN configuration in the NVRAM.
    C, D
  60. What features are presentitled in vtp version 2 that are not supported in version 1?
    • Unrecognized TLV support
    • Version-Dependent transparent mode
    • Token ring support
    • Consistency check (check md5 digest on new vtp message for new info received and validate new vlan name and values entered)
  61. Which feature allows a switch to increase on network available bandwidth by restricting flooded traffic over trunk links?
  62. Which vlans are eligible for vtp pruning?
    Vlan 2 - 1001
  63. Vtp pruning can operate in all vtp modes except for transparent mode. True or false
  64. Vtp pruning can be enables for only one switch in a VTP management domain and disabled for the others? True or False

    Explanation: When vtp pruning is enabled it is enabled for all switches in the same vtp management domain. it is also support in version 1 and 2
  65. What are the two ways in which the VTP settings can be configured?
    • 1. Using Vtp global configuration mode
    • 2. Using vlan database configuration mode
  66. How can the vtp domain  name be removed from a switch?
    It cant be removed,  can only be changed.
  67. How can vtp be disabled on a switch?
    Change VTP mode to transparent (for version 1 & 2) or for VTPv3 set the mode to Off
  68. Which statements are true about private-vlans?

    a) Community VLANs are associated with Primary VLANs
    b) Isolated VLANs are associated with Community VLANs
    c) Primary VLANs are mapped to Community and Isolated VLANs
    d) Promiscuous ports are mapped to Primary VLANs
  69. Which command is the correct method in configuring a promiscuous mode port:

    a) switchport mode private-vlan
    b) switchport private-vlan promiscuous mode
    c) switchport mode private-vlan promiscuous
    d) switchport private-vlan mode promiscuous
  70. What is the command to assigned a port to an Isolated VLAN 210 which is associated with the primary VLAN 200?
    • switchport mode private-vlan host
    • switchport private-vlan host-association 200 210
  71. What is the command to create the following Private VLAN configuration and creating the necessary association:
    Primary VLAN 100
    Isolated VLAN 200
    Community VLAN 300
    • sw1(config)# vlan 200
    • sw1(config-vlan)# private-vlan isolated
    • sw1(config)#vlan 300
    • sw1(config-vlan)# private-vlan community
    • sw1(config)# vlan 100
    • sw1(config-vlan)# private-vlan primary
    • sw1(config-vlan)# private-vlan association 200,300
  72. What is the command to create a promiscuous mode port with VLAN 100 as the primary and VLAN 150-200 as the secondary?
    • switchport mode private-vlan promiscuous
    • switchport private-vlan mapping 100 150-200
  73. Identify the issue with the private-vlan configuration that is preventing the line protocol for the switch port Fa0/11 is not up.

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    The secondary PVLANs 200,300 are not associated with the primary PVLAN 100 under the vlan configuration.

    • Correcting the configuration:
    • sw(config)# vlan 100
    • sw(config-vlan)# private-vlan association 200,300
  74. Select the types of secondary vlans:

    a) Promiscuous
    b) host
    c) Primary
    d) Isolated
    e) Community
    D, E
  75. Select the port types associated with Private-vlans:

    a) Promiscuous
    b) host
    c) Primary
    d) Isolated
    e) Community
    A, B
  76. Which port type can communicate with all devices in either Isolated and Community VLANs?

    a) Promiscuous
    b) host
    c) Primary
    d) Isolated
    e) Community
  77. Which statements are False about private-vlans configuration on multiple switch:

    A) VTP can be used to replicate all the private-vlans to all the switches in the VTP domain.
    B) All VLANs must be manually configured on the trunk ports that are connecting to the switches provide private-vlan support. 
    C) Private-vlans can be configured to use the extended VLAN range on switches using VTP mode transparent.
    D) All VLANs must be manually configured on each switch that needs to participate in private-vlan operations.
  78. Which SDM template must be configured to fully support Private-vlans on a switch?
    Desktop Default

    command: sdm prefer default
  79. True or False: One instance of STP runs for each primary and secondary VLANs.

    • Explanation:
    • Only one STP instance runs for the entire private VLAN. The STP instance parameters are propagated to the secondary VLANs associated with the primary VLAN.
  80. What is the command to remove an ARP entry of an IP address from the private VLAN?
    no arp [ip-address]
  81. What is the command to add an ARP entry for a private-VLANs?
    arp [ip-address] [hardware-address] type
  82. What are the two values sent by an Cisco IP Phone within the voice traffic?
    • 1. Layer 3 IP precedence
    • 2. Layer 2 CoS (Class of Service)
  83. What is the protocol used to communicate vlan information to a Cisco IP Phone?
    CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol)
  84. What are the RSTP cost for the following link speed:

    a) 100 Mbps
    b) 1 Gbps
    c) 10 Mbps
    d) 10 Gbps
    • a) 19
    • b) 4
    • c) 100
    • d) 2
  85. What is meant by the STP port type for interface Po2 in the image below:

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    It means that the switch connected to the port is running 802.1D STP.
  86. What is meant by the STP port type for interface Po2 on this switch:

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    It means that the Port-channel Po2 is operating at speed of 10 Mbps (hub speed)
  87. What is the command to create a HSRP group  with number 100 using virtual ip address on a switch?
    standby 100 ip
  88. Which of the following features can be used when private-vlans are configured on a interface?

    a) Voice VLANs
    b) Etherchannel (PAgP/LACP)
    c) 802.1X
    d) PortFast
    e) SPAN
    C, D
  89. What is the command to configure an SVI for the primary VLAN 20 and mapping the secondary VLANs 20,30,40 to it?
    (Assuming that all PVLANs has already been created)
    • sw1(config)# interface vlan 10
    • sw1(config-if)# private-vlan mapping 20,30,40
  90. Which protocols are used to advise the VoIP device of the voice vlan to use on a switch?

    a) CDP
    b) LLDP
    c) DTP
    d) STP
    e) LACP/PAgP
    A, B
  91. How is QoS enabled on a switch and configuring the port to a trust state for the voice VLAN?
    • sw1(config)# mls qos
    • sw1(config-if) # mls qos trust cos
  92. Which feature is automatically enabled when the voice VLAN is configured on an interface?

    a) Access port
    b) PortFast
    c) Port security
    d) QoS
    e) CDP
  93. Which switchport mode must the interface be configured for in order to apply the Voice Vlan configuration?

    a) trunk
    b) access
    c) dynamic auto
    d) private-vlan
    e) on
  94. What is the command enable tagging of native vlans packets on all IEEE 802.1Q trunk ports?
    sw(config)# vlan dot1q tag native
  95. What is the command for showing the IEEE 802.1Q native vlan tagging status?
    show vlan dot1q tag native
  96. Which methods does Storm Control use to measure traffic activities:

    a)  Bandwidth as a percentage of the total available bandwidth of the port.
    b) Traffic rate in packets per second
    c) Traffic rate in bits per second
    d) Traffic rate on number of known unicast packets
  97. Which mutlicast traffic is not blocked by Storm Control implementation when  the threshold is reached?

    a) CDP
    b) FHRP
    c) Routing protocols
    d) BPDU
    e) UDLD
  98. What is the default settings of the storm control on the port for the threshold level?

    a) 90 percent
    b) 0.0 percent
    c) 50 percent
    d) 100 percent
  99. What does the following command mean:
    interface Fa0/1
      storm-control broadcast level 80 60
    a) Once broadcast traffic goes over 60%, it is dropped and restored when it goes above 80%.
    b) Between 60-80% of broadcast traffic is allowed on the port.
    c) 60-80% of the bandwidth of broadcast traffic is blocked.
    d) Once broadcast traffic goes over 80% of the bandwidth, it is block and restored when the same is dropped below 60%.
  100. What is the default action for Storm Control when it is enabled on an interface?

    a) Shutdown
    b) Filter out the unknown unicast traffic
    c) Send a trap
    d) Block all traffic
  101. Which configured mode prevents a port from communicating with another port in the same mode via Layer 2 but it can communicate with all other ports?

    a) Port Security
    b) Protected Port
    c) Private-VLAN community port
    d) Private-VLAN isolated port
  102. Which features allows can allow the blocking of all or none of the unknown multicast and unicast traffic out of a port?

    a) Storm Control
    b) Port Blocking
    c) Port Security
    d) Private-VLAN
  103. Which interface commands blocks unknown unicast traffic from a port?

    a) storm-control broadcast level 0.0
    b) switchport block unicast
    c) storm-control unicast level 100
    d) storm-control unicast 0.0
  104. Which switchport modes are not supported when configuring port security on the interface?

    a) Dynamic Auto
    b) Dynamic desirable
    c) Access
    d) Trunk
  105. How long does FHRP potocol fails over to the backup when an interface is shutdown?

    a) 3 seconds
    b) 1 second
    c) 0 second
    d) 10 seconds

    Note: When an FHRP interface is shutdown, a shutdown signal is send to the next router so  it can take over.
  106. Which FHRP protocol has its virtual MAC starts with 0000.b400?
    GLBP - Gateway Load Balancing Protocol
  107. Which FHRP protocol has its virtual MAC starts with 0000.5e?
    VRRP - Virtual Redundancy Router Protocol
  108. Which FHRP protocol has its virtual MAC starts with 0000.0c?
    HSRP - Hot Standby Routing Protocol
  109. Which FHRP protocol feature allows the backup/standby router to take over when the primary failed?
  110. What is the command to turn an L2 interface to a routed interface?
    switch(config-if)# no switchport
  111. Which MAC address configuration is not supported by the port security aging time?

    a) sticky secure mac address
    b) static secure mac address
    c) dynamic secure mac address
    d) access secure mac address

    • Note:
    • A is configured using the following command:
    • switchport port-security mac-address sticky

    • B is configure using the following command:
    • switchport port-security mac-address [MAC]

    C is configured by default

    D dont exist
  112. Cisco Discover Protocol operates at which layer of the OSI model?
    Layer 2
  113. (True or False) CDP runs on all media that support Subnetwork Access Protocol (SNAP). Because CDP runs over the data-link layer only, two systems that support different network-layer protocols can learn about each other.
  114. What is CDP holdtime and update timer?
    • Hold time 180 secs
    • Update timer 60 secs
  115. True or False, CDP version 2 advertisement are enabled by default on a switch?
  116. Autonegotiation of link speed and duplex operates at which layer of the OSI model?
    Layer 1
  117. What is the command to configure UDLD in normal mode?
    UDLD renable
  118. What is the command to reneable a port disabled by UDLD?
    UDLD reset
  119. In which UDLD mode disables a port when it is operating in a unidirectional way?

    Note: UDLD mode aggresive
  120. The STP Cost of a switch interface is based on which of the following:

    a) Link speed
    b) Connected speed
    c) Link type
    d) Link duplex mode
  121. Which type of traffic is NOT allowed on an IEEE 802.1X unauthenticated port?

    a) CDP
    b) STP
    c) Broadcast
    d) EAPOL
  122. What are two port roles in STP that are always in the forwarding state?
    a) Root
    B) Designated
    C) Backup
    D) Alternate
    A, B
  123. Which port role in STP is a block port in a loopback configuration? 
    A) Root
    B) designated
    C) alternate
    D) backup
  124. Which port role never exist on a root bridge?
    A) Root
    B) alternate
    C) designated
    D) backup
  125. Which port role is always on a switch that is not the root?
    A) alternate
    B) designated
    C) Root
    D) backup
  126. True or False:  When  a superior BPDU is received on the root port of the switch, the switch forwards it with an updated message out all designated ports.
  127. What is the order of states of an shutdown port when it is transition to forwarding state?
    A) blocking, listening, learning, forwarding
    B) listening,  learning, forwarding
    C) disabled, listening, learning, forwarding
    D) disabled, blocking, listening,learning, forwarding
    • D
    • Note: it said the state of an shutdown port so disabled will have to be included.
  128. Which statement is NOT true about an STP blocked port:
    A) Discards frames received on the interface
    B) Does not learn addresses
    C) Receives BPDUs
    D) Sends BPDUs
  129. What is the order of priority in relation to the STP selection?

    a) G0/2
    b) old switch
    c) Lower Priority
    d) Higher Priority
    e) new switch
    f) G0/24
    C, D, B, E, A, F


    • 1. Priority is checked first
    • 2. If the Priority is the same then it check the mac address (old switch has the lowest MAC address)
    • 3. Port Priority (lower interface has the lower priority)
  130. Default Mac Address aging time?
    5 minutes / 300 secs
  131. What happens to the MAC address aging time if STP is going through reconfiguration?
    The MAC address aging time is set the the forwarding-delay value. (default 15 secs)
  132. What is the default STP running on an switch interface:

    a) PVST
    b) PVST+
    c) CST
    d) 802.1w
    e) 802.1s

    Explanation PVST+ is the default STP running on a switch interface using the IEEE 802.1D standards with Cisco proprietary extensions.
  133. True or False: You cannot run MST without RSTP
  134. What is the maximum number of PVST+ or RPVST+ instances supported on a switch?
  135. What is the command to remove STP from a vlan instance.?
    Sw1 (config)# No spanning-tree vlan [vlan-id]
  136. What is the switch priority set when you enter the command spanning-tree vlan 1 root?
    24576 and if other switches are love then it be oms 4096
  137. What is the virtual mac address for GLBP?
  138. What does the parameter "if-authenticated" does in the command:

    aaa authorization group radius if-authenticated
    Only if the Radius server is unreachable, all command enter by the user if authenticated successfully is allowed.
  139. Which statement is NOT True about the following command output:

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    a) The default virtual MAC address is 4000.0000.0010
    b) This command is from an HSRP group
    c) The authentication password is "cisco123"
    d) the group has been from the default priority
    e) the track object has been configured and is not set to the default decremented value.
  140. Which FHRP is command output is shown here:

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    VRRP - Virtual Redundancy Router Protocol
  141. Which FHRP protocol is shown in the output below:

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    GLBP - Gateway Load Balancing Protocol
  142. Which FHRP command output is displayed below:
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    HSRP - Hot Standby Redundancy Protocol
  143. Which performance metric is not collected by IP SLA?

    a) Delay
    b) Jitter
    c) Packet loss
    d) Packet sequencing
    e) Connectivity
    f) Voice
  144. True or False: IP SLAs is Layer 2 transport independent hence it can configure end-to-end operations over disparate networks to best reflect the metrics that an end user is likely to experience.
  145. Which privileged EXEC command can be used to see the IP SLA supported operation types?

    a) show ip sla configuration
    b) show ip sla application
    c) show ip sla operation
    d) show ip sla
    e) show ip sla operation type
  146. True or False: Any device can be a source for a destination ip sla responder.

    Note: The responder uses the Cisco IOS IP SLAs Control Protocol to provide a mechanism through which it can be notified on which port it should listen and respond
  147. What are the two steps are required to get IP SLA operational and provide the results?
    • 1. Configuring the IP SLA operation
    • 2. Scheduling the IP SLA operation
  148. Which ip sla command generated the following output?

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    show ip sla responder
  149. Which ip sla command give the following output?

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    show ip sla configuration 123
  150. Which ip sla command generated the following output?

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    show ip sla statistics
  151. Which ip sla operation type is configured and what is the result?
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    tcp-connect and it was successful.
  152. Which security feature does SNMP v3 includes:
    A) message integrity
    B) Authentication
    C) Encryption
    D) community string
    E) arp access list
    A, B, C
  153. Which SNMP model uses the security level noAuthnoPriv?

    A) SNMP v1
    B) SNMP v2c
    C) SNMP v3
    D) All of the above
  154. SNMP manager operation get-bulk is supported by which of the following snmp versions:

    A) snmp v1
    B) SNMP v2c
    C) SNMP v3
    D) All of the above
    B, c
  155. What are the two forms of snmp notifications that can be sent to the SNMP Manager?
    traps and informs
  156. What is the steps to create SNMP group?
    • 1. Create SNMP engine I'd
    • 2. Create SNMP group 
    • 3. Create SNMP username

    • Command:
    • snmp-server engineID {local engineid-string | remote ip-address [udp-port port-number] engineid-string}

    snmp-server group groupname {v1 | v2c | v3 {auth | noauth | priv}} [read readview] [write writeview] [notify notifyview] [access access-list]

    snmp-server user username groupname {remote host [udp-port port]} {v1 [access access-list] | v2c [access access-list] | v3 [encrypted] [access access-list] [auth {md5 | sha} auth-password]}
  157. What is the command to reauthenticate a client on a dot1x configured interface?
    dot1x re-authenticate interface [interface-id]
  158. What are the three (3) dot1x port control state and which is the default?
    • force-authorized (default)
    • force-unauthorized
    • auto
  159. Which command enables dot1x port authentication which begins in the unauthorized state?
    • dot1x pae authenticator
    • dot1x port-control auto
  160. What is the prefic for a IPv6 link-local address?

    Note: the MAC address is included in the middle of this address when it is generated.
  161. What is the STP Multicast address?
  162. What are the tie breakers for Root port?
    • Lower Bridge ID
    • Lower root port cost
    • Lower sender Brdige ID
    • Lower sender port ID
Card Set:
CCNP R&S Switch 300-115
2017-11-16 21:22:10
CCNP 300 115 CCNPR Switching Cisco Network Professional
CCNP R&S Switch exam 300-115.
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