PPG2 Questions

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  1. 1) The winds are blowing 6-8 m.p.h. from the South. What is the safest direction to fly before returning to the launch site?

    a) North.
    b) South.
    c) East or West.
    d) Makes no difference.
    • a) North.
    • b) South.
    • c) East or West.
    • d) Makes no difference.
  2. 2) The default reaction to an unknown wing malfunction is…

    a) Keep the power steady and pull the brakes to your shoulders.
    b) Smoothly increase the power and reduce brake pressure.
    c) Increase brake pressure while smoothly reducing power.
    d) Decrease brake pressure and smoothly decrease power.
    • a) Keep the power steady and pull the brakes to your shoulders.
    • b) Smoothly increase the power and reduce brake pressure.
    • c) Increase brake pressure while smoothly reducing power.
    • d) Decrease brake pressure and smoothly decrease power.
  3. 3) If you are landing at a crowded PPG fly-in…

    a) Make sure you first do a low-altitude pass, so other pilots know you want to land.
    b) Land behind (downwind) other pilots getting ready to take-off.
    c) Make sure you land in front of other pilots, so they don’t hit you.
    d) Turn off your engine before landing.
    • a) Make sure you first do a low-altitude pass, so other pilots know you want to land.
    • b) Land behind (downwind) other pilots getting ready to take-off.
    • c) Make sure you land in front of other pilots, so they don’t hit you.
    • d) Turn off your engine before landing.
  4. 4) What maneuver do you need to practice for your PPG1 rating?

    a) Spiral Dive.
    b) Wing Over.
    c) Swing Set.
    d) Big Ears.
    e) None of the above.
    • a) Spiral Dive.
    • b) Wing Over.
    • c) Swing Set.
    • d) Big Ears.
    • e) None of the above.
  5. 5) When is the safest time of day to fly?

    a) Early morning, after sunrise.
    b) Mid-afternoon after clouds form.
    c) Late-afternoon, before sunset.
    d) Either A or C.
    • a) Early morning, after sunrise
    • .b) Mid-afternoon after clouds form.
    • c) Late-afternoon, before sunset.
    • d) Either A or C.
  6. 6) What glider certification is considered the safest to fly?

    a) DHV 1.
    b) DHV 3.
    c) AFNOR Standard.
    d) AFNOR Performance.
    e) Either A or C.
    • a) DHV 1.
    • b) DHV 3.
    • c) AFNOR Standard.
    • d) AFNOR Performance.
    • e) Either A or C.
  7. 7) What is the safest way to descend quickly?

    a) Big Ears.
    b) B-Line Stall.
    c) Spiral Dive.
    d) Full brake input.
    • a) Big Ears.
    • b) B-Line Stall.
    • c) Spiral Dive.
    • d) Full brake input.
  8. 8) Where is the safest place to start your engine?

    a) On the ground.
    b) On your back.
    c) When the propeller is removed.
    d) Strapped to a car.
    • a) On the ground.
    • b) On your back.
    • c) When the propeller is removed.
    • d) Strapped to a car.
  9. 9) While you are flying, you should…

    a) Always have a place to land in mind.
    b) Remain below 200 feet to avoid air traffic.
    c) Adjust the carburetor so the engine will not quit.
    d) Check in with ground control for weather updates.
    e) All of the above.
    • a) Always have a place to land in mind.
    • b) Remain below 200 feet to avoid air traffic.
    • c) Adjust the carburetor so the engine will not quit.
    • d) Check in with ground control for weather updates.
    • e) All of the above.
  10. 10) What is best indicator of wind direction while landing?

    a) Wind sock or steamer at the landing site.
    b) GPS
    c) Smoke from a chimney a ¼ mile away.
    d) Relative ground speed.
    e) All of the above.
    • a) Wind sock or steamer at the landing site.
    • b) GPS
    • c) Smoke from a chimney a ¼ mile away.
    • d) Relative ground speed.
    • e) All of the above.
  11. 11) You live in Florida (near sea level) and have traveled with your PPG to Albuquerque,New Mexico (5000 feet above sea level). You…

    a) May need to lean your fuel/air mixture.
    b) Will have more thrust available.
    c) Will have to carry more gas.
    d) May need to lean your oil/gas mixture.
    d) A and C are correct.
    • a) May need to lean your fuel/air mixture.
    • b) Will have more thrust available.
    • c) Will have to carry more gas.
    • d) May need to lean your oil/gas mixture.
    • d) A and C are correct.
  12. 12) If you hear a “chirping” sound after you start the engine, you likely have a…

    a) Loose propeller.
    b) Rich oil/gas mixture.
    c) Loose reduction belt.
    d) Loose air intake silencer.
    • a) Loose propeller.
    • b) Rich oil/gas mixture.
    • c) Loose reduction belt.
    • d) Loose air intake silencer.
  13. 13) If your engine is much louder than normal, you likely have…

    a) A damaged (“blown”) exhaust manifold gasket.
    b) Cracked intake silencer.
    c) Damaged welds on the tuned exhaust.
    d) Any of the above.
    • a) A damaged (“blown”) exhaust manifold gasket.
    • b) Cracked intake silencer.
    • c) Damaged welds on the tuned exhaust.
    • d) Any of the above.
  14. 14) Looking at the motor from the rear, most propellers turn…

    a) Clockwise.
    b) Counter clockwise.
    c) Depends if the engine has a centrifugal clutch or belt driven propeller.
    d) Depends if the engine is manufactured in Europe or the United States.
    e) C, and D are correct.
    • a) Clockwise.
    • b) Counter clockwise.
    • c) Depends if the engine has a centrifugal clutch or belt driven propeller.
    • d) Depends if the engine is manufactured in Europe or the United States.
    • e) C, and D are correct.
  15. 15) If you propeller is not balanced, you will notice…

    a) Increased vibration.
    b) Increased noise.
    c) Increased engine torque.
    d) All of the above.
    • a) Increased vibration.
    • b) Increased noise.
    • c) Increased engine torque.
    • d) All of the above.
  16. 16) The kill switch has stopped working. The most likely cause is…

    a) The humidity is too high.
    b) The ground wire is disconnected.
    c) The solenoid is bad.
    d) The master electrical switch is set on.
    e) The kill switch wire has shorted to ground.
    • a) The humidity is too high.
    • b) The ground wire is disconnected.
    • c) The solenoid is bad.
    • d) The master electrical switch is set on.
    • e) The kill switch wire has shorted to ground.
  17. 17) The engine won’t start. Inspection of the spark plug reveals the tip is a light browncolor? This means…

    a) The oil/gas mixture too lean, causing the engine to overheat.
    b) The oil/gas mixture too rich, indicating the engine is flooded.
    c) The spark plug is old and needs to be replaced.
    d) Something else is causing the engine problem.
    • a) The oil/gas mixture too lean, causing the engine to overheat.
    • b) The oil/gas mixture too rich, indicating the engine is flooded.
    • c) The spark plug is old and needs to be replaced.
    • d) Something else is causing the engine problem.
  18. 18) The tachometer is useful for:

    a) Detecting if the engine is overheating.
    b) For measuring vibration.
    c) For verifying the motor is able to achieve full power.
    d) Reading out propeller RPM directly on reduction drive units.
    e) Both C & D
    • a) Detecting if the engine is overheating.
    • b) For measuring vibration.
    • c) For verifying the motor is able to achieve full power.
    • d) Reading out propeller RPM directly on reduction drive units.
    • e) Both C & D
  19. 19) The front of the glider is called the leading edge; the back of the glider is called thetrailing edge. The distance from the leading to trailing edges is called the_______.

    a) Span
    b) Dihedral
    c) Chord
    d) Camber
    • a) Span
    • b) Dihedral
    • c) Chord
    • d) Camber
  20. 20) You are having a problem getting into your seat? What should you do?

    a) Loosen your leg straps.
    b) Connect a kick bar to the seat.
    c) Perform a hang check with your instructor.
    d) Wear clothes made with a smoother nylon material.
    • a) Loosen your leg straps.
    • b) Connect a kick bar to the seat.
    • c) Perform a hang check with your instructor.
    • d) Wear clothes made with a smoother nylon material.
  21. 21) It is important to check the weather before flying. One of the best sources for thisinformation is….

    a) Call an FAA control tower for winds aloft.
    b) Call a Flight Advisory Station at 888-WXR-INFO.
    c) Call a Flight Service Station at 800-WX-BRIEF.
    d) A and B.
    • a) Call an FAA control tower for winds aloft.
    • b) Call a Flight Advisory Station at 888-WXR-INFO.
    • c) Call a Flight Service Station at 800-WX-BRIEF.
    • d) A and B.
  22. 22) The reason that a reserve parachute is not recommended for powered paragliding is…

    a) PPG pilots typically fly at low attitudes, so a reserve parachute would not help.
    b) A reserve parachute can be accidentally deployed and become entangled in the spinning
    propeller.
    c) Unlike the free-flight community, PPG pilots typically fly when the conditions are calm.
    d) False. A reserve parachute can save your life in an emergency situation.
    • a) PPG pilots typically fly at low attitudes, so a reserve parachute would not help.
    • b) A reserve parachute can be accidentally deployed and become entangled in the spinning
    • propeller.
    • c) Unlike the free-flight community, PPG pilots typically fly when the conditions are calm.
    • d) False. A reserve parachute can save your life in an emergency situation.
  23. 23) As a PPG pilot you are…

    a) Free to fly anywhere as long as you stay below 500 feet.
    b) Regulated by Federal Aviation Regulation (FAR) 103.
    c) Regulated by Federal Aviation Regulation (FAR) 91 and 61.
    d) Both B and C above.
    • a) Free to fly anywhere as long as you stay below 500 feet.
    • b) Regulated by Federal Aviation Regulation (FAR) 103.
    • c) Regulated by Federal Aviation Regulation (FAR) 91 and 61.
    • d) Both B and C above.
  24. 24) The FAA defines an ultralight vehicle as one that:

    a) Is used or intended to be used for recreation or sport purposes only.
    b) If powered, weighs less than 254 pounds empty weight.
    d) Has a fuel capacity not exceeding 5 US gallons.
    d) Is not capable of flying more than 55 knots.
    e) All of the above.
    • a) Is used or intended to be used for recreation or sport purposes only.
    • b) If powered, weighs less than 254 pounds empty weight.
    • d) Has a fuel capacity not exceeding 5 US gallons.
    • d) Is not capable of flying more than 55 knots.
    • e) All of the above.
  25. 25) According to FAR 103, persons may operate an ultralight vehiclewithin class A, B, C or D airspace.

    a) True. There are no restrictions for ultralight aircraft.
    b) True, if the pilot is using a FRS radio.
    c) True, if the pilot has prior authorization from the air traffic control facility having jurisdiction
    over that airspace.
    d) False. Ultralight vehicles are not allowed to operate within congested air space.
    • a) True. There are no restrictions for ultralight aircraft.
    • b) True, if the pilot is using a FRS radio.
    • c) True, if the pilot has prior authorization from the air traffic control facility having jurisdiction
    • over that airspace.
    • d) False. Ultralight vehicles are not allowed to operate within congested air space.
  26. 26) According to FAR 103, ultralight vehicles may be operated during the twilight periods30 minutes before official sunrise and 30 minutes after official sunset.

    a) True. If the vehicle is equipped with an operating anti-collision light visible for at least 3
    statute miles, and all operations are conducted in uncontrolled airspace.
    b) False. You are only allowed to operate an ultralight vehicle between the hours of sunrise and
    sunset.
    c) Neither answer is correct.
    • a) True. If the vehicle is equipped with an operating anti-collision light visible for at least 3
    • statute miles, and all operations are conducted in uncontrolled airspace.
    • b) False. You are only allowed to operate an ultralight vehicle between the hours of sunrise and
    • sunset.
    • c) Neither answer is correct.
  27. 27) What airspace is completely uncontrolled, where PPG pilots can fly most comfortably?

    a) Class A.
    b) Class B.
    c) Class C.
    d) Class D.
    e) Class E.
    f) Class G.
    • a) Class A.
    • b) Class B.
    • c) Class C.
    • d) Class D.
    • e) Class E.
    • f) Class G.
  28. 28) When two aircraft are approaching each other head-on, or nearly so, each pilot of eachaircraft shall alter course to the______.

    a) Right.
    b) Left.
    c) Right and increase altitude.
    d) Left and increase altitude.
    • a) Right.
    • b) Left.
    • c) Right and increase altitude.
    • d) Left and increase altitude.
  29. 29) Which statement is false?

    a) Each person operating an ultralight vehicle shall yield the right-of-way to all aircraft.
    b) No person may operate an ultralight vehicle in a manner that creates a collision hazard with
    respect to any aircraft.
    c) Unpowered ultralights shall yield the right-of-way to powered ultralights.
    d) Powered ultralights shall yield the right-of-way to powered ultralights.
    • a) Each person operating an ultralight vehicle shall yield the right-of-way to all aircraft.
    • b) No person may operate an ultralight vehicle in a manner that creates a collision hazard with
    • respect to any aircraft.
    • c) Unpowered ultralights shall yield the right-of-way to powered ultralights.
    • d) Powered ultralights shall yield the right-of-way to powered ultralights.
  30. 30) It is considered good “PPG Manners” to:

    a) To help other pilots layout their glider, even if they have not asked for assistance.
    b) Announce your intention to start your engine by saying, “Clear Prop.”
    c) Provide advice over the radio while someone is getting ready to launch.
    d) Setup your own windsock, even if other windsocks are on the field.
    e) All of the above.
    • a) To help other pilots layout their glider, even if they have not asked for assistance.
    • b) Announce your intention to start your engine by saying, “Clear Prop.”
    • c) Provide advice over the radio while someone is getting ready to launch.
    • d) Setup your own windsock, even if other windsocks are on the field.
    • e) All of the above.
  31. 31) The minimum visibility for launching in most of the U.S., away from large airports, is:

    a) 3 miles.
    b) 1 mile.
    c) 3 miles at the surface and 5 miles above 700’ AGL.
    d) 1 mile at the surface and 3 miles above 10,000’ MSL.
    • a) 3 miles.
    • b) 1 mile.
    • c) 3 miles at the surface and 5 miles above 700’ AGL.
    • d) 1 mile at the surface and 3 miles above 10,000’ MSL.
  32. 32) The minimum visibility for flying in E airspace is:

    a) 3 miles.
    b) 1 mile.
    c) 5 miles.
    d) No minimum is specified since flight is prohibited there.
    • a) 3 miles.
    • b) 1 mile.
    • c) 5 miles.
    • d) No minimum is specified since flight is prohibited there.
  33. 33) In the U.S., regarding E airspace:

    a) Flight is prohibited without permission.
    b) Except for a few areas near airports, E airspace starts at either 700’ or 1200’ AGL.
    c) Flight is permitted and requires more visibility and cloud clearance than G airspace.
    d) Both B and C.
    e) Both A and B.
    • a) Flight is prohibited without permission.
    • b) Except for a few areas near airports, E airspace starts at either 700’ or 1200’ AGL.
    • c) Flight is permitted and requires more visibility and cloud clearance than G airspace.
    • d) Both B and C.
    • e) Both A and B.
  34. 34) In the U.S., regarding G airspace:

    a) All airspace that is not classified as Class A, B, C, D, or E.
    b) No air traffic control (ATC) services are provided.
    c) Most of the airspace up to either 700’ or 1,200 feet AGL.
    d) All of the above are true.
    • a) All airspace that is not classified as Class A, B, C, D, or E.
    • b) No air traffic control (ATC) services are provided.
    • c) Most of the airspace up to either 700’ or 1,200 feet AGL.
    • d) All of the above are true.
  35. 35) In most U.S. airspace, above 700’ AGL (1200’ AGL in some areas), how far must youremain from clouds?

    a) Clear of clouds.
    b) 1 mile.
    c) 500’ above, 2000’ to the side and 1000’ below.
    d) 500’ below, 2000’ to the side and 1000’ above.
    • a) Clear of clouds.
    • b) 1 mile.
    • c) 500’ above, 2000’ to the side and 1000’ below.
    • d) 500’ below, 2000’ to the side and 1000’ above.
  36. 36) In most U.S. airspace, below 700’ (1200’ in some areas), how far must you remain fromclouds?

    a) Clear of clouds.
    b) 1 mile.
    c) 500’ above, 2000’ to the side and 1000’ below.
    d) 500’ below, 2000’ to the side and 1000’ above.
    • a) Clear of clouds.
    • b) 1 mile.
    • c) 500’ above, 2000’ to the side and 1000’ below.
    • d) 500’ below, 2000’ to the side and 1000’ above.
  37. 37) Airspace can be closed to all flying:

    a) By NOTAM (Notice to Airmen) with at least 24 hour notice.
    b) By NOTAM (Notice to Airmen) with little or no advance warning.
    c) Flight Service (800 WX-BRIEF) is the best source for airspace closure information.
    d) The nearest FAA Air Traffic Control Tower is the best source for airspace closure information.
    e) Both B and C above.
    • a) By NOTAM (Notice to Airmen) with at least 24 hour notice.
    • b) By NOTAM (Notice to Airmen) with little or no advance warning.
    • c) Flight Service (800 WX-BRIEF) is the best source for airspace closure information.
    • d) The nearest FAA Air Traffic Control Tower is the best source for airspace closure information.
    • e) Both B and C above.
  38. 38) Before flying a new area, you must verify the airspace is legal by:

    a) Contacting the local Flight Service District Office.
    b) Checking the current Sectional Chart and call Flight Service.
    c) Call Flight Service.
    d) Calling the nearest air traffic control center.
    • a) Contacting the local Flight Service District Office.
    • b) Checking the current Sectional Chart and call Flight Service.
    • c) Call Flight Service.
    • d) Calling the nearest air traffic control center.
  39. 39) The USPPA PPG2 rating will allow you to fly legally in Canada?

    a) True.
    b) False.
    • a) True.
    • b) False.
  40. 40) Powered paragliders are included in the light-sport aircraft category and requires you
    to have 3rd class FAA medical certificate.

    a) True.
    b) False.
    • a) True.
    • b) False.
  41. 41) The speed at which the glider will tend to fly when no pilot input is given (brakes in full
    up position) is called:
    a) Trim speed.
    b) Top speed.
    c) Minimum sink speed.
    d) Stall speed.
    • a) Trim speed.
    • b) Top speed.
    • c) Minimum sink speed.
    • d) Stall speed.
  42. 42) If the propeller turns counter-clockwise (looking at the motor from behind), while flying
    you will notice…
    a) The glider turns to the right with no brake input.
    b) The glider turns to the left with no brake input.
    c) It is easier to turn to the left than to the right.
    d) A and C.
    • a) The glider turns to the right with no brake input.
    • b) The glider turns to the left with no brake input.
    • c) It is easier to turn to the left than to the right.
    • d) A and C.
  43. 43) You are at 100 feet AGL on final approach. You should...
    a) Apply about ¼ brake input to slow the glider.
    b) Keep hands up (little or no brake input) to maintain speed.
    c) Start your pre-flare.
    d) Start an aggressive flare.
    • a) Apply about ¼ brake input to slow the glider.
    • b) Keep hands up (little or no brake input) to maintain speed.
    • c) Start your pre-flare.
    • d) Start an aggressive flare.
  44. 44) You are on final approach and notice that you drifting to the right. You should...
    a) Steer right to align your glider with your new flight path.
    b) Steer left to bring your glider directly into the wind.
    c) Begin your flair early to slow the glider and avoid obstacles.
    d) Do not steer or twist, but be prepared to land sideways.
    • a) Steer right to align your glider with your new flight path.
    • b) Steer left to bring your glider directly into the wind.
    • c) Begin your flair early to slow the glider and avoid obstacles.
    • d) Do not steer or twist, but be prepared to land sideways.
  45. 45) You are launching in light winds. If you slow your run…
    a) The glider could fly past you and collapse.
    b) This is the best way to ensure the glider keeps flying fast enough.
    c) Internal pressure will increase making the glider more efficient.
    d) It is more likely the glider will stay centered above you.
    • a) The glider could fly past you and collapse.
    • b) This is the best way to ensure the glider keeps flying fast enough.
    • c) Internal pressure will increase making the glider more efficient.
    • d) It is more likely the glider will stay centered above you.
  46. 46) You are doing a forward launch in winds 6-8 m.p.h.
    a) The glider will tend to come up quicker and overfly the pilot.
    b) The pilot should use quarter brake during the first part of the inflation.
    c) Pulling too hard on the "A" lines can cause the glider to do a front tuck.
    d) You may be pulled backward off your feet.
    e) A and D.
    • a) The glider will tend to come up quicker and overfly the pilot.
    • b) The pilot should use quarter brake during the first part of the inflation.
    • c) Pulling too hard on the "A" lines can cause the glider to do a front tuck.
    • d) You may be pulled backward off your feet.
    • e) A and D.
  47. 47) If an asymmetric collapse happens in flight, you should…
    a) Use minimum brake input and let it recover on its own.
    b) Apply immediate and aggressive use of brake on the collapsed side.
    c) Apply immediate and aggressive use of brake on the flying side.
    d) Deploy your reserve parachute if recovery is not immediate.
    • a) Use minimum brake input and let it recover on its own.
    • b) Apply immediate and aggressive use of brake on the collapsed side.
    • c) Apply immediate and aggressive use of brake on the flying side.
    • d) Deploy your reserve parachute if recovery is not immediate.
  48. 48) The stall of a glider corresponds most directly to:
    a) Air speed.
    b) Ground speed.
    c) Brake position.
    d) Angle of attack.
    • a) Air speed.
    • b) Ground speed.
    • c) Brake position.
    • d) Angle of attack.
  49. 49) What is the correct sequence of actions when performing a power-off landing?
    a) Reduce power to idle, turn motor off, hands up, come out of your seat below 50 feet.
    b) Reduce power to idle, come out of your seat, turn motor off, apply half brake pressure.
    c) Reduce power to idle, come out of your seat, turn motor off, hands up.
    d) Come out of your seat above 100 feet, apply light brake pressure, reduce power to idle, turn
    motor off.
    • a) Reduce power to idle, turn motor off, hands up, come out of your seat below 50 feet.
    • b) Reduce power to idle, come out of your seat, turn motor off, apply half brake pressure.
    • c) Reduce power to idle, come out of your seat, turn motor off, hands up.
    • d) Come out of your seat above 100 feet, apply light brake pressure, reduce power to idle, turn
    • motor off.
  50. 50) Active flying is defined as…
    a) Too eradicate and strong brake input.
    b) Feeling the front/back motion of the glider, and apply appropriate brake pressure.
    c) Keeping 2 pounds of pressure on the opposite brake to counteract engine torque.
    d) Continuous modulation of brake pressure to keep the glider centered overhead.
    • a) Too eradicate and strong brake input.
    • b) Feeling the front/back motion of the glider, and apply appropriate brake pressure.
    • c) Keeping 2 pounds of pressure on the opposite brake to counteract engine torque.
    • d) Continuous modulation of brake pressure to keep the glider centered overhead.
  51. 51) Generated most commonly through either thermal convection or frontal lifting, these clouds can grow to heights in excess of 39,000 feet (12,000 meters), releasing incredible amounts of energy through the condensation of water vapor within the cloud itself. What type of cloud fits this description?
    a) Stratus.
    b) Nimbus.
    c) Cumulus.
    d) Cirrus.
    • a) Stratus.
    • b) Nimbus.
    • c) Cumulus.
    • d) Cirrus.
  52. 52) The millibars (mb) on weather maps indicate the change in ________.
    a) Temperature.
    b) Barometric pressure.
    c) Air density.
    d) Wind speed.
    • a) Temperature.
    • b) Barometric pressure.
    • c) Air density.
    • d) Wind speed.
  53. 53) The jet stream has moved directly over your city. You can expect…
    a) Smoother prevailing winds.
    b) Increased turbulence.
    c) Low-altitude air stream blowing from west to east.
    d) Wind shear soon after you launch.
    • a) Smoother prevailing winds.
    • b) Increased turbulence.
    • c) Low-altitude air stream blowing from west to east.
    • d) Wind shear soon after you launch.
  54. 54) When flying near a lake, you can expect the air to be….
    a) Calm.
    b) Bumpy.
    c) Sinking.
    d) Rising.
    e) All of the above.
    • a) Calm.
    • b) Bumpy.
    • c) Sinking.
    • d) Rising.
    • e) All of the above.
  55. 55) When the air is very humid, you can expect…
    a) It is harder to launch.
    b) The propeller has more thrust.
    c) The glider has more lift.
    d) You don’t have to run as far during launch.
    e) B, C, and D above.
    • a) It is harder to launch.
    • b) The propeller has more thrust.
    • c) The glider has more lift.
    • d) You don’t have to run as far during launch.
    • e) B, C, and D above.
  56. 56) As the air temperature drops, you can expect…
    a) It is harder to launch.
    b) The propeller has more thrust.
    c) The glider has more lift.
    d) You don’t have to run as far during launch.
    e) B, C, and D above.
    • a) It is harder to launch.
    • b) The propeller has more thrust.
    • c) The glider has more lift.
    • d) You don’t have to run as far during launch.
    • e) B, C, and D above.
  57. 57) A gust front is defined as the leading edge of the cold air associated with a strong downdraft.
    How do you know a gust front is heading your way?

    a) The winds are calm.
    b) The temperature begins to drop.
    c) Ridge of approaching clouds (“Shelf Cloud”).
    d) Aviation weather forecast information.
    e) All of the above.
    • a) The winds are calm.
    • b) The temperature begins to drop.
    • c) Ridge of approaching clouds (“Shelf Cloud”).
    • d) Aviation weather forecast information.
    • e) All of the above.
  58. 58) If the current temperature and the Dew Point are only 5 degrees apart, it means the…

    a) Air is calm.
    b) Air is turbulent.
    c) Humidity is high.
    d) Humidity is low.
    e) A and C above.
    • a) Air is calm.
    • b) Air is turbulent.
    • c) Humidity is high.
    • d) Humidity is low.
    • e) A and C above.
  59. 59) If you are at the beach and the “off-shore” breezes are 6-8 m.p.h. This indicates…

    a) The wind is blowing from the land to the sea, and conditions are unsafe to fly.
    b) The wind is blowing from the sea to the land, and conditions are safe to fly.
    c) You should do a reverse launch.
    d) You should start your final approach over the sea.
    e) Both B and C above.
    • a) The wind is blowing from the land to the sea, and conditions are unsafe to fly.
    • b) The wind is blowing from the sea to the land, and conditions are safe to fly.
    • c) You should do a reverse launch.
    • d) You should start your final approach over the sea.
    • e) Both B and C above.
  60. 60) Wind direction is the direction from which the wind is blowing. For example: If the wind is shown as 270 degrees, this indicates the wind is blowing from the_________.

    a) North.
    b) South.
    c) East.
    d) West.
    e) North/West
    • a) North.
    • b) South.
    • c) East.
    • d) West.
    • e) North/West

Card Set Information

Author:
BBB68
ID:
335510
Filename:
PPG2 Questions
Updated:
2017-11-09 14:42:44
Tags:
USPPA PPG2
Folders:
PPG
Description:
USPPA PPG2 written questions
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