Policy 400 2017 Exam

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  1. 400.1 PURPOSE AND SCOPE

    The Department has a responsibility to protect life and property and to provide service to the residents of Austin. To fulfill this obligation it must provide an appropriate response to calls. Officers should be ever mindful that they have a responsibility to use what three things when operating vehicles in an emergency capacity to ensure the safety of motorists and pedestrians?
    caution, good judgment, and due care
  2. 400.2 EMERGENCY RESPONSE AND VEHICLE OPERATIONS

    Responding with emergency lights and/or siren does not relieve the operator of an authorized emergency vehicle of the duty to act as a ____ ____ emergency vehicle operator in like circumstances (Tex. Transp. Code § 546.005).
    reasonably prudent
  3. 400.3   CALLS FOR SERVICE
    Once a call for service has been dispatched, it may only be downgraded by whom?
    A) a communications supervisor
    B) any officer who has knowledge of the call
    C) a supervisor
    D) a supervisor or communications
    D) a supervisor or communications.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. 400.3.1 HOT SHOT CALLS

    Hot shot calls are incidents involving physical harm or injury to what and that is in progress and/or all involved parties are still on scene.
    a person or property
  5. 400.3.2 URGENT CALLS

    Officers responding to Urgent calls may operate ____.
    Code 2
  6. 400.3.3 PRIORITY 2 CALLS

    Officers responding to Priority 2 calls shall operate _____.
    Code 1
  7. 400.4   ASSIGNMENT OF CALLS

    Which calls require a two-officer response and are generally dispatched by Communications to the two closest available patrol officers.
    Hot Shot and Urgent
  8. 401.2.1 REQUEST ADDITIONAL RESOURCES


    Which unit shall be notified anytime an incident involves a commissioned peace officer as a suspect, regardless of that officer's agency or jurisdiction.
    The Special Investigations Unit (SIU)
  9. 401.2.1 REQUEST ADDITIONAL RESOURCES

    Which 2 of the following do NOT require personnel from the appropriate Investigative Unit be requested during the initial investigation of the incident?

    1. Homicides and suicides.
    2. Extortions.
    3. Robberies of individuals with serious injury
    4. Officer-involved shootings.
    5. Officer-involved serious injury incidents.
    6. Aggravated sexual assaults
    7. Certain crashes as outlined in Policy 346 (Crash Investigation and Reporting).
    8. Suspected bombs and explosive devices.
    9. Clandestine laboratories.
    10. Exigent mobile phone requests.
    • 3. Robberies of individuals with serious injury
    • 6. Aggravated sexual assaults
  10. 401.2.1 REQUEST ADDITIONAL RESOURCES

    What individual shall be requested:

    1. At the direction of an Investigative Unit; and
    2. For major crime scenes that involve:
    (a) Evidence collection.
    (b) Photographing.
    (c) Latent fingerprinting.
    (d) Large property loss.
    (e) Serious injury or death.
    A Crime Scene Technician
  11. 401.3   ROUTINE COMMAND AT POLICE INCIDENTS

    Which of the following is not required by policy for the assumption of command at a crime scene?
    A) informing the current officer in charge of  intent to assume command
    B) the officer advises communications of his intent to assume command
    C) the officer identifying himself
    B) the officer advises communications of his intent to assume command
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. 401.4.1 CRIME SCENE PROCESSING AND EVIDENCE COLLECTION

    Which is a crime scene not requiring a sketch to be completed?
    A) large property loss
    B) aggravated robbery
    C) serious injury
    D) death
    B) aggravated robbery
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. 401.4.2 LATENT PRINT PROCESSING

    Which item will employees NOT process for latent prints at the scene? 

    A) any weapon used in the commission of a crime
    B) firearms
    C) forgery documents
    D) computer equipment
    C) forgery documents

    Forgery documents will be handled as outlined in Policy 618 (Property and Evidence Collection Procedures).
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. 401.5 SECURE AND IDENTIFY WITNESSES

    Which statements of consent should be obtained prior to transporting a witness in a Department vehicle?
    a) verbal
    b) written
    c) recorded 
    d) all the above
    d) all the above
  15. 401.6.1 WHEN A RESIDENCE OR BUSINESS CAN BE SECURED AFTER FORCED ENTRY

    When there is no contact made and there is no further action to be taken, the supervisor who approved the forced entry will leave a note.  Which of the following is NOT needed on the note?

    A) The employee's name and employee number.
    B) The employee's office or other contact number.
    C) The phone number for the City Legal Department
    D) A brief reason for the entry
    E) The incident number for the call
    C) The phone number for the City Legal Department
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. 402.1.1 GENERAL GUIDELINES

    Crashes involving bicyclists will be investigated and reported as defined in Section346.3 Crash Investigation. Non-crash events involving a bicyclist will be documented in a Versadex report using title code 4311 under certain circumstances.  Which of the following is NOT a circumstance that requires documentation?

    A) The incident occurred on private property and resulted in damage to the property of another
    B) The incident occurred as a result of a potential criminal act, violation of the Transportation Code, violation of a City Ordinance, or the actions of another party
    C) The incident occurred on a public place
    D) At least one of the involved subjects sustained bodily injury
    A) The incident occurred on private property and resulted in damage to the property of another
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. 402.2.5 SUPERVISOR RESPONSIBILITIES

    Supervisors will update a PPO's queue when they get their SOLO assignment; prior to this they will approve the PPO's report  in which queue?
    A) the Academy Training Cadet Queue
    B) the Academy Cadet Training Queue 
    C) the Cadet Training Academy Queue
    D) the Cadet Academy Training Queue
    B) the Academy Cadet Training Queue
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. 402.2.5 SUPERVISOR RESPONSIBILITIES

    Supervisors shall not review reports for which they are involved in; however, supervisors that are not directly involved in an incident (e.g., witness the incident) may conduct the review. When a supervisor is involved in the incident, who will conduct the review?
    A) a supervisor one rank higher than the involved supervisor 
    B) any other supervisor of the same rank as the involved supervisor
    C) a supervisor of at least the same rank as the involved supervisor 
    D) any other available supervisor in the same area as the involved supervisor
    A) a supervisor one rank higher than the involved supervisor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. 402.5 REPORTING THE ACTIVE TARGETING OF A FIREARM AT A PERSON
    402.5.1 OFFICER RESPONSIBILITIES

    When employees the rank of sergeant or above are involved in the incident, who will be notified?
    A) the Watch Lieutenant
    B) another supervisor the rank of the involved employee 
    C) another supervisor the rank of the involved employee or higher 
    D) the lieutenant of the area where the incident occurred
    C) another supervisor the rank of the involved employee or higher
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. 402.5 REPORTING THE ACTIVE TARGETING OF A FIREARM AT A PERSON
    402.5.1 OFFICER RESPONSIBILITIES

    If the incident involves multiple employees with different supervisors, who would not be notified to assign one supervisor to conduct the review?
    A) the Watch Lieutenant
    B) the lieutenant of the area where the incident occurred
    C) an on-duty supervisor in the area where the incident occurred, if available.
    C) an on-duty supervisor in the area where the incident occurred, if available.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. 402.6   REPORTING GANG AFFILIATION

    Only employees assigned to which unit may designate a subject as affiliated with a gang in the report writing system?
    the Gang Suppression Unit
  22. 402.6   REPORTING GANG AFFILIATION
    Employees who interact with a subject that may be affiliated with a gang should initiate an incident report titled what and include specific details that give rise to the belief the subject is affiliated with a gang.
    "Gang Information"
  23. 403.3.2 FELONY CASE MANAGEMENT

    Assigned investigators shall prepare a case jacket for the prosecutor's office with copies of all paper documents.  The case jacket will be forwarded to the prosecutor's office within what timeframe of the date the individual is booked into jail and an investigator assigned the case.
    A) seven (7) calendar days
    B) one (1) week
    C) ten (10) calendar days
    D) two (2) weeks 
    D) two (2) weeks
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. 403.4.3 JUVENILE STATEMENTS AND CONFESSIONS

    To ensure the non-custodial statement is given voluntarily, personnel shall do what?
    release the juvenile to a parent or guardian after taking the statement and then obtain a warrant to take the juvenile into custody.
  25. 403.5.1 DEFINITIONS


    This method is employed when a blind procedure is not possible. It is  a method of administering a photographic line-up such that the officer cannot see or track which photograph is being presented to the witness until after the procedure is completed.
    A) Folder Shuffle Method 
    B) Multiple Folder Method
    C) Folder Multiple Method
    D) Shuffle Folder Method
    A) Folder Shuffle Method
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. 403.5.2 SIMULTANEOUS LINE-UPS

    Simultaneous line-ups require the approval of a whom? 
    A) supervisor of unit conducting the investigation
    B) organized crime unit supervisor
    C) child abuse unit supervisor
    D) lieutenant of the unit conducting the investigation, or his designee
    C) child abuse unit supervisor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. 403.5.3 SEQUENTIAL LINE-UPS


    The suspect's photo will be grouped with at least how many other subject photos (fillers). The showing of a single photograph for identification purposes is prohibited, unless the subject is positively known by the victim and the photograph is shown only to confirm the identity.
    A) four
    B) five
    C) six
    D) seven
    B) five
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. 403.5.5 LIVE LINE-UPS

    The investigating officer will arrange for whom to be present to assist in coordinating the live line-up.
    A) the district attorney
    B) the assistant district attorney
    C) the police monitor or his designee
    D) the suspect's attorney
    B) the assistant district attorney
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. 403.5.5 LIVE LINE-UPS

    Who will view the persons in the line-up prior to the start of the line-up?
    A) the assistant district attorney and the police monitor, or designee
    B) the police monitor, or designee
    C) the assistant district attorney 
    D) the assistant district attorney and the suspect's attorney  
    E) the suspect's attorney
    D) the assistant district attorney and the suspect's attorney
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. 403.5.5 LIVE LINE-UPS

    A minimum of how many people (including the suspect and fillers) shall be used in each physical line-up?
    a) five
    b) six
    c) seven
    d) eight
    b) six
  31. 403.5.5 LIVE LINE-UPS

    A witness will not view the lineup more than how many times?
    a) one time
    b) two times
    c) three times
    d) four times
    b) two times
  32. 403.5.5 LIVE LINE-UPS
    No talking is allowed during the live line-up. If anyone viewing the line-up wishes to ask a question, request certain words or phrases be spoken or specific actions performed by those standing in the line-up, how can this be accomplished?
    use an index card and submit the comment to the investigator.
  33. 403.5.7 FIELD IDENTIFICATIONS

    Field identifications shall only be conducted under exigent conditions.  Which of the following is NOT included in policy as a requirement or condition for a field identification?

    A) The suspect is detained within a reasonable time of the offense
    B) There is an immediate need to arrest the suspect
    C) The suspect is suspected of committing a crime of violence, and further violence is imminent
    D) A line-up cannot be promptly arranged
    E) Prior supervisor's approval
    C) The suspect is suspected of committing a crime of violence, and further violence is imminent
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. 403.5.7 FIELD IDENTIFICATIONS
    Field identifications may be conducted if the suspect is detained within a reasonable time of the offense.  What constitutes "within a reasonable time" is dependent on the individual circumstances of the case.  Generally, the courts have held that what time lapse is acceptable?
    A) a thirty minute time lapse
    B) a two-hour time lapse
    C) a forty-five minute time lapse
    D) a one-hour time lapse
    B) a two-hour time lapse
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. 403.5.7 FIELD IDENTIFICATIONS

    What shall be provided by the witness before the witness observes the suspect in a field identification?
    A) a full and detailed description of the suspect
    B) a full description of the suspect
    C) a detailed description of the suspect
    D) a detailed and full description of the suspect
    A) a full and detailed description of the suspect
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. 403.7 FORENSIC "HITS" OR MATCHES

    APD has multiple forensics capabilities that can aid in a criminal investigation. Which of the following is not mentioned in policy?

    A) CODIS 
    B) AFIS 
    C) JTTF
    D) NIBIN 
    C) JTTF
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. 403.7 FORENSIC "HITS" OR MATCHES

    APD has multiple forensics capabilities that can aid in a criminal investigation.  Which list of acronyms is correctly described?

    A) AFIS (Latent Prints), CODIS (DNA), NIBIN (Ballistics)
    B) AFIS (Ballistics), CODIS (DNA), NIBIN (Latent Prints)
    C) AFIS (Latent Prints), CODIS (Ballistics), NIBIN (DNA)
    D)AFIS (DNA), CODIS (Latent Prints), NIBIN (Ballistics)
    A) AFIS (Latent Prints), CODIS (DNA), NIBIN (Ballistics)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. 403.7.1 NOTIFICATION OF FORENSIC "HIT" OR MATCH

    Forensics shall notify the assigned investigator and Unit supervisor of a forensics "hit" or match.  Notifications will be sent simultaneously via email to the investigator assigned in Versadex and the Unit email address.  The supervisor or designee shall be responsible for ensuring that the Unit email address is checked at what frequency?

    A) in an on-going and reasonable manner
    B) weekly
    C) on a daily basis
    D) at least twice in a 24 hour period
    C) on a daily basis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. 403.8 SURVEILLANCE

    Complex or long-term surveillance requires specialized training and equipment. These types of surveillance will be conducted only by whom?
    A) units whose personnel are authorized and trained to conduct such operations.
    B) personnel within each unit who are authorized and trained to conduct such operations.
    C) any officer who has received specialized training in surveillance
    A) units whose personnel are authorized and trained to conduct such operations.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. 405.2

    All felony affidavits/complaints pursuant of an arrest warrant will be reviewed by ____ prior to presentation to a Magistrate.
    A) a municipal court judge
    B) assistant district attorney
    C) arrest review sergeant
    D) a supervisor
    D) a supervisor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. 405.2 ARREST WARRANTS

    Affidavits/complaints for any case of a complex nature (as determined by the Unit supervisor) will be presented to whom for review and advice on the proper wording or text of the affidavit/complaint prior to the Magistrate's review.
    A) an Assistant County/District Attorney
    B) an Assistant County/District Attorney from the county where charges are to be filed
    C) an Assistant County/District Attorney and the Unit Supervisor
    D) an Assistant County/District Attorney from the county where charges are to be filed and the Unit Supervisor
    D) an Assistant County/District Attorney from the county where charges are to be filed and the Unit Supervisor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. 405.2.1 ARREST WARRANT "PICKUP" SUPPLEMENT

    Any employee wishing to obtain an arrest warrant for a person will first complete what type of supplement in Versadex using the appropriate supplement template.
    A) an "ARREST WARRANT" supplement
    B) a "WARRANT FOR ARREST" supplement
    C) a "PICKUP" supplement
    D) a "CAPIUS" supplement
    C) a "PICKUP" supplement
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. 405.2.1 ARREST WARRANT "PICKUP" SUPPLEMENT

    After the warrant has been signed by a Magistrate, the employee will update the "PICKUP" supplement.  What information is NOT required by policy? 
    A) bond amount
    B) issuing Magistrate
    C) the warrant number
    D) date of issuance
    D) date of issuance
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. 405.2.2 OBTAINING AN ARREST WARRANT

    In order to obtain an arrest warrant in Travis County, employees will prepare a probable cause affidavit, a Travis County warrant, and a Municipal Court cover sheet.  If the employee wishes to obtain an arrest warrant in Hays or Williamson County, which above item is NOT required?  What additional item IS required?
    • Municipal Court cover sheet is NOT required
    • A complaint IS required, along with a PC affidavit and the appropriate county warrant.
  45. 405.2.2 OBTAINING AN ARREST

    Employees will not file any charge or complaint alleging any type of law violation in any court within Travis County without authorization from their supervisor except for which court?
    Municipal Court
  46. 405.2.2 OBTAINING AN ARREST

    In Williamson County, the affidavit, complaint and warrant can be presented to any Justice of the Peace and all County or District Judges currently holding office in Williamson County. Warrants, affidavits and complaints must be presented where to obtain a Cause #?
    A) to a JP office
    B) to a county judge
    C) to a district judge
    D) to any judge holding office in Williamson County
    A) to a JP office
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. 405.2.2 OBTAINING AN ARREST WARRANT

    Magistrate signed warrants and affidavits/complaints will be taken to the appropriate clerks office and a cause number will be obtained for both. For warrants filed in Travis County, what office will issue the cause number?  In Hays County?
    • Municipal Court charges office
    • Hays County clerks office.
  48. 405.2.3 SCANNING REQUIRED ARREST WARRANT DOCUMENTATION

    Warrant packet items must be scanned in the following order via a Xerox scan/copy station into the G:XeroxWarrants folder after the arrest affidavit/complaint is signed by a judge but prior to submitting the hard copies to the Central Records/Warrant Unit.  Which is the correct order?

    (a) Original signed warrant (Copy if charges filed in Williamson County); Copy of the affidavit/complaint signed by the magistrate; EPO for FV offenses, if applicable; Victim Notification Form for FV offenses, if applicable; and Detective Warrant Served Notice form.

    b) Copy of the affidavit/complaint signed by the magistrate; Original signed warrant (Copy if charges filed in Williamson County); EPO for FV offenses, if applicable; Victim Notification Form for FV offenses, if applicable; and Detective Warrant Served Notice form.

    c) Original signed warrant (Copy if charges filed in Williamson County); Detective Warrant Served Notice form; EPO for FV offenses, if applicable; Victim Notification Form for FV offenses, if applicable; and Copy of the affidavit/complaint signed by the magistrate.
    (a) Original signed warrant (Copy if charges filed in Williamson County); Copy of the affidavit/complaint signed by the magistrate; EPO for FV offenses, if applicable; Victim Notification Form for FV offenses, if applicable; and Detective Warrant Served Notice form.
  49. 405.3.1 OBTAINING A SEARCH WARRANT


    Supervisors shall review and approve search warrants in what manner before allowing the investigator to take the warrant to a magistrate for issuance?
    A) by placing their initials and employee number in the upper left corner on the face of the warrant application
    B) by placing their initials and employee number in the lower right corner on the face of the warrant application
    C) by placing their initials and employee number in the lower left corner on the face of the warrant application
    D) by placing their initials and employee number in the upper right corner on the face of the warrant application
    D) by placing their initials and employee number in the upper right corner on the face of the warrant application
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. 405.3 SEARCH WARRANTS
    The case agent will place the incident number pertaining to the search warrant where, on the face of the warrant as soon as it is obtained?
    A) in the upper left corner
    B) in the lower left corner
    C) in the lower right corner
    D) in the upper right corner
    D) in the upper right corner
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. 405.3.1 OBTAINING A SEARCH WARRANT

    When a search warrant is for computer equipment that is to be examined in the computer forensics lab the case agent should contact what unit(s) to obtain information on the proper wording of the computer search warrant before taking the search warrant to a magistrate for issuance.
    A) the Forensics Unit or the Homicide Unit
    B) the DART Unit or the Forensics Unit
    C) the DART Unit or the Child Abuse Unit
    D) the Child Abuse Unit or the Homicide Unit
    C) the DART Unit or the Child Abuse Unit
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. 405.3.2 EXECUTION OF A SEARCH WARRANT

    Narcotic based search warrants will not be executed by any personnel other than those assigned to which unit unless a supervisor with this unit has been consulted?
    A) Vice Unit
    B) Narcotics Unit
    C) Organized Crime
    C) Organized Crime
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. 405.3.2 EXECUTION OF A SEARCH WARRANT

    Prior to execution of any search warrant, the supervisor in charge will ensure that a Search/Arrest Warrant Threat Assessment Form is completed.  This is APD Form number ____.
    A) 10
    B) 9
    C) 12
    D) 11
    D) 11
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. 405.3.2 EXECUTION OF A SEARCH WARRANT

    If the search warrant is for computer equipment, the seizing officers should be familiar with what document? 
    A) Seizing Computers and Electronic Communication Devices Evidence
    B) Seizing Electronic Communication Devices and Computer Related Evidence.
    C) Seizing Computers and Computer Related Evidence
    D) Seizing Computers and Related Evidence
    C) Seizing Computers and Computer Related Evidence
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. 405.3.2 EXECUTION OF A SEARCH WARRANT

    Who shall be responsible for notifying the Communications supervisor of the location and approximate time of the warrant service unless it is determined that such notification would compromise the case or jeopardize officer safety?
    A) Any detective from the Investigative Unit obtaining the search warrant
    B) The case agent from the Investigative Unit obtaining the search warrant
    C) The supervisor or designee of the Investigative Unit obtaining the search warrant
    D) The supervisor of the Investigative Unit obtaining the search warrant
    D) The supervisor of the Investigative Unit obtaining the search warrant
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. 405.3.2 EXECUTION OF A SEARCH WARRANT

    What items should be given to the person in charge of the premises at the time the search warrant is executed? If no one is home, copies should be left at the scene.
    A) all are correct
    B) copies of the search warrant
    C) the receipt form 
    D) the inventory of seized property
    A) all the above
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. 406.2.1 **** CLEARANCE STATUS

    What status is used to clear non-criminal reports such as the following?
    - Missing persons that are found or returned home. (Not juvenile runaways)
    - Found property that is returned to the owner.
    - Request to locate where the subject is found.
    - Accidental injuries when no crime is involved.
    - Suicides where no crime has occurred.
    - Dependent/neglected children when there is no criminal element.

    A) suspended (Pending Prosecutorial Review)
    B) cleared administratively
    C) suspended (not cleared)
    D) cleared exceptionally
    B) cleared administratively
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. 406.2.2 ***** CLEARANCE STATUS
    (a) What status is used to clear incidents that meet all the following criteria?
    1. The investigation has established the identity of the offender; and
    2. There is sufficient information to support an arrest, charge, and prosecution; and
    3. The exact location of the offender is known so that the offender could be taken into custody; and
    4. There is some reason outside law enforcement control that prevents arresting, charging, and prosecuting the offender, such as:
    (a) The victim will not cooperate with the investigation or does not wish to pursue the case; or
    (b) A prosecuting attorney has reviewed the case and declines prosecution.
    Cleared Exceptionally
  59. 406.2.2 ***** CLEARANCE STATUS
    What status is also used to clear cases where:
    (a) The suspect is a juvenile and committed a status offense; or
    (b) The suspect is under the age of criminal responsibility; or
    (c) The suspect dies; or
    (d) Extradition of the suspect is denied?
    Cleared Exceptionally
  60. 406.2.5 

    What status is used when approved by the Investigative Unit supervisor and:
    (a) When the determination is made that any further investment of time would be inefficient or unproductive; or
    (b) After 30 days from the date of assignment and the case has not progressed to the point that it can be cleared by any other means described in this section?

    a) suspended (not cleared)
    b) cleared exceptionally
    c) cleared administratively
    d) suspended (pending prosecutorial review)
    a) suspended (not cleared)
  61. 406.2.6 

    This is a temporary clearance status to indicate that the case is being reviewed by the Grand Jury.

    A) suspended (not cleared)
    B) cleared administratively
    C) suspended (pending prosecutorial review)
    D) cleared exceptionally
    C) suspended (pending prosecutorial review)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. 406.2.6 SUSPENDED (PENDING PROSECUTORIAL REVIEW)
    Upon a Grand Jury decision, the status will be changed to reflect the correct final disposition:
    1. "True bill" will use what status?
    2. "No bill" will use what status?

    A) cleared by arrest / cleared exceptionally
    B) cleared by arrest / cleared administratively
    C) cleared administratively / cleared exceptionally
    D) cleared by arrest / suspended (pending prosecutorial review)
    A) cleared by arrest / cleared exceptionally
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. 406.2.8 

    This is a temporary clearance status to indicate that a warrant is outstanding for the arrest of one or more suspects. When all suspects have been arrested the clearance status shall be changed to Cleared By Arrest.
    WARRANT ISSUED (SUSPENDED)
  64. 407.2 Definitions
    The Director of Emergency Management (APD) is a ____ assigned to manage APD’s Emergency Planning and Response Unit?  In addition, they are the  designated single point of contact (SPOC) for APD for all routine emergency management matters. 
    A) Civilian Employee
    B) Commander
    C) Lieutenant
    D) None of these
    C) Lieutenant
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. 407.2 Definitions


    This unit, managed by the APD Director of Emergency Management, is responsible for ensuring APD’s emergency management planning    and response efforts comply and/or coincide with applicable city ordinances, National Incident Management System, and Incident Command System protocols and best practices.
    A) Emergency Planning and Response Unit (EP&R)
    B) Incident Action Plan (IAP)
    C) Department Operations Center (DOC)
    D) None of these
    A) Emergency Planning and Response Unit (EP&R)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. 407.4 DEPARTMENT OPERATIONS CENTER (DOC)

    When the Departmental Operations Center (DOC) is activated, the incident shall be managed in accordance with ____ protocols. The objectives of any activation is to decisively and immediately respond to, mitigate, and recover from an emergency situation while continuing to provide police services to the citizens of the City of Austin.
    A) ICP
    B) ICS
    C) LIPS
    D) NBC
    B) ICS (Incident Command System)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. 407.2 Definitions
    ____– An acronym used to identify a group of incident management personnel organized according to function and reporting to the Incident Commander. 
    A) SMART
    B) FLOP
    C) KISS
    D) LIPS
    B) FLOP  (The General Staff normally consists of the Finance/Administration Section Chief, Logistics Section Chief, Operations Section Chief, and Planning Section Chief.)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. 407.2 Definitions


    All of the following are included in LIPS, an acronym used to prioritize SMART objectives
    A) Life Safety; Incident Command; Property/Environmental Conservation; Societal Control
    B) Life Safety; Incident Stabilization; Priority Goals; Societal Restoration
    C) Life Safety; Incident Stabilization; Priority Goals; Service Restoration
    D) Life Safety; Incident Stabilization; Property/Environmental Conservation; Societal Restoration
    D) Life Safety; Incident Stabilization; Property/Environmental Conservation; Societal Restoration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. 407.2 Definitions

    ____ is a system mandated by HSPD-5 that provides a consistent nationwide approach for Federal, State, local, and tribal governments; the private sector; and nongovernmental organizations to work effectively and efficiently together to prepare for, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents, regardless of cause, size, or complexity.
    A) SMART
    B) LIPS
    C) TTYL
    D) NIMS
    D) NIMS (National Incident Management System)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. 407.2 DEFINTIIONS
    This acronym is used to identify a group of incident management personnel organized according to function and reporting to the Incident Commander. The General Staff normally consists of the Finance/Administration Section Chief, Logistics Section Chief, Operations Section Chief, and Planning Section Chief.
    A) LIPS
    B) ICS
    C) FLOP
    C) FLOP
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. 407.2 DEFINTIIONS
    LIPS- Acronym used to prioritize SMART objectives, stands for what?

    A) Life Safety; Incident Stabilization; Property Conservation; Societal Response
    B) Life Safety; Incident Stabilization; Property Conservation; Societal Restoration
    C) Life Saving; Incident Stabilization; Property/Environmental Conservation; Societal Restoration
    D) Life Safety; Incident Stabilization; Property/Environmental Conservation; Societal Restoration
    D) Life Safety; Incident Stabilization; Property/Environmental Conservation; Societal Restoration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. 407.2 DEFINTIIONS
    NIMS is an acronym for what?

    A) National Incident Mitigation System 
    B) Normal Incident Management System
    C) Nuclear Incident Management System
    D) National Incident Management System 
    D) National Incident Management System
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. 407.2 DEFINTIIONS
    SMART Objectives- Objectives reflecting the overall strategy for managing an event or  incident. SMART stands for:

    A) Specific; Measurable; Action-Oriented; Restorable; Time-Sensitive
    B) Specific; Measurable; Action-Oriented; Response; Time-Sensitive
    C) Specific; Measurable; Action-Oriented; Realistic; Time-Sensitive
    D) Specific; Measurable; Action-Oriented; Renewable; Time-Sensitive
    C) Specific; Measurable; Action-Oriented; Realistic; Time-Sensitive
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. 407.3

    In addition to any special instructions, when placed on Tactical Alert, all department personnel (sworn and non-sworn) will prepare for the probable incident by: Continuing to perform all activities as in a Normal State of Readiness; Keeping issued pager nearby, day or night, whether on or off-duty, in accordance with APD policy; Prepare to work modified hours (e.g. Alpha/Bravo) for a long duration of time.  All of the following is also listed, EXCEPT:
    A) All Answers Are Correct
    B) Prepare to work or support EOC and/or DOC operations.
    C) Prepare a “go bag” 
    D) Sworn personnel will report to work in Class D tactical uniform
    A) All Answers Are Correct
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. 407.3 OPERATIONAL CONDITIONS (OPCON)
    The department operates in three general states. Each state automatically triggers certain duties and responsibilities for all department personnel (sworn and non-sworn).  These states are:
    A) normal state of readiness; tactical alert; department-wide emergency response
    B) normal state of readiness; tactical alert; department-wide emergency 
    C) normal state of activity; tactical alert; department-wide emergency response
    D) normal state of readiness; tactical alert; department-wide emergency action
    A) normal state of readiness; tactical alert; department-wide emergency response
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. 407.6 DOC RESPONSE AND PROTOCOL

    Upon initial activation of the DOC, the Duty Commander will respond as the DOC Incident Commander (IC) for the initial operational period. Generally, the DOC will be located ____.
    A) in a place large enough to accommodate all responding personnel, vehicles, and equipment
    B) in general proximity to the incident
    C) at CTECC
    D) at the COMPSTAT Room
    D) at the COMPSTAT Room
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. 407.8 INCIDENT ACTION PLANS (IAP) AND EVENT ACTION PLANS (EAP)

    The following is a written plan that defines the incident or event objectives and reflects the tactics necessary to manage an incident or event during an operational period.

    A) EAP or EOC
    B) IAP or DOC
    C) EAP or DOC
    D) IAP or EAP
    D) IAP or EAP
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. 408.1.1   MOBILE FIELD FORCE ACTIVATION



    Which of the following personnel DO NOT have the authority to activate a MFF (Mobile Field Force) response:

    A) City Manager
    B) Watch Lieutenant.
    C) Assistant chiefs.
    D) Commanders.
    E) Patrol and support lieutenants.
    F) Chief of Police.
    A) City Manager
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. 408.2 MOBILE FIELD FORCE CONCEPT

    The Mobile Field Force (MFF) is an organized group of specially trained and disciplined officers that can vary in size depending on the scale of the situation. The objectives of the MFF are what?

    A) Life/Safety; Incident Management; Property Protection; Societal Restoration
    B) Life/Safety; Incident Response; Property Protection; Societal Restoration
    C) Life/Safety; Incident Command; Property Protection; Societal Restoration
    D) Life/Safety; Incident Stabilization; Property Protection; Societal Restoration
    D) Life/Safety; Incident Stabilization; Property Protection; Societal Restoration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. 408.2.1 MOBILE FIELD FORCE COMPOSITION

    A MFF squad is usually divided into groups of the following size.

    a) seven to ten officers and one supervisor
    b) seven to ten officers and one sergeant
    c) eight to ten officers and one supervisor
    d) eight to ten officers and one sergeant
    a) seven to ten officers and one supervisor
  81. 408.2.1 MOBILE FIELD FORCE COMPOSITION
    A MFF platoon is composed of how many MFF squads and should be commanded by whom, if available?
    a) four; a sergeant
    b) six; a lieutenant
    c) four; a lieutenant
    d) six; a sergeant
    c) four; a lieutenant
  82. 408.2.1 MOBILE FIELD FORCE COMPOSITION

    What will provide the Incident Commander with the flexibility to conduct offensive operations, if needed, and to make mass arrests?
    A) a preemptive platoon 
    B) a proactive platoon
    C) a mobile field force
    D) a pre-deployed platoon
    A) a preemptive platoon
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. 408.2.2 MOBILE FIELD FORCE EQUIPMENT AND SUPPLIES
    The MFF will be equipped with Batons or PR24's and all of the following, EXCEPT:
    A) helmets with face shields
    B) less-lethal shotguns
    C) ASP batons
    D) OC spray
    C) ASP batons (Specifically indicated NO ASPS)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. 408.3 TRAINING AND PREPAREDNESS

    Patrol commanders shall ensure that all lieutenants and sergeants under their command are familiar with the MFF implementation and what?
    A) Unified Tactical Respond Plan (UTRP)
    B) Unified Tactical Response Plan (UTRP)
    C) Unified Tactical React Plan (UTRP) 
    D) Unified Tactical Reaction Plan (UTRP)
    B) Unified Tactical Response Plan (UTRP)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. 408.4 MOBILE FIELD FORCE RESPONSE



    The MFF activation will utilize a tiered response plan.
    A "Tier I Response" involves which of the following to respond to a MFF call up?
    a) using two designated officers from each on-duty patrol shift 
    b) a limited page out of MFF trained patrol officers assigned to a MFF squad
    c) inclusion of Highway Command officers and other specialty unit personnel
    d) an "all page" sent to the appropriate number of MFF platoons, as deemed necessary by the Incident Commander
    a) using two designated officers from each on-duty patrol shift
  86. 408.4 MOBILE FIELD FORCE RESPONSE

    The number of officers comprising the MFF is at the discretion of the Incident Commander and will depend on what? 
    A) the time of day that the MFF is initiated
    B) the potential for catastrophic consequences
    C) the available number of on duty sworn personnel
    D) the potential for escalating violence
    A) the time of day that the MFF is initiated
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. 408.5 CONTROL STRATEGIES AND CONSIDERATIONS

    The control strategies employed by the MFF DO NOT include:
    A) Relocation
    B) Emergency Response
    C) Arrest
    D) Local Emergency Orders
    E) Containment
    A) Relocation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. 408.5.1 CONTAINMENT

    After the initial response, the next most important control objective is to contain the spread of disorder. Through the use of perimeter control, officers will limit access to the affected area. There are three basic concepts of perimeter control.  Which of the following is NOT one?
    A) linear strategy
    B) dividing
    C) cordoning
    D) sectoring
    B) dividing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. 408.5.2 ARRESTS
    During acts of civil disorder, police must act quickly to arrest violators of the law. All of the following is TRUE of arrests during civil disorder, EXCEPT:
    A) Arrests must be made consistently and in accordance with the citizens right to film the police.
    B) Arrests must commence from the outset and be made early, quickly, constitutionally, fairly, and reasonably. 
    C) The Incident Commander will request prisoner transport vehicles to the scene for mass arrests.
    D) Arrests will help diffuse the unrest while also providing a break in the violence.
    A) Arrests must be made consistently and in accordance with the citizens right to film the police.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. 408.5.2 ARRESTS

    During acts of civil disorder, police must act quickly to arrest violators of the law. These arrests will help diffuse the unrest while also providing a break in the violence.  Arrests must commence from the outset. Which of the following does NOT describe how arrests should be made? 
    A) consistently
    B) constitutionally
    C) fairly
    D) early
    E) reasonably
    A) consistently
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. 408.5.3 LOCAL EMERGENCY ORDERS

    An essential component of the  Department's  strategy  for  responding  to  a  civil  disorder  is the issuance of emergency orders. Who has the authority to issue and enforce rules, regulations, orders, and directions necessary to maintain Life Safety, Incident Stabilization, Property Conservation, and Societal Restoration (e.g., establish a curfew)?
    A) Mayor
    B) Chief of Police
    C) Chief of Police or his designee
    D) City Manager
    A) Mayor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. 409.4 WATER RESCUE GUIDELINES

    A water rescue should not be undertaken unless a victims life is in immediate peril or conditions are rapidly deteriorating and it is unlikely that any immediate assistance will be available from a swift water rescue Special Operations Team.  Officers will only initiate a water rescue:
    a) after a thorough risk/benefits analysis
    b) if the victim is in an area where the officers can safely reach them
    c) when a throw rope can be used to pull the victim from harm
    d) if AFD or swift water rescue personnel have attempted and failed
    a) after a thorough risk/benefits analysis
  93. 410.2 HAZARDOUS MATERIAL RESPONSE

    At any scene involving suspected hazardous materials, officers should attempt to identify the type of hazardous substance. Identification may be determined in what manner?

    A) by placard, driver's manifest or statements from the person transporting the material.
    B) by sign, driver's log, or statements from the person transporting the material.
    C) by placard, driver's admissions or statements from the person transporting the material.
    D) by placard, driver's manifest log, or statements from the person transporting the material.
    A) by placard, driver's manifest or statements from the person transporting the material.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. 410.2 HAZARDOUS MATERIAL RESPONSE
    Which agency is trained and equipped to properly respond and mitigate most hazardous substances and biohazards.
    A) ATCEMS
    B) DPS
    C) APD
    D) AFD
    D) AFD
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. 410.2.1   RADIOLOGICAL TESTING

    All explosions should be assumed to have dispersed what material?
    A) radiological
    B) biological
    C) nuclear
    D) all the above
    A) radiological
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. 412.1 PURPOSE AND SCOPE

    The sole purpose of what unit is to facilitate the professional resolution of hostage and/or barricaded subject incidents?
    A) Hostage Negotiation Team
    B) Hostage Negotiation Response Team
    C) Critical Incident Negotiation Team
    D) Critical Incident Response Team
    C) Critical Incident Negotiation Team
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. 412.1 PURPOSE AND SCOPE

    In APD policy, what means "utilizing nationally recognized law enforcement negotiation techniques which focus on saving human life during critical times involving emotionally disturbed persons and/or criminal subjects?"
    A) professional dispute resolution
    B) professional outcome
    C) professional conclusion
    D) professional resolution
    D) professional resolution
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. 412.2 CRITICAL INCIDENT NEGOTIATION TEAM RESPONSE

    SWAT and CINT shall always respond to what type of calls?
    A) bomb threat at a school or hostage incident
    B) bomb threat or barricaded subject incidents
    C) hostage or barricaded subject incident
    D) barricaded subject or airplane hijacking
    C) hostage or barricaded subject incident
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. 413.2 CLANDESTINE LABS

    Officers should be aware that clandestine laboratories may also be established for the production of biological or chemical agents to be used in weapons of mass destruction (WMD). If a WMD lab is suspected, notification should be made to whom?
    A) APD SWAT and the CLT
    B) APD SWAT and AFD Hazmat Team
    C) APD Bomb Squad and AFD Hazmat Team
    D) APD Bomb Squad and the CLT
    D) APD Bomb Squad and the CLT
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. 413.3 PROCEDURES AFTER THE DISCOVERY OF A LABORATORY OR LABORATORY APPARATUS

    Only what certified personnel will be involved in the dismantling, removal and transportation of clandestine lab chemicals and apparatus?
    A) CLT members or an APD Chemist
    B) OCD members or CLT members
    C) AFD Hazmat or CLT members
    D) APD Chemist or AFD Hazmat
    A) CLT members or an APD Chemist
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. 414.1.1 REQUIRED BOMB SQUAD NOTIFICATION




    The Bomb Squad should NOT normally be utilized in response all of the following, except what?

    A) Industrial buildings
    B) Government buildings
    C) Residential dwellings
    D) School or college campuses
    E) Shopping centers or malls
    F) mobile targets
    F) mobile targets
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. 414.2.1 BOMB THREATS

    If evacuation occurs, establish a perimeter of what distance from the target?
    A) 400 feet or more
    B) 500 feet or more
    C) 600 feet or more
    D) 300 feet or more
    E) 200 feet or more
    D) 300 feet or more
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. 414.2.1 BOMB THREATS

    The decision to conduct a search of the target of a bomb threat should be made by whom, based on an evaluation of validity of the threat.
    A) the person in charge of the premises
    B) the property owner
    C) the supervisor on scene
    D) the responding officers on scene
    A) the person in charge of the premises
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. 416.2.1 OFFICER RESPONSIBILITY
    Entering an aircraft or tampering with parts or debris is permissible for all of the following, except what?
    A) protecting the wreckage from further damage
    B) removing injured or trapped occupants
    C) determining the nature of the crash
    D) protecting the public from danger
    C) determining the nature of the crash
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. 416.2.1 OFFICER RESPONSIBILITY
    Who will be responsible for control of the crash scene until the injured parties are cared for and the crash scene has been rendered safe for containment.
    A) the fire department
    B) the police department
    C) NTSB
    D) FAA
    A) the fire department
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. 416.2.1 OFFICER RESPONSIBILITY
    Who will be responsible for preserving the scene of a plane crash until relieved by the investigating authority?
    A) police personnel
    B) FAA personnel
    C) NTSB personnel
    D) fire personnel
    A) police personnel
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. 416.2.2 NATIONAL TRANSPORTATION SAFETY BOARD
    If the crash did not result in a death or injury and the NTSB elects not to respond, who may assume control of the aircraft?
    A) the pilot or owner
    B) authorized wrecker company
    C) the aviation department
    D) the police department
    A) the pilot or owner
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  108. 418.1 PURPOSE AND SCOPE

    Family Violence is alleged criminal conduct and it is the policy of the Austin Police Department to stress enforcement of criminal laws related to family violence, the protection of the victim and the availability of what?
    A) civil redress  and community remedies
    B) civil recourse and community resources
    C) civil remedies and community resources
    D) civil remedies and community redress
    C) civil remedies and community resources
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  109. 418.1.1 DEFINITIONS
    The existence of a dating relationship shall be determined based on consideration of all of the following except what?
    A) personal admissions and accusations
    B) length of the relationship
    C) frequency and type of interaction between the persons involved in the relationship
    D) nature of the relationship
    A) personal admissions and accusations
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  110. 418.1.1 DEFINITIONS
    A unit composed of persons living together in the same dwelling, without regard to whether they are related to each other, is the definition of which of the following?
    a) family
    b) household
    c) relationship
    d) fraternization
    b) household
  111. 418.2 ENFORCEMENT GUIDELINES

    The primary duties of an officer who investigates a family violence allegation, or who responds  to a disturbance call that may involve family violence, are to do what?
    A) protect any victim of family violence and enforce the law by making lawful arrests of violators
    B) protect any potential victim of family violence and enforce the law by making legal arrests of violators.
    C) protect any possible victim of family violence and enforce the law by making lawful arrests of violators.
    D) protect any potential victim of family violence and enforce the law by making lawful arrests of violators
    D) protect any potential victim of family violence and enforce the law by making lawful arrests of violators
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  112. 418.2.1 ARREST REQUIREMENT FOR ASSAULTIVE OFFENSES

    Officers are required to make an arrest for incidents involving family violence when all of the following have occurred, except what?

    A) It is determined through the course of investigation that the most significant aggressor was also the first aggressor
    B) The assault meets the definition of "family violence" or "dating violence"
    C) An assault has occurred that resulted in a minimum of bodily injury or complaint of pain 
    D) The suspect is still on-scene
    A) It is determined through the course of investigation that the most significant aggressor was also the first aggressor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. 418.2.1 ARREST REQUIREMENT FOR ASSAULTIVE OFFENSES
    Officers shall arrest for assault by threat or assault by contact if no physical violence has occurred but circumstances reasonably show what?
    A) continued violence is likely to happen
    B) further violence is likely to happen
    C) family violence is likely to happen
    D) future violence is likely to happen
    B) further violence is likely to happen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  114. 418.2.1 ARREST REQUIREMENT FOR ASSAULTIVE OFFENSES
    Supervisors may authorize an exception to an arrest if what is present, that would lead a reasonable person to believe the alleged suspect was acting in self-defense?
    A) witness testimony
    B) articulable facts
    C) investigable facts
    D) clear evidence
    B) articulable facts
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  115. 418.2.1 ARREST REQUIREMENT FOR ASSAULTIVE OFFENSES
    In felony incidents involving family violence, except for enhancement due to a prior conviction, the on-call investigator from the Family Violence Protection Team shall be contacted by a supervisor in all the following situations except which one?

    A) When an arrest is made, prior to the suspect being transported to the jail
    B) When no arrest is made, prior to clearing the scene
    C) When the supervisor has authorized multiple arrests
    C) When the supervisor has authorized multiple arrests
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  116. 418.2.2 FAMILY VIOLENCE INVOLVING MENTAL ILLNESS
    Which of the following is NOT true about mental health protective custody and family violence arrests?
    A) It is recommended that a suspect in a family violence offense only be placed in protective custody pursuant to a POEC when sufficient psychiatric bed space is available and has been confirmed at the proper psychiatric facility by the CIT officer prior to transport.
    B) Under no condition will a suspect in protective custody pursuant to a POEC be transported to a hospital ER for a family violence offense when no psychiatric beds are available in lieu of filing criminal charges.
    C) The discretion to use a POEC rests solely with the family violence detective.
    D) A POEC may be used to remove a suspect from the scene for the purpose of a psychiatric evaluation and/or treatment in lieu of a custodial arrest.
    C) The discretion to use a POEC rests solely with the family violence detective.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  117. 418.2.3 FAMILY VIOLENCE INVOLVING JUVENILES

    Family violence incidents involving a juvenile suspect between what ages shall be enforced and reported the same way as if the suspect was an adult?
    A) 11-17 years old
    B) 10-17 years old
    C) 10-16 years old
    D) 11-16 years old
    C) 10-16 years old
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  118. 418.2.3 FAMILY VIOLENCE INVOLVING JUVENILES

    When the victim is a juvenile 14 years of age or younger and the alleged suspect is a "family member" who does have care, custody and control of the child at the time of the incident (e.g., parent, guardian, related babysitter), the incident shall be handled by which unit?

    A) homicide
    B) child abuse unit
    C) family violence unit
    D) family violence protection team
    B) child abuse unit
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  119. 418.2.3 FAMILY VIOLENCE INVOLVING JUVENILES
    An incident shall be handled by the Family Violence Protection Team in all of the following except?
    A) The victim is 12 years old and her biological father, who lives with the victim, hits her in the face, causing injury
    B) The victim is 14 years of age or younger and the alleged suspect is a "family member" who does not have care, custody and control of the child at the time of the incident 
    C) The victim is 15, 16, or 17 years of age and the alleged suspect is any "family member"
    D) The victim is 12 years of age and her 17 year old brother, who lives with the victim, hits her in the face, causing injury
    A) The victim is 12 years old and her biological father, who lives with the victim, hits her in the face, causing injury
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  120. 418.2.6 CONTINUOUS FAMILY VIOLENCE

    The determination of whether to file the continuous violence against family charge shall be at the discretion of whom?
    A) the supervisor on scene
    B) family violence protection team
    C) arrest review
    D) the arresting officer
    C) arrest review
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  121. 418.3.1 ASSAULT VICTIM STATEMENT

    An Assault Victim Statement (AVS) form shall be completed on every incident involving family violence, regardless of whether an arrest is made. This includes, but is not limited to, all the following offenses except:

    A) Any assault offense involving family violence
    B) Stalking
    C) Interference with emergency telephone call
    D) Harassment
    E) Robbery
    E) Robbery
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  122. 418.3.2 VICTIM INFORMATION

    Victims who express a desire to drop charges should be referred to whom?
    A) county attorney
    B) district attorney
    C) victim services
    D) family violence protection team
    C) victim services
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  123. 418.3.2 VICTIM INFORMATION

    Victims with additional questions should be referred to whom?
    A) county attorney
    B) victim services
    C) the family violence protection team
    D) district attorney
    C) the family violence protection team
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  124. 418.4 EMERGENCY PROTECTIVE ORDERS

    Officers shall file a motion for an EPO on the victim's behalf in all the following situations except which?

    A) all felony family violence arrests, including felony enhancements.
    B) all other family violence arrests when the victim wishes to have an EPO filed
    C) all misdemeanor family violence arrests if the suspect and victim are members of the same household.
    D) all other family violence arrests when the victim is unable or refuses to file and the officer has sufficient reason to believe it is imperative to the safety of the victim to file an EPO.
    C) all misdemeanor family violence arrests if the suspect and victim are members of the same household.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  125. 418.5 CIVIL STANDBY

    When requested to conduct a standby, officers shall be sure to do all of the following except:

    A)Advise the complainant that only minor belongings needed for the immediate future should be taken (e.g., clothing, child items, toiletries)
    B) Review all presented court documents to ascertain ownership of household items, or to settle child custody issues.
    C) Check to see if the complainant has a protective order against him for the requested address. 
    D) Advise the complainant that the determination of property ownership is not the officer's responsibility. 
    B) Review all presented court documents to ascertain ownership of household items, or to settle child custody issues.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  126. 418.5 CIVIL STANDBY
    All of the following is true of the final disposition and reporting requirements of a civil standby, except:
    A) Officers are encouraged to include notes in the call log summarizing the incident and whether the complainant needs to return for more belongings
    B) Officers shall complete a supplement to the original incident report if a disturbance occurs as a result of a previously reported family disturbance.
    C) The incident may be cleared as a civil issue without an incident report as long as no disturbance occurs
    D) Officers shall complete an incident report if a disturbance occurs
    B) Officers shall complete a supplement to the original incident report if a disturbance occurs as a result of a previously reported family disturbance.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  127. 419.2.1 EMERGENCY PROTECTIVE ORDERS
    An EPO may be issued on the magistrate's own motion, or on request of whom?
    A) the victim, the parent of the victim, a peace officer, or the attorney representing the State
    B) the victim, the guardian of the victim, a peace officer, or the attorney representing the State
    C) the victim, the guardian of the victim, a peace officer, or the family violence protection team
    D) the victim, the guardian of the victim, a peace officer, or the attorney representing the County
    B) the victim, the guardian of the victim, a peace officer, or the attorney representing the State
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  128. 419.2.1 EMERGENCY PROTECTIVE ORDERS
    An EPO may be effective for a period between 31-61 days, or
    A) between 61-91 days if the suspect used or threatened the use of a deadly weapon during the assault
    B) between 61-91 days if the suspect used or exhibited a deadly weapon during the assault
    C) between 61-91 days if the suspect has a prior conviction for family violence
    D) between 61-91 days if the suspect has been previously convicted of continuing family violence
    B) between 61-91 days if the suspect used or exhibited a deadly weapon during the assault
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  129. 419.2.2 TEMPORARY EX-PARTE ORDERS

    Temporary ex-parte orders may be effective for a period not to exceed:
    A) 60 days
    B) 30 days 
    C) 45 days
    D) 20 days
    D) 20 days
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  130. 419.2.3 FINAL PROTECTIVE ORDERS

    Final protective orders issued by a court may be effective for a period not to exceed two years.  If a period is not stated in the order, it is effective until the second anniversary of the date the order was issued.  If the respondent is in prison on the date the protective order is set to expire, the expiration date is:

    A) extended for no more than two years from the date the respondent is released
    B) extended for no more than one year from the date the respondent is released
    C) extended for one year from the date the respondent is released
    D) extended for two years from the date the respondent is released
    C) extended for one year from the date the respondent is released
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  131. 419.3   ENFORCEMENT PROCEDURES

    All of the court orders listed below are enforceable by law enforcement except:

    A) Final protective orders.
    B) Certain bail conditions.
    C) Certain bond conditions.
    D) Valid out-of-state and tribal court protective orders
    E) Temporary ex-parte orders after they have been served to the person named in the order.
    F) Emergency protective orders.
    B) Certain bail conditions.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  132. 419.3.1 VERIFICATION OF ORDER

    Which protection orders must have been served prior to enforcement action in order for them to be valid?
    A) tribal court protective orders
    B) emergency protective orders
    C) final protective orders
    D) temporary ex-parte
    D) temporary ex-parte
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  133. 420.2 INVESTIGATION CONSIDERATIONS

    Officers should not interview a victim ____ of age or younger; these interviews shall be done by an investigator from the appropriate Investigative Unit.
    A) 12 years
    B) 13 years
    C) 11 years
    D) 10 years
    A) 12 years
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  134. 420.2.2 INVESTIGATIVE UNIT RESPONSIBILITY
    When conducting a preliminary investigation of an alleged sexual assault, officers shall contact the appropriate Investigative Unit for assistance:

    A) Child Abuse Unit - If the victim is 14 years of age or younger or Sex Crimes Unit - If the victim is 15 years of age or older
    B) Child Abuse Unit - If the victim is 15 years of age or younger or Sex Crimes Unit - If the victim is 16 years of age or older
    C) Child Abuse Unit - If the victim is 17 years of age or younger or Sex Crimes Unit - If the victim is 18 years of age or older
    D) Child Abuse Unit - If the victim is 16 years of age or younger or Sex Crimes Unit - If the victim is 17 years of age or older
    D) Child Abuse Unit - If the victim is 16 years of age or younger or Sex Crimes Unit - If the victim is 17 years of age or older
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  135. 420.3 SEXUAL ASSAULT FORENSIC EXAM INFORMATION

    Generally, exams shall be approved if the incident occurred within what timeframe? However, if a sexual assault is not reported within this time frame, the Investigative Unit may still authorize a medical examination.
    A) 48 hours
    B) 72 hours
    C) 96 hours
    D) 120 hours
    D) 120 hours
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  136. 420.3.1 PREFERRED HOSPITAL FOR FORENSIC EXAM

    The gender and age of the victim shall determine the preferred hospital for the examination. Which is correct about the preferred patient for Dell Children's Hospital?
    A) Males under the age of 12 and Females under the age of 14
    B) Males under the age of 14 and Females who have not started their menstrual cycle
    C) Males under the age of 12 and Females under the age of 13
    D) Males under the age of 12 and Females who have not started their menstrual cycle
    D) Males under the age of 12 and Females who have not started their menstrual cycle
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  137. 424.2 DEFINITIONS (CHILD ABUSE)

    For purposes of this section the following definitions are provided:

    "Child" is defined as what age?(Tex. Fam. Code § 101.003).

    A) 17 years of age and under
    B) under 17 years of age
    C) 18 years of age and under
    D) under 18 years of age
    D) under 18 years of age
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  138. 426.1.1   DEFINITIONS

    Missing Person - A person 18 years of age or older who cannot be located and the circumstances surrounding the disappearance are:
    A) suspicious
    B) in question
    C) not known
    D) unknown
    D) unknown
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  139. 426.1 PURPOSE AND SCOPE (Missing Persons)

    For purposes of federal law, a child is considered any person:
    A) under 18 years of age
    B) 18 years of age and under
    C) 21 years of age and under
    D) under 21 years of age
    D) under 21 years of age
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  140. 426.1.1   DEFINITIONS


    High-Risk Missing Person - A person who is missing is described as all the following except:

    A) the child did not voluntarily leave the care and control of the custodian, and the taking of the child was not authorized by law.
    B) under suspicious or unknown circumstances
    C) less than 30 days if there is reason to believe that the child or person is in danger of injury or death
    D) as a result of an abduction by a stranger
    E) more than 30 days
    A) the child did not voluntarily leave the care and control of the custodian, and the taking of the child was not authorized by law.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  141. 426.2 INVESTIGATIONS GUIDELINES

    Upon arrival to a missing person call, officers shall attempt to obtain the following items and forward them to the Missing Persons Unit:
    1. A color photograph of the person.
    2. A birth certificate if the child is ____:

    A) under 12 years of age
    B) under 11 years of age
    C) under 14 years of age
    D) under 13 years of age
    B) under 11 years of age
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  142. 426.2 INVESTIGATIONS GUIDELINES
    Upon arrival to a missing person call, officers shall identify the missing person's ____ to determine how far the individual could travel from the location before he would most likely be at risk of injury or exploitation.

    A) zone of comfort
    B) zone of travel
    C) zone of safety
    D) zone of residence
    C) zone of safety
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  143. 426.2.1   SPECIAL CIRCUMSTANCES

    Officers will contact their supervisor if the missing individual is a child:
    A) under age 12
    B) 14 years of age and under
    C) under age 14
    D) 12 years of age and under
    A) under age 12
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  144. 426.3.2 COMMUNICATIONS NOTIFICATION

    Communications will enter missing person's information into NCIC at the time the report is taken if the disappearance involves:
    A) any person under the age of 21
    B) a missing child
    C) a missing adult over the age of 65
    D) suspicious circumstances
    C) a missing adult over the age of 65
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  145. 426.5   MISSING PERSONS LOCATED

    Officers shall not divulge the location of a located person ____ if the located person requests his location not be disclosed to anyone unless there is a court order that places that person in the care and custody of another.
    A) 17 years of age or older
    B) over 21 years of age
    C) 18 years of age or older
    D) 21 years of age or older
    C) 18 years of age or older
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  146. 434.3 REPORTABLE AND NON-REPORTABLE NATURAL DEATHS

    Any death of a child ____ is a reportable death and investigated by the Homicide Unit and reviewed by the Travis County Child Fatality Review Team.
    A) 21 and under
    B) 18 and under
    C) 17 and under
    D) 16 and under
    C) 17 and under
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  147. 435.3.1 STOLEN VEHICLE REPORT

    Auto Theft affidavits shall be scanned into which Xerox Workflow Scanning folder by the end of an officer's tour of duty?
    A) auto theft unit
    B) ATIP
    C) auto theft affidavit
    D) auto theft
    C) auto theft affidavit
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  148. 435.3.2 RECOVERING STOLEN VEHICLES

    If the vehicle was originally reported stolen to another law enforcement agency, the responding officer will generate a new incident report titled ____. The originating agency case number should be documented in the narrative.
    A) UUMV
    B) OOC Auto Theft
    C) Auto Theft Information
    D) Auto Theft
    B) OOC Auto Theft
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  149. 436.3 INFORMATION (Identity Theft)

    The victim should also contact ____, which is responsible for receiving and processing complaints under the Identity Theft and Assumption Deterrence Act.
    A) the Secret Service
    B) the Social Security Administration
    C) the Department of Homeland Security
    D) the Federal Trade Commission
    D) the Federal Trade Commission
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  150. 437.3.1 CRIMINAL TRESPASS NOTICE

    If the notice is to be temporary and the suspect leaves when told to do so by the owner/agent, the officer will title the report ____ and document that the notice was temporary and should not be considered a permanent (e.g., up to one year) notice.
    A) Criminal Trespass Information
    B) Disturbance Other
    C) Criminal Trespass
    D) Assist Complainant
    D) Assist Complainant
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  151. 445.4.1 VOLUNTARY COMMITMENT

    Employees encountering persons desiring to be voluntarily committed to a mental health facility and that meet the criteria for an Emergency Detention shall contact an on-duty CIT officer. If the subject does not meet the criteria for an Emergency Detention the officer may do any one of the following EXCEPT:
    A) Provide voluntary transport to a facility within the located county
    B) Complete an incident report titled Emotionally Disturbed Person
    C) Provide referral information
    D) Request EMCOT 
    B) Complete an incident report titled Emotionally Disturbed Person
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  152. 445.6 ARRESTS OF MENTALLY ILL PERSONS

    An arrest shall be made in lieu of a POED under all of the following circumstances EXCEPT:
    A) felony offense
    B) DWI offense
    C) any theft where the property is not recovered
    D) family violence offense
    C) any theft where the property is not recovered
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  153. 445.6 ARRESTS OF MENTALLY ILL PERSONS
    If a suspected mentally ill person is placed in jail, officers shall do all the following EXCEPT:
    A) advise the intake officers
    B) advise Psychiatric Emergency Services for follow up
    C) bring the person to the jail nurse
    D) complete all paperwork required by Travis County 
    B) advise Psychiatric Emergency Services for follow up
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  154. 455.7 ALIAS AUTHORIZATION

    Employees seeking authorization to use an online alias must be approved by their supervisor. The supervisor must evaluate the request to determine whether an online alias would serve a valid law enforcement purpose. The supervisor must maintain the requests for online alias and their status (approved/denied) for ____ from the date of deactivation of the online alias.
    A) one year
    B) two years
    C) 18 months
    D) 6 months
    B) two years
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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Author:
apple2016
ID:
333934
Filename:
Policy 400 2017 Exam
Updated:
2017-11-29 22:37:24
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policy
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Description:
Policy 400 2017 Exam
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