Flashcards_Information_Systems_Research

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  1. The application layer is responsible for the addressing and routing of packets. True or False?
    False
  2. TCP/IP is a routable protocol that provides the ability to transfer network packets from one segment to another. True or False?
    True
  3. ___ is a nonproprietary industry-standard protocol suite.
    TCP/IP
  4. In what layers are the core protocols of TCP/IP found?
    Internet and Transport
  5. How many layers does the OSI reference model have?
    7
  6. Which of the following TCP/IP Layers offers the same services using the protocols TCP and UDP that are specified in the Transport layer of the OSI/RM
    Transport
  7. You need to ensure that users can send emails to and from your organization. Which of the following ports will need to be opened in the firewall?
    25
  8. What is the host ID for the address 172.19.4.72 with a subnet mask of 255.255.224.0?
    4.72
  9. Which of the following core protocols in TCP/IP is responsible for the addressing and routing of data?
    IP
  10. Which of the following application layer protocols is used for its efficiency with file transfers?
    FTP
  11. What is the CIDR notation for the subnet mask 255.248.0.0?
    /13
  12. The subnet mask of 255.255.224.0 stops in the third octet only covering the first 3 bits out of 8. Since your IP address is 4 in that octet, that wouldn?t be one of the bits that was shielded by the mask (128,64, or 32) and thus part of the host ID.
    255.255.224.0
  13. You need to configure a rule on the network firewall; what port should you define in the rule to allow RDP traffic to network servers?
    3389
  14. What is the network ID for the address 192.168.10.220/24?
    192.168.10.0
  15. Which of the following protocols in TCP/IP is used as the troubleshooting protocol to send informational messages back to source computers?
    ICMP
  16. Which of the following IPv6 addresses is not valid?
    FC00::C110:DE32:FF::15
  17. If you do not have a DHCP server on the same subnet as a client and you are using an older router, what will you have to install?
    DHCP relay agent
  18. Which of the following is not part of the DHCP lease process?
    Broadcast
  19. A DHCP server implies an actual server running the OS. True or False?
    False
  20. Which of the following records in a DNS zone is the most common and is required by all clients and servers?
    Host (A) resource records
  21. You need to create the appropriate DNS entry for you SMTP email server. Which type of resource should you create?
    MX (Mail Exchanger) records
  22. You have a host computer that has automatically generated an address and you would like to force the client to attempt to contact a DHCP server. How do you do that?
    Ipconfig/renew
  23. Which of the following represents the correct order of name resolution used by a client computer?
    Local hostname, hosts file, cache, DNS
  24. You have recently experienced name resolution problems which have now been fixed. A computer on the network is still experiencing issues and cannot resolve names it had previously attempted to resolve when your network was experiencing the problem. What should you do?
    IPCONFIG/flushdns
  25. Which of the following ensures that IP addresses, which are assigned to computers security throughout the network, are not also given out by the DHCP sever?
    Exclusion range
  26. You have a network that contains many portable systems as well as desktops. You have a limited number of IP addresses in the DHCP server scope and need to ensure that you don?t run out of addresses. Which of the following should you configure on the scope?
    Lease duration
  27. What is the first communication between a client and server in the DHCP Lease Generation process?
    DHCP Discover
  28. What is required by any client that is going to connect with and communicate over the network?
    Network interface card
  29. Layer one devices provide network segmentation. True or False?
    False
  30. Layer one network devices are physical devices.
    True
  31. Ethernet uses what kind of signal?
    Baseband
  32. Which network protocol is used to make sure that our topology on switched Ethernet networks remains loop free?
    STP
  33. A heterogeneous bridge packages frames of one format into the format of another.
    False
  34. You are trying to identify the common characteristic of network switches which is primarily used for monitoring traffic to and from the switch? Which of the following best fits that description?
    Port mirroring
  35. Which of the following routing protocols is a distance vector protocol that bases routing decisions on a routing table and information obtained from neighboring routers?
    RIPv2
  36. Hubs generally provide connectivity in older Ethernet networks and could have which of the following connector types available? (Two answers)
    Coaxial, RJ-45
  37. Which of the following routing protocols is an Exterior Gateway Routing Protocol that stands alone in comparison to others?
    BGP
  38. Routers for large internetworks may require routes to be added to inform them all of networks paths inside the organization. Which of the following will assist in this configuration?
    RIPv2
  39. Which of the following networking devices provides significant advantages over standard Ethernet hubs because of the isolation of collision domains?
    Switch
  40. Which of the following IEEE standards represents the concept of VLAN trunking to host multiple logical networks on a single physical segment?
    802.1q
  41. Which of the following technologies will allow multiple logical networks to share the same physical network segment while keeping traffic separated?
    VTP
  42. Which of the following is also known as a multiport repeater?
    Hub
  43. ___ is an open committee of groups that work together.
    IETF
  44. Which of the following is not a standard organization?
    CPU
  45. The data link layer is responsible primarily for constructing this frame. True or False?
    True
  46. An RJ-11 connector is capable of having up to how many pins?
    6
  47. Which of the following should be used to physically attach an RJ-45 connector to a CAT5 cable?
    Crimping tool
  48. Which of the following cable standards has the highest effective range at a greater expense?
    1000Base-LX
  49. Which of the following is resistant to EMI and crosstalk?
    100Base-FX
  50. The IEEE defines standards for computer networking. Which of the following represents the standard for Ethernet?
    802.3
  51. Which of the following cable types are the most widely used in a corporate gigabit network?
    CAT5e
  52. Which of the following is the length of a MAC address?
    48 bit
  53. Which of the following fiber connectors has a ferrule connector that is used to connect the fibers using a push/pull motion?
    SC
  54. A network cabling method which uses unshielded copper wire to deploy computer networks is a good description for which of the following cable types?
    UTP
  55. ___ is required in this type of connection to convert digital computer signals into analog signals.
    A modem
  56. A WAN is a grouping of sites belonging to a single organization. True or False?
    True
  57. The capability of remotely connecting to networks for resource sharing and service access is called:
    Remote Access
  58. In order to connect an organization to the public carrier for either frame relay or T1 connections, which of the following components is used?
    CSU/DSU
  59. You are concerned about the level of security for passwords that are passed between remote clients and your VPN server running Windows Server 2012 R2. All remote clients are running Windows 7 or later Microsoft operating systems. You want to ensure the highest level of security is used for the passwords in transit over the network. Which of the following authentication protocols should you choose?
    EAP-MD5
  60. Which of the following T-connections will use leased lines and circuit-switched connections to provide 44.7 Mbps?
    T3
  61. You are the network administrator for your company. Several users work remotely, so you have configured their accounts to use a VPN connection using SSTP. To enhance the security of the network, the VPN server will be placed in the perimeter network. The firewall administrator would like to know which port to leave open on the external firewall to accommodate this. What port number should he ensure is open?
    443
  62. Which of the following WAN transmission methods provides a type of cell-switching network using fixed length cells and provides very high-speed WAN bandwidth?
    ATM
  63. Which of the following VPN protocols provides the most compatibility for third party operating systems and remote access clients?
    PPTP
  64. You are a network administrator for your company. You have been asked to implement password-based authentication that is supported on Windows and non-Windows clients for your remote access solution. Which of the following password-based authentication protocols should you choose?
    CHAP
  65. Which of the following connectivity methods is often used for small business and homes in order to connect to a public carrier, but could also be used as a backup connection for larger companies providing a dedicated and guaranteed amount of bandwidth?
    DSL
  66. You are the network administrator for your company and are managing remote access clients. Clients are using smart cards for authentication on the Internal network and you would like to extend that protection to remote access clients. Which authentication protocol is required in order to implement smart card authentication for VPN clients?
    EAP-TLS
  67. You are evaluating VPN protocols for remote access to your Windows Server 2008 network infrastructure. Which of the following VPN protocols provides the easiest administration of firewalls?
    SSTP
  68. Which of the following protocols is an industry standard providing centralization of AAA for all remote access clients and wired hosts?
    RADIUS
  69. The term used for the study of various network activities is:
    Traffic analysis
  70. Freeware utilities are less capable than other, more expensive utilities.
    False
  71. Which of the four primary monitoring tools in Windows breaks down the four major subsystems?
    Resource Monitor
  72. Which of the following types of upgrades applies to a particular device on a personal computer and usually provides additional features and performance enhancements?
    Device driver update
  73. You are attempting to monitor security on a particular system and would like to ensure that only the required services are running. Which of the following tools will be the most useful?
    Port Scanner
  74. You need to determine which system on your network is consuming the most bandwidth. Which of the following types of tools/reports will be the most useful?
    Traffic monitoring
  75. Which of the following utilities provides notifications when system and application errors occur?
    Event Viewer
  76. Which of the following terms is used to identify the various options that can be configured and monitored on a system using SNMP?
    MIB
  77. You are using the tool Microsoft Message Analyzer to monitor your system. Which of the following type of tool is this?
    Packet analyzer
  78. Which of the following can be used to view errors and warnings from multiple logs in a single results pane?
    Custom view
  79. Which of the following elements of a monitoring strategy is used to provide a report of normal operational values that can be used in troubleshooting and interpreting real-time data?
    Baseline
  80. Which of the following components is used in Windows Server to provide a single component containing performance counters and system configuration events?
    Data Collector Sets
  81. Which of the following is an application later protocol in TCP/IP that provides centralized management of a wide variety of network devices and systems?
    SNMP
  82. Wireless devices communicate with one another through what?
    WAP
  83. ___ technologies are often used for remote controls.
    Infrared
  84. Ad hoc networks require access points to provide connectivity directly between two nodes.
    False
  85. Which of the following would be utilized in an enterprise network to provide centralized authentication for wireless clients and single sign on?
    802.1x
  86. Which of the following wireless network protocols is the newest standard providing 200+ Mbps transfer rates over radio frequencies operating on the 2.4GHz band or the 5.0 GHz band?
    802.11n
  87. Which of the following is the standard name for Bluetooth wireless connections?
    802.15
  88. Which of the following WLAN modes would not require access points but instead would focus on connecting individual devices?
    Ad hoc
  89. Which of the following wireless technologies provides slow transfer over short distances and is primarily used for mobile device connectivity?
    Bluetooth
  90. Which of the following security protocols should not be used due to the fact that it is susceptible to IV attacks?
    WEP
  91. Which of the following devices is used in infrastructure WLANs to connect wireless clients to the wired network devices and connections?
    WAP
  92. Which of the following wireless protocols suffers from fewer interference problems and can be used when required to provide up to 54Mbps transfer rates?
    802.11a
  93. A vulnerability is any event or action that might cause a breach or violation in security policies.
    False
  94. Cryptography is nearly as old as language itself
    True
  95. ___ is the inability of a person or organization to disown its own data.
    Non-repudiaton
  96. Which of the following is not part of the CIA traid?
    Authentication
  97. What is the first ?AjQuery110106040322087184438_1510537247243
    Authentication
  98. Which of the following DMZ configurations provides the highest level of security while still allowing Internet access for LAN computers without the use of protocol switching?
    Back-to-back
  99. Which of the following attacks targets the availability of a particular technology in an effort to remove a device or application from service?
    DoS
  100. Which of the following policies is used to ensure that system configuration changes are proposed, approved, and documented in a consistent way?
    Change management
  101. A firewall capable of examining data streams and performing more advanced security checks is referred to as which of the following devices?
    SPI
  102. Which of the following malware types is typically hiding inside another program and will often cause identity theft and/or unauthorized remote access to the infected computer?
    Trojan
  103. Which of the following would be considered an attack on the human element of network security?
    Phishing
  104. Which of the following is the primary device that is used to secure the internal network from the Internet?
    Firewall
  105. Which of the following network attacks consists of an attacker capturing network packets for a data stream between two other computers?
    Man-in-the-middle
  106. Which of the following security policies is used to provide information for end users in regards to the way in which computer equipment is to be used?
    Acceptable use
  107. Which of the following protocols are included in IPSec?
    Authentication Headers (AH), Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
  108. Demultiplexing is a method by which multiple analog signals or digital streams are combined into one signal over a shared medium. True or False?
    False
  109. Which type of communication is one-to-everyone?
    Broadcast
  110. In a ___ environment, each individual node manages its own security.
    Peer-to-peer
  111. The topology of the network relates to its actual layout either logically or physically. True or False?
    True
  112. Which numbering system only uses zeros and ones?
    Binary
  113. Which of the following policies is used to determine who can make VPN connections to the system and might have physical policies as well as electronic equivalents?
    Remote access policy
  114. Which of the following should you consult when dealing with harmful materials that might be toxic?
    MSDS
  115. Which of the following primarily uses wireless technologies and includes mobile devices, smart phones, and personal computers?
    PAN
  116. Which of the following is an acronym describing control systems for industrial networks?
    ICS
  117. Which of the following layers in the OSI/RM provides protocols like HTTP, DNS, DHCP, etc?
    Application
  118. Which of the following is the first step in dealing with a Class C fire?
    Remove the power source
  119. Which of the following components of change management represents a change request that is raised by end users, management, or administrative personnel?
    RFC
  120. Which of the following OSI/RM layers primarily looks at MAC addresses to determine the forwarding of packets?
    Data Link
  121. Multimeters are capable of reading voltage, current, and resistance.
    True
  122. What is the final step of troubleshooting methodology?
    Implement a solution
  123. There is only one troubleshooting model.
    False
  124. Which of the following tools would be used to attach RJ-45 connectors to Ethernet cables using the EIA/TIAB wiring standard?
    Crimper
  125. Which of the following tools is used to eliminate any cached DNS entries on a client that is having trouble connecting to Internet websites?
    Ipconfig /flushdns
  126. Which of the following utilities can you use to determine the number of active network connections that are in place for a host system?
    Netstat
  127. Which of the following tools can verify connectivity and the route a packet takes to the remote network but is often blocked by perimeter firewalls or routers?
    TraceRT
  128. Which command-line tool is used to verify the IP Configuration on Unix and Linux systems?
    Ifconfig
  129. A customer is having a problem with network connectivity to the Internet and you are troubleshooting over the phone. Which of the following is the first action that you should take?
    Identify the affected area
  130. Which parameter will show the DNS client resolver cache when used with IPconfig?
    DISPLAYDNS
  131. Which of the following is a problem unique to troubleshooting WLANs?
    Signal strength
  132. Which of the following terms describes interference between neighboring signals on Ethernet wiring that occurs closest to the source system?
    NEXT
  133. Which of the following tools could be used to determine if there are physical problems with copper Ethernet cabling?
    TDR
  134. Server rooms should be secured using locks and a form of access control. True or False?
    True
  135. What can become a single point of failure if we are not careful?
    Power
  136. What is critical for keeping servers at an acceptable temperature?
    Airflow
  137. What is the component that is used to connect workstation drop cables to network switches?
    Patch panel
  138. What might be used in a server room to ensure that you can provide defense against flooding?
    Drop floors
  139. Which device provides battery backup capabilities for servers in most LAN infrastructures?
    UPS
  140. What is incredibly important in larger scenarios to ensure that you can locate the correct cables and ports in the wiring closet?
    Labeling
  141. What term is used to describe the cables that are used to connect workstations to the patch panel?
    Drop cables
  142. Which of the following components is used to extend workstation drops throughout a building?
    IDF
  143. What is often used in data centers in order to ensure the appropriate environmental climate for efficiently running servers?
    HVAC units
  144. Which of the following components represents the point at which the company equipment interfaces with the provider?s equipment?
    Demarcation point
  145. Virtualization has a large effect on user experience.
    False
  146. Which of the three main types of storage uses storage on a physical server?
    Direct attached storage
  147. Which is a type I hypervisor platform?
    VMWare ESX Server
  148. A single physical host server operates as a host for multiple virtual machines. True or False?
    True
  149. Which of the following virtualization platforms is a Type I Hypervisor?
    Hyper V
  150. Which of the following file types is not a type of virtual hard drive?
    ISO
  151. Which Windows operating system has the ability to function as an iSC SI target creating a complete Microsoft-based storage solution?
    Windows Server 2012
  152. Which protocol is used unified communications to actually transport voice data over Ethernet?
    RTP
  153. Which of the following options available with virtual machines is a backup, providing the ability to restore a virtual machine to a previous point in time?
    Checkpoints
  154. Which of the following Microsoft offerings represents a software as a service model?
    Office 365
  155. Which protocol is used by unified communications to establish a session between the caller and recipient?
    SIP
  156. Which of the following is required for unified communications if you are using an older PBX style phone system?
    Gateway
  157. Which cloud services model allows you to create virtual machines and virtual networks in the public cloud?
    IaaS
  158. What do you need to enable on the host system in order to be able to use some advanced virtualization features?
    CPU Virtualization in the BIOS

Card Set Information

Author:
hunter82
ID:
335939
Filename:
Flashcards_Information_Systems_Research
Updated:
2017-11-13 01:56:07
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InformationSystemsResearch
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Description:
Flashcards for the Final in Information System Research
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