Common Core

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  1. What is the cardinal rule?
    Expose the MINIMUM number of people, to the MINIMUM amount of explosives, for the MINIMUM amount of time consistent with safe and efficient operations.
  2. How many classes of supply are in the Army?
    10
  3. _____ so critical that their accomplishment determines the success of each group.

    (tasks)
    Collective tasks
  4. Who attends quarterly and annual briefs?
    Commander
  5. ______ requires property book accountability after issue from the stock record account.
    Nonexpendable
  6. Upon initial contact, what is the first step before treating a casualty?
    Win the fight
  7. True or False:

    Gun trucks secure intersections / critical points / setting TCPS / block or redirect civilian traffic.
    True
  8. What are the three categories of training?
    Long range, short range, near term
  9. What is an example of a maintenance asset at the tactical level?
    Feild maintenance company
  10. Fair and equal treatment should e based on what 3 factors?
    Merit, fitness, and capabilities that support unit readiness
  11. Who does custodial responsibility fall under for property in storage awaiting unit turn in?
    Supply SGT
  12. What lines of MEDEVAC have to be transmitted during initial contact?
    Lines 1-5
  13. Define operational environment
    A composite of the conditions, circumstances, and influences that affect the employment of military forces and bear on the decisions of the unit commander
  14. What term best describes dedication to Army values and professional ethic
    Character
  15. _____ requires property book accountability after issue of stock record.
    Non-expendable
  16. A _____  report is not viewed by the chain of command.
    Restricted
  17. METT_TC
    • Mission
    • Enemy
    • Terrain
    • Troops
    • Time
    • Civilian Considerations
  18. When organizing a convoy, what vehicle should be designated as the pace setter?
    heaviest vehicle
  19. True or False:

    The purpose of defensive operations is to cause the enemy attack to fail.
    True
  20. What acronym is used in IPB to describe the operational environment?
    PMESII-PT
  21. Define constraint
    Restriction placed on command by higher and dedicates an action or inaction.
  22. Define Key Terrain
    Any locality or area whose seizure, retention, or control affords advantage to either side.
  23. True or False:

    Goal of risk management is to eliminate all risks.
    False
  24. Who is the sole approving authority of a family care plan?
    Commander
  25. What is the officers primary responsibility for unit training?
    Training one echelon bellow and evaluating two echelon's bellow.
  26. _____ report doesn't hold the offender accountable.
    Restricted
  27. True or False:

    GCSS-A tactical level logistics system is single internet accessible solution ERP software system used by the Army.
    True
  28. What website replaces FM 7-1?
    www.atn.army.mil
  29. Define Area of Influence
    A geographic area a commander is directly capable of influencing operations by maneuvers or fires.
  30. What is the primary responsibility of NCO's at the unit level?
    Develop junior NCO's and assist in the development of junior officers.
  31. To obtain route clearance, who gives you the authority to be on a given route and time?
    Battalion S3 and S4
  32. What is exemplified by media, transnational companies, refugees, and humanitarian relief organization?
    Third part actors
  33. What are the three correct methods in war gaming?
    • Belt
    • Box
    • Avenue in Depth
  34. How many steps are here in risk management?
    5
  35. True or False:

    Hasty checkpoints have a specified purpose.
    True
  36. What is the property consisting of lands, buildings, structures, and utility systems?
    Real Property
  37. Will replicating lessons learned from military history ensure success on the battlefield?
    No
  38. During which activities do you employ risk management?
    All
  39. What is the objective of an awards program?
    Recognition for valor, exceptional service, and acts of heroism.
  40. Which class has the major end items such as tanks, helicopters, and radios?
    Class VII
  41. True or False:

    Sustainment maintenance is defined as mechanics conduct troubleshooting and replace components.
    False
  42. What is the commanders responsibility in unit readiness?
    Ensuring the units are capable of performing and completing the mission
  43. What are the three basic counseling skills counselor's must have?
    • Active listening
    • Responding
    • Appropriate questioning

    (not effective listening)
  44. What are the three ethical perspectives in ethical reasoning?
    • Values
    • Mission
    • Vision

    (not personal experience)
  45. Which step of MDMP involves making a MCOO?
    (Modified Combined Obstacle Overlay)

    Step 2: Mission Analysis
  46. Command supply discipline program (CSDP) is a _____ program.
    Commander
  47. Which tool serves as both deterrent and correction action for CDSP?
    Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)
  48. What is the term used when promising to give a subordinate preferential treatment during CQ hours?
    Quid Pro Quo
  49. True or False:

    It has been generalized that the US culture is more collectivist than individualistic as a whole.
    False
  50. What are the three types of recon?
    • Route
    • Area
    • Zone
  51. True or False:

    Primary purpose of offensive operations is to view the enemy.
    False
  52. What is the definition of non mission capable equipment?
    Equipment not ready to perform a combat mission.
  53. What is the last step of TLP?
    Supervise and refine
  54. CATs helps the commander plan ____
    (Combined Arms Training Strategies)

    Task-based, event driven training events
  55. A convoy is and always has been a ____
    Combat operation
  56. Define competence
    Soldiers that demonstrate they are successfully able to perform their duties
  57. What system is used to cover dead space?
    M203
  58. How many steps do TLP's have? WHat are they?
    • 1: Receive the mission
    • 2: Issue a WARNO
    • 3: Create a tentative plan
    • 4: Initiate movement
    • 5: Conduct reconnaissance (Reconnoiter)
    • 6: Complete plan
    • 7: Issue complete order
    • 8: Supervise and refine
  59. HQDA standardized METLs are developed for ____ and higher echelons.
    Brigade
  60. What  is the planning methodology that integrates activities of the commander and staff?
    Military Decision Making Process (MDMP)
  61. What is the historical minimum planning ratios?
    1:3 (1/3 2/3 rule)
  62. What is the Army's two level maintenance system?
    Field or sustainment
  63. Which variables do adversaries of the US see as being their best advantage?
    Time
  64. What tactics are an asymmetric enemy likely to use?
    • Irregular
    • Criminal
    • Traditional
  65. What does SALUTE stand for?
    • Size
    • Activity
    • Location
    • Unit
    • Time
    • Equipment
  66. Which line of a 9-line exists only when contamination is present?
    9
  67. What are the three ratings used in training assessment?
    • T (trained)
    • P (needs practice)
    • U (untrained)
  68. What is the primary tool for documenting officer performance and potential?
    OER
  69. Within CSDP, what is accountability?
    Obligation to keep records of property / documents / funds.
  70. According to ADRP 3-0, a potential adversary is _____
    They have the intentions to suggest it could challenge the US.
  71. Define culture
    Shared beliefs, values, customs, behaviors, norms, and artifacts members of a society use to cope with the world.
  72. True or False:

    Mission variables describes characteristics that might affect the mission.
    True
  73. What is a self-contained position deployed on a road to control movement?
    Checkpoint
  74. Battle analysis is described as...
    Method used by the US for the systematic study of battles
  75. What type of counseling is the developmental counseling efforts based on perception of strengths and weaknesses?
    Professional growth counseling
  76. What website has replaced FM 7-1 and contains the Army's doctrinal foundation?
    Army Training Network (ATN)
  77. What does ACE stand for?
    • Ammunition
    • Casualties
    • Equipment

    Sent up at completion of enemy contact. As TL, send it up without need of being told by SL.
  78. Both ____ reporting provide victim with an option to receive medical counseling.
    Restricted and unrestricted.
  79. When determining initial risk, what two things do you have to consider?
    Probability and Severity
  80. Who retains overall responsibility for unit movement planning and execution?
    Unit Commander
  81. What are the operational variables?
    PMESII-PT

    • Political
    • Military
    • Economic
    • Social
    • Information
    • Infrastructure
    • Physical Environment
    • Time
  82. What is the difference between ADP and ADRP?
    • ADP: focuses on fundamental principles
    • ADRP: focuses on details of the fundamentals
  83. What are the Mission Variables?
    METT-TC

    • Mission
    • Enemy
    • Terrain
    • Time
    • Troops
    • Civilian Considerations
  84. What are unified land operations executed through?
    • Decisive Operations
    • Offensive Operations
    • Defensive Operations
    • Stability Operations
    • Defense Support of Civil Authorities
  85. What are the army core competencies?
    • Combined Arms Maneuver
    • Wide Area Security
  86. What do Lines of Effort (LOE) do, and what
    They link multiple tasks using the logic of purpose rather than geographical reference to focus efforts toward establishing operational and strategic conditions
  87. After what steps of MDMP are WARNOs published?
    • Step 1: Receipt of Mission
    • Step 2: Mission Analysis
    • Step 6: COA Approval
  88. What does the commanders intent do?
    Describes what constitutes success for the operation.
  89. What are the 7 steps of MDMP?
    • Receipt of Mission
    • Mission Analysis
    • COA Development
    • COA Analysis
    • COA Comparison
    • COA Approval
    • Orders Production
  90. What are the three developmental domains?
    • Institutional (Schools)
    • Operational (Unit)
    • Self-Development (Soldier)
  91. What are the three attributes of leader development?

    What are the three leader development competencies?
    • Character
    • Presence
    • Intellect

    • Leads
    • Develops
    • Achieves
  92. What are the four types of military briefings?
    • Information
    • Decision
    • Mission
    • Staff
  93. What are the four steps in military briefings?
    • Plan
    • Prepare
    • Execute
    • Assess
  94. What are the classifications of property?
    Nonexpendable - An item of Army property coded with and ARC of "N" in the FEDLOG. Nonexpendable items require property book accountability after issue from the stock record account.

    Expendable - An item of Army property coded with an ARC of "X" in the FEDLOG, no formal accountability required after issue form a stock record account.

    Durable - An item of Army property coded with an ARC of "D" in FEDLOG. Durable items do not require property book accountability after issue from the stock record account, but requires hand receipt control when issued to user.
  95. What are two types of property?
    • Personal
    • Real
  96. What are the 5 types of responsibilities?
    COMMAND RESPONSIBILITY Responsibility for all property within their command.

    SUPERVISORY RESPONSIBILITY Responsibility for all property in the possession of personnel under their supervision

    CUSTODIAL RESPONSIBILITY Supply Sergeant, supply Clerk, or warehouse person responsible for property in storage awaiting issue or Turn-in.

    DIRECT RESPONSIBILITY Responsibility for all property within their command. PHRH Responsibility for property in their possession

    PERSONAL RESPONSIBILITY Responsibility for property in their possession
  97. What are the four stages of the counseling process?
    • Identify the Need for Counseling
    • Prepare for Counseling
    • Conduct Counseling
    • Opening the session
    • Discussing the issues
    • Developing the plan of action
    • Recording and closing the session
    • Follow-up
  98. What is the XO's job during MDMP?
    To manage and coordinate the staff's work and provide quality control.
  99. What is the staff's job during MDMP?
    Focus on helping the commander understand the situation, making decisions, and synchronizing those decisions into a fully developed plan or order.
  100. What does OCOKA stand for?
    • 1) Observations and field of fire
    • 2) Cover and concealment
    • 3) Obstacles
    • 4) Key terrain
    • 5) Avenues of approach
  101. What does ASCOPE stand for?
    • 1) Areas
    • 2) Structures
    • 3) Capabilities
    • 4) Organizations
    • 5) People
    • 6) Events
  102. What is a Named Area of Interest?
    A point or area usually along an avenue of approach or mobility corridor where activity, or lack of, will help to confirm or deny a particular ECOA.
  103. Define decision point
    Identifies those battle events that may require tactical decisions and when these decisions must be made for the commander to retain available options.
  104. What is the Army's operational concept
    Unified land operations
  105. Four decisive actions of Unified Land Operations
    • Offense
    • Defense
    • Stability
    • DSCA

Card Set Information

Author:
DianaKarlova
ID:
332241
Filename:
Common Core
Updated:
2017-06-15 02:19:00
Tags:
CHEM BOLC Army Officer Common Core
Folders:

Description:
Foundations of Leadership and Common Core
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