Introduction to Pathology

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Bilon
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33501
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Introduction to Pathology
Updated:
2010-09-11 20:27:30
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Pathology
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Chapter 1 and 2, Radiographic Pathology
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  1. The accumulation of abnormal amounts of fluid in the spaces between cells or in body cavities is termed:
    Edema:
  2. What is the process by which white blood cells surround and digest infectios organisms?:
    Phagocytosis:
  3. A tumorlike scar is referred to as a:
    Keyloid:
  4. Inflammation with pus formation is termed:
    Suppurative:
  5. An interruption in the blood supply to an organ or body part is referred to as:
    Ischemia:
  6. A localized area of ischemic necrosis in an organ or tissue is termed:
    Infarct:
  7. A swelling caused by bleeding into an enclosed area is termed:
    Hematoma:
  8. A decrease in function of an organ or tissue because of a reducction in the size or number of cells is termed:
    Atrophy:
  9. Term meaning new growth:
    Neoplasia:
  10. The term for benign epithelial neoplasms that have a glandlike pattern is:
    Adenoma:
  11. Ultrasound depends on the echo of the high-frequency sound waves produce by the transducer. Tissue that produces a strong reflection is known as:
    Hyperechoic or Echogenic:
  12. Ultrasound is limited by acoustic barriers such as:
    Air and Bone:
  13. The modality that views tissue from multiple angles using narrow x-ray beam is:
    CT:
  14. The CT technique using continuous scanning while the table moves the patient through the gantry is:
    Helical Scanning:
  15. Currently, the term multidetector CT indicates:
    8-64 detector array:
  16. To create an image in MRI, the technology depends on:
    Hydrogen atoms and their response to radiofrequency pulses:
  17. Multiple-pulse sequences may be required to illustrate pathophysiologic changes. Examples of MRI pulse sequences are:
    T1 and T2 weighted images:
  18. Nuclear medicine and SPECT imaging rely on scintillation cameras to detect:
    Gamma Rays:
  19. PET imaging is especially useful to evaluate:
    Preradiation and postradiation or chemotherapy:
  20. Hybrid imaging equipment combines:
    Two modalities simultaneously producing one set of images:
  21. What types of injury cause inflammation?
    Blunt or penetrating trauma, infectious organisms, and irritating substances.
  22. What are the 4 events of inflammatory response?
    Alteration of blood flow and vascular permeability, migration of blood cells to injured tissue, phagocytosis, and repair/regeneration
  23. What is the earliest bodily response to injury?
    Dilation of vessels leading to increase of blood flow (Hyperemia)
  24. What produces the heat and redness associated with inflammation?
    Hyperemia
  25. What produces swelling associated with inflammation?
    Venules and capillaries become abnormally permeable to allow passage of plasma
  26. What is the pain associated with inflammation caused by?
    Swelling puts pressure on sensitive nerve endings
  27. What term defines alcoholic injury to the liver?
    Cirrhosis
  28. What are the 4 clinical signs of inflammation?
    Rubor (redness), calor (heat), tumor (swelling), and dolor (pain)
  29. What type of bacteria leads to the production of pus?
    Pyogenic Bacteria
  30. What is a localized area of chronic inflammation, often with central necrosis?
    Granuloma
  31. What are the two forms of Edema?
    Localized and General
  32. Generalized Edema is most prominent where in the body?
    Dependent portions
  33. What results from the escape of protein-rich intravascular fluid into extravascular tissue?
    Localized Edema
  34. What can cause ischemia?
    Narrowing of arterial structures or by thrombotic or embolic occlusion.
  35. Most common forms of infarction:
    Myocardial and pulmonary
  36. What is a severe arterial disease of the lower extremities resulting in necrosis of several toes or a large segment of the foot?
    Gangrene
  37. Term for larger variation of petechiae:
    Purpura
  38. Term for a large subcutaneous hematoma, or bruise:
    Ecchymosis
  39. Lack of normal development resulting in a small size or developmental failure resulting in the absence of an organ or tissue:
    Aplasia
  40. Two types of atrophy:
    Disuse and Pathologic
  41. Hypertrophy occurs most often in cells that
    cannot multiply such as myocardial and peripheral striated muscle
  42. Hypertrophy is an increase in:
    cell size
  43. Hyperplasia is an increase in:
    cell number
  44. Loss in the uniformity of individual cells and their orientation:
    Dysplasia
  45. An abnormal proliferation of cells that are no longer controlled by the factors that govern the growth of normal cells:
    Neoplasia
  46. Neoplastic cells compete with normal cells and tissues for their metabolic needs; they act as:
    parasites
  47. The growth rate of neoplastic cells generally correlates inversely with:
    the level of parenchymal differentiation
  48. Differentiated tumors grow ______, undifferentiated neoplasms grow ______.
    slowly/rapidly
  49. Tumor cells flourish and the patient becomes weak and emaciated:
    Cachexia
  50. Malignant neoplasm of epithelial cell origin:
    Carcinoma
  51. Highly malignant tumors arising from connective tissue:
    Sarcoma
  52. What are the three pathways in which neoplasms disseminate?
    Seeding within cavities, lymphatic spread, hematogenous spread
  53. The grading of a malignant tumor assesses:
    aggressiveness, or degree of malignancy
  54. What term refers to the extensiveness of a tumor at it's primary site and the presence or absence of metastases to lymph nodes and distant organs?
    Staging
  55. What aids in determing the most appropriate cancer therapy/
    Grading and staging
  56. Substantial evidence indicates that most tumors arise from:
    a single cell
  57. Two basic tumor components:
    The parenchyma is made up of neoplastic cells and the supporting stroma is made up of connective tissue, blood vessels, and possible lymphatic vessels
  58. Hereditary diseases reflect:
    an abnormality in the DNA
  59. Most common hereditary abnormality:
    Enzyme deficiency
  60. Alterations in DNA structure that may become permanent hereditary changes:
    Mutation
  61. Mutations may result form:
    Radiation, chemicals, or viruses
  62. Disorders that are transmitted from one generation to the next:
    Autosomal Dominant Disorders
  63. Autosomal Dominant Disorders can have reduced penetrance meaning:
    not everyone who has the gene will demonstrate the trait
  64. Autosomal Dominant Disorders can have variable expressivity meaning;
    dominant gene may manifest differently in different individuals
  65. Disorders that result only if a person is homozygous to the defective gene:
    Autosomal Recessive Disorders
  66. What is the difference between Active and Passive Immunity?
    A person forms their own antibodies in Active immunity while in Passive Immunity antibodies from an animal are administered for short term use
  67. Three types of Immunologic Reactions:
    Anaphylactic, Cytotoxic, and Delayed reactions
  68. A cytotoxic reaction leads to:
    cell destruction by lysis or phagocytosis such as in a faulty blood transfusion
  69. A delayed reaction occurs in an individual that was;
    previously sensitized to an antigen (poison ivy/rejected organ)
  70. A systemic disease, characteristically affects the skin and causes an ulcerated hemorrhagic dermatitis:
    Kaposi's Sarcoma
  71. Most common causes of hepatitis:
    viral infection or reaction to drugs and toxins
  72. Forms of hepatitis:
    A, B, C and E
  73. Type of hepatitis transmitted in the digestive tract from oral or fecal contact:
    Hepatitis A
  74. Type of hepatitis transmitted through sexual contact:
    Hepatitis B and C
  75. Type of hepatitis acquired by the ingestion of food or water that has been contaminated with fecal matter:
    Hepatitis E
  76. In ultrasound, tissues lacking signals (echo free) are termed ____ and appear:
    Anechoic, dark region
  77. In ultrasound, if a tissue exhibits a strong reflection, the are:
    Hyperechoic/echogenic
  78. Tissue that exhibit weak reflections are:
    Hypoechoic
  79. Two structures with the same echogenicity although the tissue may not be the same are:
    Isoechoic
  80. In CT, what represents the attenuation of a specific tissue relative to that of water?
    CT Number
  81. CT produces images of what thickness?
    5-10mm
  82. Newest generation of CT scanners perfom __-___ slices per rotation.
    8-64
  83. What is the modality of choice for imaging the central nervous system and spine?
    MRI
  84. What modality consists of inducing hydrogen atoms to alternate between a high-energy state and a low energy state by absorbing and then releasing energy?
    MRI
  85. What is used for localization of specific regions of the brain that correspond to various function such as motor, sensory, memory, vision and language?
    Functional MRI (fMR)
  86. In what modality does the patient ingest or is injected with a radiopharmaceutical that emits radiation and an image is created from the signals radiating from the patient/
    Nuclear Medicine
  87. The amount of ionizing radiation to the patient in a nuclear medicine study is similar to that in a:
    standard radiographic exam
  88. Images obtained using nuclear medicine techniques lack in
    anatomic information
  89. PET is useful in:
    oncology, cardiology, and neurology
  90. PET produces a:
    metabolic image
  91. In nuclear medicine, radiopharmaceuticals decay by:
    positron emission
  92. Focus Imaging combines:
    anatomic images with metabolic function images

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