Enterobacteriaceae 7.6, Review Specific

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corbin19
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33905
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Enterobacteriaceae 7.6, Review Specific
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2010-09-12 00:23:50
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Enterobacteriaceae Microbiology NSHS MLT
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Micorbiology Unit 7.6 Enterobacteriaceae Review Specific
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  1. What is the appearance of Enterobacteriaceae on a gram stain?
    Gram negative Bacilli (rod)
  2. Enterobacteriaceae are what type of oxygen users?
    facultative anaerobic
  3. what is the result of Enterobacteriaceae organisms on the cytochrome oxidase test?
    =
  4. Enterobacteriaceae organisms do what to glucose?
    ferment (+)
  5. true or false
    all Enterobacteriaceae organisms will grow on a MacConkey agar plate?
    true
  6. Enterobacteriaceae organisms will usually _______ nitrate to nitrite.
    reduce
  7. Enterobacteriaceae organisms are ________, meaning they do not form spores.
    asporogenous
  8. motile forms of Enterobacteriaceae move by what type of flagellation?
    peritrichous
  9. what is the typical colonial coloration of Enterobacteriaceae on a BAP?
    grey
  10. what is the appearance of Enterobacteriaceae in a blood culture?
    • medium above RBC sediment is uniformly turbid
    • gas bubbles
  11. the triple sugar iron (TSI) agar contains _______ and enrichment.
    peptones
  12. what is the pH indicator in the TSI?
    phenol red
  13. what is the H2S indicatorin the TSI?
    ferrous sulfate
  14. what is the sulfur source for any H2S indicator?
    Na Thiosulfate
  15. what is the name of the media that is the same as TSI minus the sucrose?
    kligler's iron agar
  16. Kligler's iron agar(KIA) is the same as TSI minus what sugar?
    sucrose
  17. what are the abbreviations for the following in the TSI?
    Acid
    Alkaline
    Gas bubbles produced
    H2S produced
    • Acid: A
    • Alkaline: K
    • Gas bubbles: G
    • H2S: +
  18. what is the format for documenting results on the TSI?
    Slant/Butt/Gas/H2S
  19. what are the three controls for the TSI and their results?
    • A/AG: E. coli
    • K/A+: Salmonella typhi
    • K/K: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

  20. What are the result for the TSI left to right
    • K/A+
    • K/AG+
    • K/A
    • K/K
    • A/A
    • K/A
    • K/K
  21. What is the innoculation procedure for the phenylalanine deaminase (PAD) test?
    streak the slant
  22. the phenylalanine deaminase (PAD) test should be incubated at 35oC for how long?
    18-24 hours
  23. what is the indicator reagent used in the phenylalanine deaminase (PAD) test?
    10% aqueous ferric chloride
  24. A positive phenylalanine deaminase (PAD) test will produce what color?
    bright green
  25. what will be the appearance of the phenylalanine deaminase (PAD) test if negative?
    no color change
  26. what precaution should be taken when interpreting the phenylalanine deaminase (PAD) test?
    green will fade or disappear
  27. what are the quality control organisms for the phenylalanine deaminase (PAD) test?
    • +: Proteus spp.
    • =: E. coli
  28. what is the metabolic end product in the urease media?
    ammonium carbonate
  29. what is the enzyme in the urease media?
    urease
  30. Indole is the endproduct of deamination and hydrolysis of ___________ by the enzyme tryptophanase.
    tryptophan
  31. indole can be performed on a BAP, TSA, CHOC, SIM, indole nitrate medium, and MIO, but not what media?
    MAC
  32. what is the media which contains tryptophane?
    BAP
  33. the rapid screening for indole should be performed on what media?
    BAP
  34. What is the reagent used in the indole spot test?
    para-dimethyl-cinnamaldehyde (DMACA)
  35. what is the reagent used in the tube indole test?
    Para-dimethyl-aminobenzaldehyde (kovac's reagent, DMABA)
  36. what are the quality control organisms for indole?
    • +: E. coli
    • =: Klebsiella pneumoniae
  37. the cytochrome oxidase test uses the oxidation of what substrate?
    tetra-p-phenylenediamine dihydrochloride
  38. what is the endproduct formed in the cytochrome oxidase test?
    indophenol
  39. the reaction in the cytochrome oxidase test is visualized by what color change?
    blue to purple
  40. what is the name of the reagent used in the cytochrome oxidase test?
    • tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine dihydrochloride
    • 1% kovac's oxidase
  41. what materials are needed for the cytochrome oxidase test?
    • filter paper
    • CTA
  42. the MIO media is used to detect what three things?
    • motility
    • indole
    • ornithine
  43. what is the amine formed by the amino acid ornithine?
    putrescine amine
  44. the MIO is commonly known as what type of media.
    combination media
  45. what is the inoculation procedure for the MIO media?
    • collect a colony on a needle
    • clean, straight stab
  46. MIO media should be incubated for 18-24 hours at what temp?
    35oC
  47. how is a positive motility seen?
    diffuse zone of growth away from the stab
  48. how is a negative motility indicated?
    stabline intact
  49. how is a positive ODC indicated on the MIO?
    lower 1/3 purple
  50. how is a negative ODC indicated on the MIO?
    lower 1/3 yellow
  51. how is a positive indole indicated on the MIO media?
    red or pink color in seconds
  52. how is a negative indole indicated on an MIO media?
    no color change
  53. the principle of the methyl red test is to ID bacteria based on end products of ________ metabolism.
    glucose
  54. what is the pH that indicates that acids are produced by enzymes of mixed-acid pathways in the methyl red test?
    4.4 pH
  55. what is color that indicates a positive methyl red?
    red
  56. the principle of the voges-proskauer test is to ID bacteria based on production of what two substances?
    • acetoin
    • butanediol
  57. a positive voges-proskauer test is detected by development of pink or red color when combined with what reagent?
    alpha naphtol
  58. for the VP test, what quantity of medium should be split from the 5mL MR-VP tube?
    2.5mL
  59. how long should the VP test be incubated at 35oC?
    6 hours
  60. what are the two barritt's reagents and their quantities?
    • 6 gtts sol A (5% alpha-naphtol)
    • 2 gtts sol B (40% KOH)
  61. the ONPG is colorless and similar to _______.
    lactose
  62. the ONPG is used to detect organism's ability to produce what?
    B-galactosidase
  63. the ONPG is an enzymatic test specifically designed to detect organisms that ferment _______ at a slow rate?
    lactose
  64. active beta-galactosidase results in what visible metabolite?
    orthonitrophenol
  65. what are the two nitrite indicator reagents in the nitrate reduction test?
    • reagent A- alpha naptylamine (ANR)
    • reagent B- sulfanilic acid (SAR)
  66. what is the nitrate indicator used to detect resudual nitrate in the nitrate reduction test?
    zinc
  67. the nitrate indicator zinc is used to rule out ______ recuded to other compounds.
    nitrate
  68. How is no reduction of residual nitrates is indicated when zinc dust is added?
    no color change
  69. what are the three proteus species?
    • P. vulgaris
    • P. mirabilis
    • P. penneri
  70. what is the most frequently isolated proteus species?
    P. mirabilis
  71. what are the four clinical significances of proteus?
    • UTI
    • wound infection
    • nosocomial infections
    • rapid urease users
  72. what organism causes swarming on a BAP?
    proteus
  73. what is the smell of proteus?
    foul
  74. what is the appearance of non lactose fermenters on the MAC?
    colorless
  75. how does proteus use lactose?
    non lactose fermenter
  76. what is the appearance of proteus on the Hektoen agar?
    colorless with or without black center (+) H2S
  77. what is the appearance of proteus on the XLD?
    • yellow to colorless
    • variable H2S
  78. what test differentiates P. mirabilis from P. vulgaris?
    indole
  79. what are the three organisms that have to be sent to serology for serotyping?
    • salmonella
    • shigella
    • some E. coli
  80. what percent of salmonella isolates are in A-E, based on O (somatic) antigens?
    95%
  81. what is the flagellar Ag that provides type specific strains to salmonella?
    H
  82. what is the capsular antigen associated with S. typhi's virulence?
    Vi
  83. what is the organism associated with traveler's and childhood diarrhea?
    enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)
  84. enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) has enterotoxins similar to what organism?
    V. cholerae
  85. Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC) causes what disease?
    dysentery
  86. what is the numeric code associated with Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)?
    0157:H7
  87. what is the organism associated with inflammation, bleeding, and hemolytic uremic syndrome?
    Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC) 0157:H7
  88. Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC) 0157:H7 has toxins like ______ toxin.
    shiga
  89. serotyping is requried after ID of which E. coli?
    Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC) 0157:H7
  90. what is the Escherichia species associated with watery diarrhea?
    Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC)
  91. what is the Escherichia species associated with chronic and infant diarrhea?
    Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)
  92. what is the colonial morphology of Escherichia on the MacConkey agar?
    • lactose fermenter
    • flat, dry, pink colonies
  93. what is the color of escherichia on HE?
    yellow
  94. what is the color of Escherichia on the XLD?
    yellow
  95. what is the abbreviated work up for Escherichia and their results?
    • TSI: A/AG
    • Citrate: =
    • Spot indole: +
  96. this is the most communicable bacterial diarrhea?
    shigellosis
  97. bacillary dysentery is caused by what toxin?
    shiga toxin
  98. what is the most common isolate in the U.S. from diarrhea?
    S. sonnei
  99. what is the least reactive genus in the family enterobacteriaceae?
    Shigella
  100. what is the most biochemically active species?
    S. sonnei
  101. Shigella uses what antigen on all species?
    O Ag
  102. what are the three species in the Yersinia genus?
    • Y. pestis
    • Y. enterocolitica
    • Y. pseudotuberculosis
  103. what is the dangerous organism that can cause pneumonia?
    K. pneumoniae
  104. what are the six clinical significances of Klebsiella?
    • UTI
    • Pneumonia
    • Septicemia
    • Wound infections
    • Meningitis in infants
    • Enteritis
  105. what is the test to differentiate K. oxytoca from K. pneumoniae?
    indole
  106. what are the indole results for K. oxytoca and K. pneumoniae?
    • K. oxytoca: +
    • K. pneumoniae: =
  107. the genus enterobacter is formerly known as what two genus?
    • Aerobacter
    • Cloacae
  108. what are the three species in the genus Enterobacter?
    • E. aerogenes
    • E. cloacae
    • other
  109. what are the differential tests for klebsiella and enterobacter?
    • ODC: Klebsiella (=), Enterobacter (+)
    • Motility: Klebsiella (=), Enterobacter (+)
  110. what is the test that differentiates Serratia from Klebsiella and Enterobacter?
    DNase
  111. What are test uses Barritt's reagents A&B?
    VP
  112. what two tests differentiate Salmonella from Citrobacter?
    • ONPG
    • LDC
  113. what are the QC organisms for ONPG?
    • E. coli: +
    • S. typhimurium: =
  114. what are the QC organisms for oxidase?
    • P. aragenosa: +
    • E. coli: =
  115. what are the QC organisms for urease?
    • Proteus: +
    • E. coli:=
  116. what two organisms are associated with the color red?
    • Serratia (BAP)
    • Y. enterocolitica (CIN)
  117. what organisms are PAD positive?
    • Proteus
    • Morganella
    • Providencia
  118. What is the TSI reaction for E. coli?
    A/AG
  119. what color is associated with a positive citrate?
    • deep blue
    • growth
  120. what color is associated with a positive urease?
    pink
  121. what color is associated with a positive spot indole?
    blue
  122. what color is associated with a positive tube indole?
    red
  123. which two organisms are stringy or mucoid?
    • Klebsiella
    • Enterobacter

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