Fire Alarm Commissioning

  1. A registered firm is defined as:
    A person or organization hold a current certificate of registration.
  2. An expired certificate/license of registration is longer valid for renewal after:
    2 years
  3. New applications for certificates or licenses of registration must be signed by:
    All owners of company/sole proprietor OR each partner of company OR corporate officer of a corporation
  4. T/F: Stamped signatures are allowed on any labels
    False
  5. Following individuals may certify an installation is acceptable according to Article 5.43-2:
    • Fire Alarm Technician
    • Residential Fire Alarm Superintendent
    • Fire alarm Planning Supervisor
  6. What is the only approved testing organization in Texas?
    NICET- National Institute for Certification of Engineering Tehcnologies
  7. After completion of an installation, modification, or an addition to a single station detector unit, except for a one-or-two family residence, 3 copies go to:
    • The State Fire Marshall
    • The AHJ (Authority Having Jurisdiction)
    • The Certifying company
  8. If insurance has NOT lapsed and paperwork is incomplete, how long do you have to get the paperwork in?
    30 Days.
  9. A signature on a service label means:
    The system is in compliance with the requirements of the insurance code article 5.43-2
  10. What does a Red Label for a system mean?
    System is in a fault condition or system that is non-functional.
  11. After any service, inspection, test, a system does not comply with applicable codes and standards at the time of install, what color label must be attached?
    Yellow.
  12. A person holding an active fire alarm technician license AND employed by a registered firm is permitted by article 5.43-2 to do everything except:
    PLAN a commercial or residential fire system.
  13. When is it necessary to have an inspection by the fire marshal?
    • 1. Completion of the device back box installation, but prior to the start of the cable installation.
    • 2. Completion of the cable installation, but prior to the device installation.
    • 3. Completion of the decive installation but prior to the activation of the fire alarm system.
  14. The person who is responsible for signing off on the certification of a fire alarm system IS REQUIRED to what?
    Be present for the final test.
  15. A complete change of ownership would:
    Invalidate and require a new application for certificate to be filled.
  16. The penalty for the violation of the law is:
    Class "B" Misdemeanor
  17. "Service or Servicing" includes all of the following and DOES NOT include:
    • Includes: Inspection, Maintenance, Repairing, testing.
    • NOT include: Planning or Installing
  18. An arrangement of materials that the sole function is to provide indication of fire, smoke, or combustion in its incipient state is:
    A Fire Detection Device
  19. Any device capable, through audible and/or visual means of sounding a warning that fire or combustion has taken or is taking place is:
    A Fire Alarm Device
  20. If your license is revoked you CANNOT reapply until:
    After 1 year after revocation of your license.
  21. What is the NFPA (National Fire Protection Agency):
    The nationally recognized standards making organization.
  22. The NICET (National Institute for Certification of Engineering Technologies) is:
    The only Texas State Fire Marshal approved testing organization:
  23. Revised licenses require a writ change.ten notice to be sent to the Texas State Fire Marshall within:
    14 days of any
  24. How many times can you test per year:
    3.
  25. A monitoring station must employ:
    At least 1 licensed Fire Alarm Technician at each central station and must be supervised by that Fire Alarm Technician.
  26. Inspection labels are:
    Blue in color with black writing.
  27. If a red label is attached to a Fire Alarm System how must the customer be notified:
    Orally immediately or in writing within 3 days.
  28. A Fire Alarm planning Superintendent can function as:
    A fire alarm technician or a residential fire alarm superintendent.
  29. A residential Fire Alarm Superintendent can function as:
    A fire alarm tech.
  30. A registered firm must notify the TSFM of a terminated employee in writing within:
    14 days.
  31. Each Renewal of a certificate of registration or license is valid for:
    2 years.
  32. Insurance policy needilitys to cover:
    • -Liability
    • -Products
    • -Operations
  33. What will constitute in denial, suspension, or revocation of a certification of registration:
    Failure to maintain insurance coverage. No lapse is allowed.
  34. The TSFM must send written Notice 30 days prior to:
    The expiration of the license.
  35. After 2 years of expiration, what must you do:
    Must re-test and re-apply for your license.
  36. The State Fire Marshall may refuse to issue, renew, or revoke or suspend a license if the licensee has engaged in acts of:
    • -Violations of Article 5.43.-2
    • -Violations of rules or standards adopted pursuant to the Article 5.43-2
    • -Misrepresentations made in connection with the sale of products or services rendered.
  37. Fire Alarm monitoring equipment is used to transmit and receive:
    Alarm, Trouble, and Supervisory signals.
  38. Application for a Fire Alarm Planning Superintendent license must include:
    A copy of NICET;s notification letter confirming the applicants successful complete of the test requirements for the NICET certification at Level III for Fire Alarm Systems.
  39. The certifying Licensee MUST be present for testing and can be the following people:
    • -A Licensed Fire Alarm Technician
    • -A Residential Fire Alarm Superintendent
    • -A Fire Planning SUperintendent
  40. What MAY NOT monitor a fire alarm is in the state of Texas no matter what:
    An unregistered firm.
  41. The following MUST be included in the Fire Alarm PLANS:
    • -Date
    • -Signature of planner
    • -License Number of the licensee
    • -Name
    • -Address
    • -Phone Number
    • -The certificate of registration number of the registered firm.
  42. After service of a fire alarm system, what label must be attached to the fire alarm device:
    A white or service label.
  43. A new installation label is what color?
    White.
  44. Fire protection is comprised of three basic parts what are they? PP 2
    Detection alarm, suppression, and containment
  45. Examples of fire safety functions include what? PP 3
    Smoke control, HVAC shutdown, elevator recall, door unlocking, and smoke door closure
  46. Moses Farmer developed the electric bell in what year? PP five
    in 1848 This was invented to help in fire prevention
  47. What is the advantage of optical fiber connections? PP 7
    Increased bandwidth, decreased time required to transmit signals between panels, and have the advantage of lightning resistance, describes this type of wiring.
  48. Projected beam (linear) smoke detection is widely used to protect what? PP 7
    Large open areas use this technology for fire prevention
  49. Do protected premises systems transmit signals outside the building served by the system? These systems are installed to protect what type of building? PP 8
    NO, this type of system does not transmit signals outside the building served by the system, and are installed in Commercial buildings.
  50. In building emergency voice/alarm communication systems are commonly found in what? PP 10
    High-rises, assembly occupancy, transportation centers, healthcare facilities, where partial or select evacuation is the only option.
  51. Supervising station alarm systems fall into one of three types what are they? PP10
    Central station systems, remote station systems, proprietary Supervising station systems, describe this type of alarm system.
  52. Which of the supervising station systems is the most restrictive and requires a maintenance contract? PP 11
    Central station systems
  53. What is an auxiliary fire alarm system? PP 11
    Public emergency alarm reporting system
  54. true or false? In building mass notification systems may be standalone or integrated with the fire alarm system? PP12
    Both
  55. In a fire alarm system what is considered the brain of the system? PP 13
    The control unit.
  56. The control unit monitors the wiring for what? PP 13
    Grounds and opens, aka integrity, is monitored by this.
  57. Addressable controls use what to operate the system? PP 13
    Microprocessors and software.
  58. Addressable controls will monitor the status of the field device and wiring by doing what? PB 14
    By periodically interrogating or polling each device
  59. What is the big advantage to addressable technology? PP 14
    It has become very affordable
  60. An initiating devices also called what? PP 15

    Initiating devices can create what?
    Input device

    an intitiating device can create both alarms and supervisory signals, Depending on the type of device and how the controls are programmed or wired.
  61. Supervisory signal Initiating devices may consist of what? PP 15
    Pressure switches, valve tamper switches, water level switches, and temperature switches.
  62. What indicates an off normal condition on a suppression system? PP 15

    These may also be used for what? PP 15
    Supervisory signals.

    Supervisory signals may also be used for duct smoke detector actuation in some cases
  63. What type of initiator device reports the alarm by zone only and does not report by individual device? PP 15
    • IDC: Initiating device circuit
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  64. SLC: signal light circuits are used with what sort of device? PP 15
    Addressable initiating devices.
  65. There are three types of signals produced by a fire alarm system. What are they? PP 15
    Trouble signals, supervisory signals, and alarms.
  66. Conventional initiating devices are generally what? PP 15
    Simple contact closure devices
  67. A conventional initiating device controls report the alarm how? PP 15
    By zone only and do not report by the individual device
  68. Do alarm signals have priority over burglary holdup alarms? PP 16
    Yes
  69. Alarm controls utilize three basic types of circuits what are they? PP 17
    Initiating device circuits (IDC), signaling line circuits (SLC), and notification appliance circuits (NAC).
  70. Initiating device circuits use what type of device in the connection? PP 17
    Only conventional initiating devices are connected in this type of circuit
  71. Each initiating device zone share a card or module? true or false? PP 17
    False.  Each requires its own card or module.
  72. On an IDC (intitiating Device circuit), there's usually this type of device which sets up a voltage on the loop. PP 18
    End of line device, or EOL, does this.
  73. Signaling Line circuits or SLC's, are connected to what type of control relays or other compatible control units and devices? PP 18
    This type of circuit uses addressable components
  74. What state are NACs (Notification Appliance Circuits) normally in? Operating at what voltage?
    These type of circuits are either in a normal state off or an alarm state on. Operating at 12 or 24V DC
  75. Notification appliances are connected in what fashion in an NAC circuit? PP 19
    These appliances are connected in Parallel
  76. In an alarm state _______ switch polarity and allow current to pass through the appliances, using a blocking diode. PP 19
    • NAC's do this to allow current to pass.
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  77. What percent of all fires are controlled or extinguished by two or fewer sprinkler actuations? PP 19
    98% of all fires share this
  78. Dry sprinkler systems are used in what sort of environment? PP 20
    A freezing environment uses this type of sprinkler system.
  79. Pre-action systems are designed to protect areas of what type? PP 20 How do they work?
    This type of sprinkler system is designed to protect areas where wet sprinklers are undesirable. It uses an interlock which requires the actuation two automatic detectors in order to operate a charging valve.
  80. Are kitchen hoods usually manually or automatically operated? PP 21
    This type of fire suppression is usually manually operated in the kitchen.
  81. _________specify "when and where", _________ specify "how". PP 23
    codes specify when and standards specify how.
  82. Regarding NFPA 72 chapters 1 to 29 or mandatory text and enforceable. What is not enforceable as code? PP 27
    The annexes are not enforceable as code in this document.
  83. Inergen is an example of a _________? PP 29
    Gaseous suppression system is an example of this.
  84. Door unlock is an example of? PP 29
    A fire safety function, as well as HVAC shutdown, elevator recall, smoke control, and smoke door closure.
  85. The Americans with disability act became law and what year? PP 8
    1992 Is the year when this became law
  86. Supervising stations which only monitor property owned by the supervisor station operator are called what?
    Proprietary stations are called this
  87. NFPA 72 10.14.1 requires equipment to be designed to operate within _______ to _______ percent of nameplate voltage in temperatures between what? PP 34
    85% to 110%  and between 32F - 120F, regarding fire alarms.
  88. In areas that are not continuously occupied, what shall be installed at the control units? PP 35
    smoke detection shall be provided at this point in non-continuously occupied spaces.
  89. NFPA72 10.16.6.1 requires each floor of a building and each separate building to constitute what? PP 35
    This requires each floor of a building and each floor to constitute a separate zone.
  90. Alarm signals on a fire alarm system may be initiated by smoke detectors, heat detectors, manual fire alarm boxes, radiant energy sensing fire detectors, or __________? PP 37
    water flow switches may also initiate a fire alarm signal.
  91. Does the code permit supervisory and trouble to share the same audible signal? PP 37
    The code permits supervisory and trouble signals to share the same audible signal, provided there is a visible indication at the control unit to distinguish them from each other.
  92. Trouble signals must do appear within how many seconds and clear how soon thereafter? PP 38
    Trouble signals must appear within 200 seconds of the fault condition and must self-restore within 200 seconds after the fault is cleared.
  93. NFPA 72 10.17.1.1 requires all circuits to be monitored for integrity.  An exception to this is what? PP 38
    NFPA 72 10.17.1.8 permits exlusion of monitoring the integrity for circuits within a common enclosure, because most wiring inside enclosures are factory installed, limitied in length, and access to the wiring is restricted to authorized persons.

    10.17.1.9 allows field wiring to not be monitored if it is 20 feet or less between enclosures, installed in pipe, or equivalently protected against mechanical damage.
  94. What type of circuit generally does not use an EOL, end of line device? pp 39
    SLC, signaling line circuits generally do not use this type of device.
  95. EOL devices are electrically what? PP 39
    EOL devices are generally resistors but can also be capacitors.
  96. Where the manufacturer requires an extra pair of conductors to supply power, which results in four conductors to the device, the power supply conductors must also be monitored for integrity. A (an) __________ usually accomplishes this monitoring. PP 40
    An end of line power monitoring relay usually does this. The second power source is sometimes required when one set supplying power and alarm signal must be separated per the cut sheet or manufacturer.
  97. In an IDC (initiating device circuit) the correct method of installing a waterflow and valve supervisory tamper switch is to do what? PP 41
    the correct method of installing a waterflow and valve supervisory tamper switch is to install them on separate zones, so that a tamper switch does not create an alarm signal, and instead creates the required supervisory signal.
  98. Signaling Line Circuits (SLC's) usually require how many conductors? PP 42
    SLC's usually require a single pair of conductors for both power and signal.
  99. In an SLC (signaling line circuit) what may (may not) be used? PP 43
    In an SLC an EOL may, or may not be used.
  100. NAC and IDC circuits monitor for integrity how? Does monitoring for integrity indicate if a device is working? PP 43
    NAC and IDC circuits monitor for integrity in the same manner by using a small amount of current to complete the circuit, where the absence of which indicates a trouble condition and an open or groung. 

    No
  101. Where provided, all terminals or leads must be ______.  PP
    44

    However, there is one circuit allowed to be T-tapped.  What is it?
    Where provided, all terminals or leads must be USED.  T tapping is not permitted.  Duplicate terminals and leads are provided to ensure a loose connection is annunciated as a trouble.  For the reason, multiple field conductors cannot be installed under a single terminal.

    A class B SLC (signaling line circuit) is allowed to be T-tapped.
  102. The class of a circuit or pathway is defined how? PP 45
    The class of a circuit or pathway is defined by its ability to OPERATE during fault conditions.
  103. Class A circuits are defined by ____________________.  A fault, such as a single open circuit, will condition the circuit so it operates form both ends.  PP 45
    • return conductors which extend from the last device on the curcuit to the fire alarm system controls.
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Author
johnbowens
ID
336430
Card Set
Fire Alarm Commissioning
Description
fire alarm details involving the documentation and commissioning.
Updated