KC-10 MQF (Questions 201-275)

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  1. 201. The PF will announce to the crew whenever the AP/ATS is disengaged for any reason. This will be acknowledged by the __________.

    A. PNF and FE
    B. PNF and BO
    C. FE and BO
    D. all crewmembers in the cockpit
    • Answer: A
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [4-86 (C)]
  2. 202. If takeoff power is not set by 80 knots, __________.

    A. charted takeoff performance may not be achieved
    B. advance throttles to go around power
    C. advance throttles to the stops
    D. both A and B
    • Answer: A
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [4-75 (W)]
  3. 203. When using the FMS for navigation, __________.

    A. crosscheck information with traditional ground-based NAVAIDS in the terminal area when available
    B. it may be used as the sole-source of navigation information for all arrival, approach and departure procedures extracted from the aircraft database
    C. arrival, approach and departure procedures must be flown as extracted, with no additions, changes or deletions from the aircrew
    D. all of the above
    • Answer: D
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [4-85 (N)]
  4. 204. When climbing with ___________, the engines may overboost if the throttles are not adjusted for lapse rate temperature deviation.

    A. autothrottles on
    B. autothrottles off
    C. autopilots on
    D. autopilots off
    • Answer: B
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [4-86 (C)]
  5. 205. The autopilot will not be used during high rates of climb (more than _____ fpm) or high rates of descent (more than _____ fpm).

    A. 8000; 10000
    B. 7000; 9000
    C. 4000; 8000
    D. 3000; 5000
    • Answer: C
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [4-91 (C)]
  6. 206. An autopilot lever engaged in ________ will not drop to OFF if the respective hydraulic System fails (climb, cruise, descent).

    A. CMD
    B. MAN
    C. TURB
    D. SPD
    • Answer: A
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [4-91 (C)]
  7. 207. When immediate visual reference to the surrounding terrain is not available, GPWS warning requires __________.

    A. verifying aircraft altitude on radar altimeter
    B. verifying validity of the warning
    C. identifying aircraft configuration
    D. prompt and decisive action
    • Answer: D
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [4-94 (W)]
  8. 208. Regarding GPWS activation when immediate visual reference to the surrounding terrain is not available, _____________ short duration warnings.

    A. query ATC about
    B. do not ignore
    C. examine the low charts during
    D. attempt to verify the validity of
    • Answer: B
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [4-94 (W)]
  9. 209. If GPWS activation is caused when another aircraft flies directly under the KC-10 during air refueling or formation flight, the crew must ____________.

    A. take quick and decisive action
    B. perform an immediate and aggressive escape maneuver
    C. use available resources to ascertain the situation and take appropriate action
    D. climb 1,000 ft to the top of the block
    • Answer: C
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [4-95 (W)]
  10. 210. After one pilot states "I am on the FMS," ______________ by the other pilot is required.

    A. nothing
    B. acknowledgement
    C. You have it
    D. Roger
    • Answer: B
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [5-4 (W)]
  11. 211. While flying an approach, __________.

    A. consider executing a go around/missed approach any time an EGPWS windshear warning is annunciated
    B. execute a go around/missed approach if an EGPWS windshear warning is annunciated below 500 feet AGL
    C. execute a go around/missed approach if an EGPWS windshear caution is annunciated below 500 feet AGL
    D. both A and B
    • Answer: D
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [4-98 (W)];[7-26 (W)]
  12. 212. Normally, do not exceed __________ descent when below 2000 feet AGL.

    A. 1000 FPM
    B. 1500 FPM
    C. 2000 FPM
    D. 2500 FPM
    • Answer: C
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [4-99 (N)]
  13. 213. Below __________, the aircraft should be stabilized on the approach in landing configuration.

    A. 500 ft AGL
    B. 500 ft PA
    C. 1,000 ft AGL
    D. 1,000 ft PA
    • Answer: C
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [4-99 (W)]
  14. 214. Missed approach is not recommended if fuel in any main tank is ______ pounds or less.

    A. 1,500
    B. 2,000
    C. 2,500
    D. 3,000
    • Answer: A
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [4-103 (W)]
  15. 215. Do not select GA on the thrust computer indicator until __________ feet pressure altitude.

    A. above 14,000
    B. below 14,000
    C. above 18,000
    D. below 18,000
    • Answer: B
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [4-103 (C)]
  16. 216. Initiate a missed approach/go around if the aircraft is not stabilized on the approach, in final landing configuration, no later than __________ on a precision approach.

    A. DH
    B. MDA
    C. HAT
    D. HAA
    • Answer: A
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [4-106 (W)]
  17. 217. Initiate a missed approach/go around if the aircraft is not stabilized on the approach, in final landing configuration, no later than __________ on a non-precision approach.

    A. MAP
    B. VDP
    C. HAT
    D. HAA
    • Answer: A
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [4-106 (W)]
  18. 218. Initiate a missed approach/go around if the aircraft is not stabilized on the approach, in final landing configuration, no later than __________ feet on a visual/circling approach.

    A. 100
    B. 200
    C. 300
    D. 400
    • Answer: C
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [4-106 (W)]
  19. 219. Do not land prior to an approach end cable that has been reported as ________. Do not land on any cable. Damage to aircraft or cable can occur.

    A. raised
    B. secured
    C. under repair
    D. slack or loose
    • Answer: D
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [4-106 (C)]
  20. 220. If landing approach is made in icing conditions or landing is made with snow or slush on runway, move FLAP/SLAT handle to __________.

    A. 50°/EXT
    B. 35°/EXT
    C. 22°/EXT
    D. 0°/EXT
    • Answer: C
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [4-110 (C)]
  21. 221. During a touch and go landing, when the throttles are advanced the takeoff warning horn may sound momentarily, __________.

    A. the pilot in command will call for an abort
    B. the pilot in command should consider aborting
    C. the pilot in command should confirm that everything is correctly positioned and advise the crew
    D. the pilot not fly should reset the flaps to 15°/EXT and the flight engineer should recycle the spoiler handle to 2/3 then back to RET
    • Answer: C
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [4-122 (N)]
  22. 222. In an upset situation, excessive use of __________ may aggravate an upset situation or may result in loss of control and/or high structural loads.

    A. pitch trim
    B. rudder
    C. aileron trim
    D. both A and B
    • Answer: D
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [6-6 (W)]
  23. 223. If sustained slat oscillation cannot be eliminated __________.

    A. accelerate to an airspeed that permits slats to be retracted
    B. continued operation is permitted for mission accomplishment
    C. no AFTO FORM 781 write-up is required
    D. land at the nearest suitable airfield
    • Answer: A
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [6-12 (C)]
  24. 224. When operating in continuous icing conditions, takeoff must be made as soon as possible after the application of deicing/anti-icing fluid. Regardless of the type of fluid used, a visual inspection must be made immediately prior to takeoff (within 5 minutes). This inspection should be __________.

    A. made by tower
    B. annotated in the aircraft forms
    C. an external inspection performed by qualified personnel
    D. made using 1L or 1R doors
    • Answer: C
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [7-4 (W)]
  25. 225. Ice, snow, or frost, must be removed from the __________ prior to takeoff, except as otherwise authorized by TO 1C-10(K)A-1, section 7.

    A. wings and flight controls only
    B. wings, flight controls, and tail surfaces only
    C. wings, flight controls, tail surfaces and the refueling boom only
    D. wings, flight controls, tail surfaces, refueling boom, and fuselage
    • Answer: D
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [7-5 (W)]
  26. 226. Any accumulation of snow, slush, or ice in the cavity areas forward of flight control surfaces, or on the wing leading edge behind the slat structures, __________.

    A. creates no significant hazard
    B. must be removed prior to takeoff
    C. should be removed if in contact with the control linkage
    D. must be removed prior to powering up hydraulic systems
    • Answer: D
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [7-5 (C)]
  27. 227. Extreme cold (below -45°F for 6 hours or more) or light snow, ice, or frost deposits may compromise certain aspects of the aircrafts _____________ and safety equipment.

    A. fire detection
    B. communications
    C. emergency escape
    D. temperature control
    • Answer: C
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [7-6 (W)]
  28. 228. In cold weather, make sure all instruments have warmed up ___________.

    A. sufficiently to ensure normal operations
    B. for 3 minutes prior to takeoff
    C. prior to starting the engines
    D. prior to initiating taxi
    • Answer: A
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [7-8 (W)]
  29. 229. For taxi and takeoff on contaminated surfaces, CG should be __________.

    A. 23% MAC or more
    B. 23% MAC or less
    C. 32% MAC or more
    D. 32% MAC or less
    • Answer: B
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [7-9 (N)]; [7-11 (N)]
  30. 230. During takeoffs on a slippery runway, __________.

    A. apply some nose down elevator to improve the steering characteristics of the nose gear
    B. do not use differential thrust
    C. maintain heading using small rudder pedal steering inputs
    D. all of the above
    • Answer: D
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [7-11 (C)]
  31. 231. Nose gear steering of ____ or more may cause the nose gear to slip on the icy (wet) runway.

    A. 3°
    B. 5°
    C. 10°
    D. 11°
    • Answer: A
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [7-11 (C)]
  32. 232. Takeoffs shall not be attempted with over __________ inch(es) of wet snow, slush and/or water on the runway.

    A. 1/4
    B. 1/2
    C. 1
    D. 4
    • Answer: B
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [7-12 (W)]
  33. 233. Takeoffs shall not be attempted with over _________ inch(es) of dry snow on the runway.

    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4
    • Answer: D
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [7-12 (W)]
  34. 234. If anti-icing is inoperative, climb or descend to an altitude where the TAT is warmer than +6°C or colder than _______ °C. If possible, avoid clouds where the TAT is between 0° and -20°C. Fly above _________ KTAS.

    A. -10; 450
    B. -15; 400
    C. -20; 400
    D. -32; 450
    • Answer: C
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [7-13 (C)]
  35. 235. After encountering conditions favorable to induction icing for an extended period of time, __________.

    A. accomplish ice shedding procedures
    B. advance throttles slowly to MCT then back to cruise setting
    C. make a 781A entry
    D. recycle engine anti-ice switches to ensure proper operation
    • Answer: C
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [7-13]
  36. 236. If approach or landing was made through icing conditions or if the runway was covered by slush or snow, retract flaps to __________ during taxi in. Damage to the flaps/slats could occur if ice is presents and flaps/slats are fully retracted.

    A. 0°
    B. 15°
    C. 22°
    D. 25°
    • Answer: C
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [7-15]
  37. 237. In heavy rain the PF should remain on instruments ______________.

    A. unless visual contact is made with the airfield
    B. unless the rain repellent is working
    C. until the other pilot sees the runway
    D. until reaching minimums for the approach
    • Answer: D
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [7-16 (W)]
  38. 238. If encountering severe turbulence, target airspeed is within the range of __________.

    A. 290-310 KIAS or 0.80-0.85, whichever is lower
    B. 290-310 KIAS or 0.80-0.85, whichever is higher
    C. 250-270 KIAS or 0.75-0.80, whichever is lower
    D. 250-270 KIAS or 0.75-0.80, whichever is higher
    • Answer: A
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [7-22, 7-23]
  39. 239. When windshear conditions exist or are forecasted, __________ .

    A. takeoff will not be attempted
    B. takeoff should not be attempted
    C. apply Takeoff Into Suspected Windshear procedures
    D. do not apply "Takeoff Into Suspected Windshear" procedures
    • Answer: C
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [7-25 (W)]
  40. 240. Takeoff will not be attempted when __________.

    A. Severe loss shear conditions exist or are forecast at or below 2000 feet AGL or windshear conditions are associated with convective activity
    B. Severe gain shear conditions exist or are forecast at or below 2000 feet AGL
    C. Winds exceed 50 knots
    D. all of the above
    • Answer: A
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [7-25 (W)]
  41. 241. During the maximum performance maneuver, increase pitch ___________.

    A. at 3 degrees per second to 21 degrees
    B. immediately to the stick shaker
    C. as required to control vertical speed and altitude
    D. at 3 degrees per second to 15 degrees
    • Answer: C
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [7-25 (N)]
  42. 242. FMS wind information may be erroneous below a TAS of _________.

    A. 120 knots
    B. 140 IAS
    C. 130 knots
    D. 107 knots
    • Answer: C
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [7-26 (N)]
  43. 243. In windshear conditions, ____________ or impact with the ground will occur.

    A. increase pitch until encountering buffet onset
    B. disregard GPWS warning activation
    C. do not exceed go-around power
    D. disregard the flight director command bars
    • Answer: D
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [7-26 (W)]
  44. 244. If an IAS speed margin in excess of VAPP +________ knots is required to maintain reference ground speed during an approach with wind shear conditions suspected, serious consideration should be given to not attempting the approach. If this margin is still required below _________ feet, discontinue the approach.

    A. 10; 200
    B. 20; 200
    C. 20; 500
    D. 10; 500
    • Answer: C
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1
    • Page/Para: [7-26 (W)]
  45. 245. To compute minimum air refueling speed, add __________ knots without wing air refueling pods or __________ knots with wing air refueling pods installed to the _________ speed.

    A. 10; 20; stick shaker
    B. 5; 10; stick shaker
    C. 10; 20; 1.2G buffet
    D. 5; 10; 1.2G buffet
    • Answer: D
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1-1
    • Page/Para: [1-14]
  46. 246. Landings or unplanned go-arounds are allowed at outside temperatures up to a maximum of __________.

    A. 40°C
    B. 45°C
    C. 50°C
    D. 55°C
    • Answer: D
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1-1
    • Page/Para: [2-3 (N)]
  47. 247. Takeoff thrust set between 40 and 80 knots may not be used higher than __________ feet pressure height above the airfield pressure altitude.

    A. 1,000
    B. 2,000
    C. 3,000
    D. 4,000
    • Answer: B
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1-1
    • Page/Para: [2-5 (C)]
  48. 248. The all engine climb gradient data ___________ to determine obstacle clearance capabilities.

    A. may be used
    B. will be used
    C. will not be used
    D. must be used
    • Answer: C
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1-1
    • Page/Para: [3-6 (W)]
  49. 249. Takeoff data presented in TO 1C-10(K)A-1-1 is for pressure altitudes from ________ feet.

    A. SL to 8,000
    B. SL to 14,000
    C. -1,000 to 8,000
    D. -1,000 to 14,000
    • Answer: D
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1-1
    • Page/Para: [3-8 (W)]
  50. 250. The environmental envelope of the airplane extends from __________.

    A. -54°C to 50°C
    B. -54°C to 40°C
    C. -54°C to 50°C, not to exceed Standard Day +40°C
    D. -54°C to 40°C, not to exceed Standard Day +50°C
    • Answer: C
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1-1
    • Page/Para: [3-8 (W)]
  51. 251. If the crosswind component exceeds __________ knots on a dry runway, takeoff will not be attempted.

    A. 31
    B. 21
    C. 11
    D. 45
    • Answer: A
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1-1
    • Page/Para: [3-8 (W)]
  52. 252. If the wind direction is greater than __________ from the runway heading, the crosswind component affects the number 2 engine inlet airflow characteristics requiring that a rolling takeoff be made.

    A. 10°
    B. 23°
    C. 31°
    D. 45°
    • Answer: D
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1-1
    • Page/Para: [3-8 (C)]
  53. 253. When the crosswind component exceeds ________ knots, the crosswind component affects the number 2 engine inlet airflow characteristics requiring that a rolling takeoff be made.

    A. 23
    B. 31
    C. 45
    D. 10
    • Answer: A
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1-1
    • Page/Para: [3-8 (C)]
  54. 254. The takeoff profile for obstacle clearance and climb gradient is based on maintaining the computed climb speed. Therefore, the __________ is the primary instrument for takeoff guidance.

    A. vertical speed indicator
    B. airspeed indicator
    C. flight director
    D. horizontal Situation Indicator
    • Answer: B
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1-1
    • Page/Para: [3-12 (C)]
  55. 255. The climbout flightpath is calculated assuming gear retraction is initiated __________ second(s) after liftoff and completed 10.5 seconds later.

    A. one
    B. two
    C. three
    D. four
    • Answer: C
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1-1
    • Page/Para: [3-11]
  56. 256. Reduced thrust usage is not permitted if RCR value is __________ .

    A. 10 or below
    B. less than 10
    C. 14 or below
    D. less than 14
    • Answer: B
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1-1
    • Page/Para: [3-15 (W)]
  57. 257. Reduced thrust usage is not permitted if:

    A. RSC is used for TOLD computations
    B. Tailwinds are used for mission accomplishment
    C. The anti-skid braking system or one main gear wheel brake is inoperative
    D. Both A and C
    • Answer: D
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1-1
    • Page/Para: [3-15 (W)]
  58. 258. Takeoff into suspected windshear will not be attempted unless the charted performance limiting VR exceeds the charted actual weight VR by at least ______ knots.

    A. 10
    B. 15
    C. 20
    D. 25
    • Answer: A
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1-1
    • Page/Para: [3-23 (W)]
  59. 259. When air refueling the KC-10 to inflight maximum gross weight, the planned air refueling altitude will be no higher than the pressure altitude of _____________ feet.

    A. 2,000
    B. 25,000
    C. 25,500
    D. 31,000
    • Answer: C
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1-1
    • Page/Para: [7-2 (C)]
  60. 260. A-10 A/R with KC-10 gross weight above ____________ is not recommended due to A-10power limitations.

    A. 540,000 lbs
    B. 556,000 lbs
    C. 436,000 lbs
    D. 575,000 lbs
    • Answer: A
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1-1
    • Page/Para: [7-7]
  61. 261. The pressure altitude of _________ feet should be used as the base planning altitude for receiver air refueling. Altitudes up to _________ feet below optimum altitude for gross weight at the end of air refueling may be used. In no case will air refueling be planned above a pressure altitude of __________ feet.

    A. 20,000; 1000; 25,000
    B. 25,500; 1000; 31,000
    C. 25,000; 2000; 31,000
    D. 41,000; 2000; 42,000
    • Answer: C
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1-1
    • Page/Para: [7-2 (C)]
  62. 262. The landing gear may only be extended at speeds below ________ knots. When the gear is down, the aircraft may be accelerated to _________ knots.

    A. 270; 350
    B. 260; 350
    C. 260; 300
    D. 300; 260
    • Answer: C
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1-1
    • Page/Para: [8-2 (C)]
  63. 263. For takeoff or landing, when runway conditions are not clearly defined, it is recommended that __________.

    A. the takeoff or landing not be attempted
    B. a visual inspection be made by the aircraft commander
    C. a conservative RCR be used
    D. takeoff or landing be delayed until a RCR can be determined
    • Answer: C
    • Reference: 1C-10(K)A-1-1
    • Page/Para: [3-10 and 9-4]
  64. 264. Aircrew members shall not be scheduled to fly nor will they perform aircrew duties while under the influence of alcohol or within ________ hours of consuming alcoholic beverages, based on ____________________.

    A. 10; bus time
    B. 10; scheduled takeoff
    C. 12; bus time
    D. 12; scheduled takeoff
    • Answer: D
    • Reference: AFI 11-2KC10 Vol 3
    • Page/Para: [3.8.2]
  65. 265. Do not enter aircrew members into crew rest __________.

    A. 45 minutes after landing
    B. until they complete official post-flight duties
    C. 45 minutes after final engine shut down
    D. until 1 hour after engine shutdown
    • Answer: B
    • Reference: AFI 11-2KC10 Vol 3
    • Page/Para: [3.10.2.2]
  66. 266. Both pilots will monitor _________ emergency frequencie(s) to the maximum extent possible. Exception: Only one crewmember is required to monitor guard frequencie(s) during __________.

    A. AMC; formation flights
    B. VHF guard; formation flights
    C. UHF guard; tanker or receiver rendezvous and AR
    D. UHF and VHF guard; tanker or receiver rendezvous and AR
    • Answer: D
    • Reference: AFI 11-2KC10 Vol 3
    • Page/Para: [5.12.3.5]
  67. 267. Without wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least _______ feet. With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least __________ feet.

    A. 20, 5
    B. 15, 10
    C. 25, 10
    D. 15, 5
    • Answer: C
    • Reference: AFI 11-2KC10 Vol 3
    • Page/Para: [5.16.1]
  68. 268. When filing to a remote or island destination, aircrews may use an additional __________ holding fuel (in lieu of an alternate).

    A. 1 hour + 15 minutes
    B. 2 hours
    C. 30 minutes
    D. 45 minutes
    • Answer: A
    • Reference: AFI 11-2KC10 Vol 3
    • Page/Para: [6.20.3]
  69. 269. Flight into areas of ________________ is prohibited.

    A. known or forecast moderate or greater mountain wave turbulence
    B. forecast or reported severe icing
    C. forecast or reported severe turbulence
    D. all of the above
    • Answer: D
    • Reference: AFI 11-2KC10 Vol 3
    • Page/Para: [6.21.1, 6.21.2, 6.21.8]
  70. 270. If unable to vertically clear thunderstorms or cumulonimbus clouds by at least _______ feet, avoid them by at least _______NMs at or above flight level FL230, or _______NMs below FL230.

    A. 2000; 10; 5
    B. 5000; 15; 10
    C. 2000; 20; 10
    D. 5000; 30; 15
    • Answer: C
    • Reference: AFI 11-2KC10 Vol 3
    • Page/Para: [6.21.3]
  71. 271. If involved in a mishap or incident, pull the CVR power circuit breaker _________.

    A. immediately after terminating the emergency
    B. after landing
    C. after landing and terminating the emergency
    D. never
    • Answer: C
    • Reference: AFI 11-2KC10 Vol 3
    • Page/Para: [6.49]
  72. 272. When operating in RVSM airspace, aircrews will limit climb and descent rates to ________ when operating near other aircraft to reduce potential TCAS advisories.

    A. 500 fpm
    B. 750 fpm
    C. 1,000 fpm
    D. 1,500 fpm
    • Answer: C
    • Reference: AFI 11-2KC10 Vol 3
    • Page/Para: [11.4.1.5]
  73. 273. Reverse air refueling into a KC-135 is only permitted __________.

    A. for operational necessity
    B. IAW FTU syllabus training requirements
    C. in an emergency
    D. all of the above
    • Answer: D
    • Reference: AFI 11-2KC10 Vol 3
    • Page/Para: [15.2.6.1]
  74. 274. During a VMC position change, the new leader will decelerate to briefed airspeed when _______________.

    A. abeam the old lead
    B. when given the lead
    C. the new wingman notifies the new lead they are approaching position in-trail and confirms they are at the assigned altitude (500 ft altitude separation required).
    D. none of the above
    • Answer: C
    • Reference: AFI 11-2KC10 Vol 3
    • Page/Para: [18.9.5.3]
  75. 275. During an IMC position change the maneuvering aircraft or element will echelon (normally right) using approximately __________.

    A. 30 degrees of bank and turning 30 degrees from formation heading
    B. 15 degrees of bank and turning 15 degrees from formation heading
    C. 30 degrees of bank for 30 seconds
    D. 15 degrees of bank for 15 seconds
    • Answer: A
    • Reference: AFI 11-2KC10 Vol 3
    • Page/Para: [18.9.6.1]

Card Set Information

Author:
PokerPilot
ID:
334768
Filename:
KC-10 MQF (Questions 201-275)
Updated:
2017-10-03 14:17:18
Tags:
KC 10 MQF pilot tanker refueling
Folders:

Description:
Just the last 75 cards...Use other file for the full MQF. Jun 2009 KC-10 Pilot MQF (current MQF a/o 25 Feb 2017). Lt Col Vince Livie
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