1. Ortho Exam 1

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1. Ortho Exam 1
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2010-09-14 21:59:29
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UNLV DPT 741 - Ortho Exam 1
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  1. Movement through the median-Sagittal plane would occur around the
    A. x axis
    B. z axis
    C. r axis
    D. y axis
    A. x axis, also called the transverse, horizontal, coronal or frontal axi
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. Movement through the frontal-coronal plane would occur around the
    A. x axis
    B. y axis
    C. z axis
    D. r axis
    C. z axis, also called the sagittal axis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. Movement through the transverse-horizontal plane would occur around the
    A. r axis
    B. z axis
    C. x axis
    D. y axis
    D. y axis, also called the longitudinal axis and vertical axis.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. In the shoulder, where would the axis of rotation be located?
    A. in the glenoid fossa
    B. in the head of the humerus
    C. on the shaft of the humerous
    D. in the glenospinal fossa
    B. In the head of the humerus. the axis is usually located through the convex member of the joint. This is one of the reason the glide will always be opposite the osteokinematic movements of a joint when moving the convex member.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. A saddle joint has ___ degrees of freedom
    A. 3
    B. 1
    C. 2
    D. 4
    A. saddle joints have 3 degrees of freedom in which the can move. Flx/ext, abd/add, rotation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. Which plane and axis does scapular protraction occur in?
    a. transverse/z axis
    b. transverse/x axis
    c transverse/y axis
    c. transverse/y axis
  7. Which plane does scapular elevation occur in?
    A. sagittal
    B. frontal
    C. transverse
    B. Frontal plane
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. Which motions are involved with spinal rotation-side bending?
    A. combination of traction and compression
    B. combination be tween flexing and extension
    C. combination of rotation and flexion
    C. Spinal rotation-side bending is what we call a coupled motion. It involves both the rotation and flexion motion.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. When amb. the head produces what type of motion?
    a. abmulatory
    b. rotary
    c. translatory
    d. occulatory
    • c. This motion is considered a curvilinear translatory motion. Translatory motions may also be linear.
    • Translation means that all the parts of a rigid object move parallel to and in the
    • same direction oas every other body part. Can be curvilinear or linear.
  10. Elbow flexion and extension is an example of
    a. rotary motion
    b. translatory motion
    c. joint hing
    d. ball and socket hinge
    e. more than one of the above.
    e. It is a hinge joint going through rotary motion
  11. Flexion of the bicep is an example of
    A. passive internal force
    B. active internal force
    C. active external force
    D. passive external force
    B. active internal force, Passive internal would be caused by tension in connective tissue; e.g., a contracture
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. A body is in static equilibrium when
    A. the body velocity is at zero
    B. when it is in homeostasis
    C. when the is a strong electric charge.
    D. the body velocity is not zero but constant
    A. when the velocity is zero. The body is in dynamic equilibrium when the velocity is constant the and acceleration is zero
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. Work (W)
    A. W=Torque
    B. W=F*d
    C. W=F*V
    D. W=F/time
    B. work + force times distance
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. Power
    a. W/speed
    b. W/time
    c. time/work
    d. Time/speed
    • b. work/time
    • or we could say F*d/t
  15. Calf raises in closed chain is an example of
    A. 3 class lever
    B. 1 class lever
    C. 2 class lever
    C. This case is similar to a wheel barrow. If you are doing an open chain movement, this motion will be a 1st class lever.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. What does kinematics mean?
    A. the relationship between forces that produce motion
    B. study of biomechanical receptors
    C. the study of motion
    C. kinematics is the study of motion. Kinetics is the study of the relationship between forces that produce motion. To remember think, Kinetic is like kinetic energy and deals with force
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. In homogenous objects, the COG is in the middle and the COM is constant T/F
    T. They will remain the same since the object won't move.
  18. Males have a lower COG than females. T/F
    False. Males actually have a slightly hight center of gravity than females.
  19. Pt. s/p for arthroscopic surgery to correct bone chips in the humero-ulna joint. These chips would be an example of.
    A. effucion
    B. mechanical block
    C. contracture
    D. lack of musculotendinous flexibility
    B. mechanical block. they could also be called joint mice. A contracture is the adhesion of connective tissue. Effusion is swelling that limits the ROM. Lack of musculotendinous flexibity would have to do with scar tissue, deconditioning, posture, tension and emotion.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. You work our hard for a year and find your forearm flexion ROM has
    decreased, there is no pathological reason and sensation is normal. What
    may explain this decrease?
    a. Pain
    b. Spasm
    c. Muscle or adipose bulk
    d. Scar tissue (skin)
    • c. Muscle or adipose bulk
    • Due to increase bicep, the ROM has decrease. There is no pain. The
    • tricep is not stuck in spasm and there is no limiting cutaneous scar
    • tissue.
  21. Pt. had skin torn of of their arm. What is the turn over rate for skin?
    A. 1-7 days
    B. 1-10 days
    C. 50 days
    D. 5-15 days
    A. 1-7 skin is one of the tissues with the quickest turnover.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. Pt. tore their hamstring while sprinting. What is the turn over rate for muscle tissue?
    A. 1-7 days
    B. 50-100
    C. 50 days
    D. 300-500
    C. 50 days. Muscle turn over rate is about 50 days. It is fairly quick.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. Patient tore their ACL, after surgery, how long can the expect before the tissue is completely turned over?
    A. 50-100 days
    B. 50 days
    C. 300-500 days
    D. 100-300 days
    C. 300-500 Ligemnts have a long turnover rate. This is why recovering from ligament injuries is so tough.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. Patient ruptures the achiles tendon, what is the turn over time?
    A. 50 days
    B. 300-500 days
    C. 50-100 days
    D. 1-7 days
    C. 50-100 days tendons are slightly long than muscle, but not as long as ligaments in their turnover rate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. Pt. tore their ACL. what type of collagen fibers did they tear?
    A. type III
    B. type IV
    C. type I
    D. type II
    C. Type I. Ligaments are composed primarily of type I collagen fibers
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. Pt. has a tear in the hyaline cartilage of her knee, what type of collagen fiber is involved?
    A. type II
    B. type III
    C. type IV
    D. type I
    A. type II Hyaline is primarily type II collagen. Type II is thinner and has less tensile strength. However it tends to be more smooth which works well for allowing movement between the bones of joints.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. Elastin is a type of fiber that has more give to elongation and more elasticity, in gaining these characteristics it losses
    A. the ability to conduct electricity
    B. much of it’s tensile strength and stiffness
    C. nothing.
    D. much of its shear strength
    B. Elastin type fibers sacrifice tensile strength and stiffness for elasticity and elongation properties
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. T/F The primary cells in ligemants, tendons and other supporting CT are
    fibroblasts, while the primary cells in hyaline cartilage and
    fibrocartilage are chondrocytes.
    • True.
    • The cartilage tissues involved with movements tend to have more
    • fibroblast while the cartilage tissue involved with contact tend to have
    • more chondrocytes.
  29. Collagen fibers and stiffness, but what is the material that helps to keep them resiliant?
    a. ground substance
    b. matrix
    c. interstitial fluid
    d. chondrosis
    e. more than one of the above
    e. Ground substance, interstitial fluid, and matrix are used interchangably.
  30. What is the matrix composed of?
    a. glycosaminoglycans (GAG’s)
    b. Proteoglycans
    c. water
    d. All of the above
    • d.
    • GAG's attract water and cause the collagen to be spaced evenly. Proteoglycans help compose GAG's
  31. Pt. Has been immobile for a few weeks and decrease activity with the right
    knee. What will happen inside of the hyaline cartilage?
    • The
    • GAG activity will decrease, GAG’s may not be lost, but the will be
    • repressed. Since the GAG’s are the molecules that attract water, water
    • levels will decrease. With less water the tissue is not inflated and is
    • less effective in absorbing shock. Water will decrease the space
    • between the collagen fiber and you will get cross-linking and adhesions.
    • To improve this condition you must maintain mobility.
  32. The following connective tissue contains GAG’s within their ground substance.
    a. Fibrous
    b. cartilagenous
    c. Bone
    e. a and b
    e. Bone doesn't have GAG's it has hydroxyapatite
  33. These fibers pierce deep into the bone tissue and help to anchor periosteum to the bone.
    A. periosteo fibers
    B. sharpey’s fibers
    C. ligamentum fibers
    D. anchor fibers
    B. b. sharpey’s fibers. They pierce deep and help to anchor the periosteum and also help anchor tendons and ligaments.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. Bone is 2/3 crystal, therefor is posses the properties of crystal. When compressed a bone will
    A. generate a negative charge resulting in bone growth
    B. generate a positive charge resulting in bone growth
    C. generate no charge
    D. generate a neutral charge the stimulates the bone growth
    A. When compressed bone creates a negative charge which does result in bone growth. This is called the Piezoelectric effect. When traction of tension is applied the bone produces a positive charge.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. T/F Torsion, shear, stiffness, compression, and tension are all mechanical properties of bone.
    True
  36. What is occuring when a stress fracture happens?
    A. muscle activity cause reduced stress
    B. Osteocytes hypertrophy
    C. osteoclastic function is greater that osteoblastic
    D. osteoblastic activity is faster than osteoclastic
    C. osteoclastic function is greater that osteoblastic. Muscle can put stress on the bone and cause it to need to be removed and repaired. When this happens at to quick a rate, stress fractures may occur.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. T/F Following a stress fracture, one can return to activity as soon as their pain threshhold allows them.
    True. Return to activity is dependent on the pain the patient feels.
  38. When a bone is broken and the proximal end of the distal half is more
    proximal than the distal end of the proximal half we call it
    A. distracted
    B. overriding
    C. displaced with deviated alignment
    D. laterally rotater.
    B. overriding
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. According to Saltar’s classifications, a bone with a fraction going straight through the epiphyseal plate is called a
    a. Type I b. Type II
    c. Type III d. Type IV
    e. Type V f. Type VI g. Type VII
    Type I
  40. According to Saltar’s classifications, a bone with a fraction going through the
    epiphyseal plate then through the epiphysis is called a
    a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III d. Type IV
    e. Type V f. Type VI g. Type VII
    c. type III (this will disrupt the growth and require surgical fixation)
  41. According to Saltar’s classifications, a bone with a fraction going through the
    epiphyseal plate then through the metaphysis is called a
    a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III d. Type IV
    e. Type V f. Type VI g. Type VII
    b. a type II.
  42. According to Saltar’s classifications, a bone with a fraction going through the
    epiphysis, the epiphyseal plate then through the metaphysis is called a
    a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III d. Type IV
    e. Type V f. Type VI g. Type VII
    d. Type IV (this will disrupt the growth and require surgical fixation)
  43. According to Saltar’s classifications, a bone is compressed at the epiphyseal plate, this is called a
    a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III
    d. Type IV e. Type V f. Type VI g. Type VII
    e. Type V (this will disrupt the growth)
  44. According to Saltar’s classifications, a bone developes a osseus bridge at one end of the epiphyseal plate, this is called a
    a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III d. Type IV
    e. Type V f. Type VI g. Type VII
    f. Type VI
  45. Inbalance of osteoblastic activity relative to osteoclastic acitivty may result in which abnormality?
    A. RA
    B. Myositis ossificans
    C. osteopetrosis
    D. OA
    E. rickets
    F. Osteogenesis imperfect
    C. osteo petrosis.Osteogenesis imperfect looks like swiss cheese in that it becomes very poreousMyositis ossificans is a heterotrophic boney formation. Bone growth in muscleOA is a mechanical wear and tear problemRA is an immune reactionRickets is the inability of the bone to solidify mineral content in the matrix causeing buckling.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. Cartilage is largely avascular, alymphatic and aneural. This is a result of
    A. Low levels of matrix
    B. The relatively small vascularity
    C. chondocytes killing off blood cells.
    D. Synovial fluid flow.
    B. The relatively small vascularity The lack of vascularity contributes to these qualities.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. How does the cartilage receive most of its nourishment?
    A. granulation
    B. blood
    C. GAG’s
    D. Synovial fluid
    D. Synovial fluid is absorbed into the tissue and delivers WB and other nutrients.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. With hyaline cartilage damage, sometimes doctors will perform a microfacture surgery. What is the purpose of this surgery?
    a. drill deep enough into the subchondral bone to cause bleeding into the cartilage
    b. Using micro technology cause micro tears in the cartilage that will promote great healing
    c. drill down into the Zone IV of the cartilage to allow for the synovial fluid to reach deeper into the cartilage with ease.
    d. Open the knee and drain any transudate
    • a. The point is to induce bleeding into the cartilage. The bleeding will
    • help the cartilage to repair as fibrocartilage and later be remodeled
    • into hyaline cartilage.
  49. Where do we typically find fibrocartilage?
    a. meniscus
    b. IVD
    c. TMJ
    d. SC joint
    e. all of the above
    e. these are all areas that will contain fibrocartilage
  50. Aside from blood, this is the most pervasive tissue in the body.
    A. bone
    B. muscle
    C. cartilagenous tissue
    D. loose fibrous connective tissue
    D. loose fibrous connective tissue which forms the fascia the is just under the skin, around the muscles and around the organs.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. Pt. sprained their left lateral collateral ligament. Which type of tissue has been damaged?
    A. dense fibrous connective tissue
    B. cartilaged. muscle
    C. loose fibrous connective tissue
    A. A collateral ligament would be dense fibrous tissue, but it would be the organized type, which also makes up tendons, and aponeurosis. There are two types of dense fibrous connective tissue, the organized and unorganized. The unorganized forms joint capsules.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. The stress strain curve is based a upon the mechincal of behavior of soft tissues. This property is called.
    a. fibroelasticity.
    b. viscoelasticity
    c. Flexibility
    d. morbidity
    • c. viscoelasticity. A tissue that is viscoelastic will under go stretch
    • as it is strained. It will mover through the different phase of the
    • stress strain curve.
  53. As you are stretching a patient, energy escapes in the form of heat rather
    than all of it being conserved as elastic strain energy. The causes the
    relaxation phase to be longer than the stretching phase. As a result,
    the material does not immediate return to it’s immediate dimensions.
    This response is called
    a. Creep
    b. Hysteresis
    c. Stress relaxation
    d. Stress tension
    b
  54. While stretching a patients hamstrings, you continously apply a constant
    force, slowly over time you gain ROM. This is an example of
    a. Creep
    b. Glee relaxation
    c. Stress or force relaxation
    d. force stessation
    a
  55. You are stretching a pt. hamstrings. You hold their leg at the same degree
    over a period of time. As time increase the amount of force required to
    keep her leg decrease. This is an example of
    a. Creep
    b. Glee relaxation
    c. Stress or force relaxation
    d. force stressation
    c
  56. T/F Tissue with more collagen fibers will require more force to achieve elastic and plastic regions in the stress strain curve.
    T. The collagen is less condusive to stretching therefor it will require more force. This will result in a more verticle curve.
  57. The following therapies are based around fascial concepts
    a. Rolfing
    b. myofascial trigger point release
    c. Craniosacral therapy
    d. all of the above
    d.
  58. What is the function of fascia?
    a. Provide blood to the tissue
    b. store fat
    c. contraction
    d. provide nutrients
    b
  59. What is the function of fascia?
    a. Provide blood to the tissue
    b. Store minerals
    c. contraction
    d. Provide protection and support
    d
  60. Fibrous joints have
    a. two bones with synovial fluid between them
    b. articular cartilage on the ephiphysis of the bone
    c. two bones united by a fibrous structure
    d. two bones bound by a fibrous disc
    • c
    • (two bones bound by a fibrous disc would we a cartilagenous joint)
  61. Cartilagenous joints have
    a. two bones with synovial fluid between them
    b. articular cartilage on the ephiphysis of the bone
    c. two bones united by a fibrous structure
    d. two bones bound by a fibrous disc
    • d
    • (like IVD, SC joint, pubic symphysis)
  62. Synovial joints have
    a. two bones with synovial fluid between them
    b. articular cartilage on the ephiphysis of the bone
    c. two bones united by a fibrous structure
    d. two bones bound by a fibrous disc
    a
  63. The carpal bones do not move around an axis, this makes them an example of
    a. cartilagenous joint
    b. chronic joint
    c. gliding joint
    d. synovial joint
    • c
    • (glinding joints are also called plane joints and sliding joints)
  64. The elbow moves along one plane and axis and has strong collateral ligaments making it an example of
    a. hyaluronic joint
    b. ginglymus joint
    c. hydroxyapatite
    d. synovial joint
    • b
    • (b is the most correct answer, the reason synovial is not the best answer is because the collateral ligaments don't make the joint a synovial joint and that is what the stem as asking for. Hyaluronic acid is found in synovial fluid. Hydroxyapatite is the matrix material for bones)
  65. MCP joints are an example of
    a. ginglymus joints
    b. trochoid joint
    c. condyloid joint
    d. ellipsoid joint
    • c
    • (trochoid is a pivot joint, ginglymus is a hinge joint, so it is either condyloid of ellipsoid. Condyloid has the concave on the distal end. The MCP joint is therefore a condyloid joint)
  66. The radiocarpal joint is an example of a
    a. ginglymus joints
    b. trochoid joint
    c. condyloid joint
    d. ellipsoid joint
    • d
    • (ginglymus=hinge, trochoid=pivot, ellipsoid has the convex end on the distal part of the joint)
  67. The 1st CMC joint is an example of
    a. ginglymus joints
    b. trochoid joint
    c. saddle joint
    d. ellipsoid joint
    • c
    • (The CMC joint refers to the 1st and is a saddle joint or a sellar joint because each surface has a concave and convex shape which also allows for 3 degrees of movemnet in this case, but normaly a sellar joint is said to have 2 degrees of freedon. May also be called an unmodified sellar joint)
  68. Synovial membrane
    a. regulates entry into joint cavity
    b. lines sheaths of tendons
    c. has lots of macrophages that mobilize quickly
    d. secretes synovial fluid
    e. all of the above
    • e
    • (synovial membrane does regulate entry into the cavity and line the sheaths of tendons. The membrane has lost of macrophages that can mobilize and enter the synovial fluid very quickly)
  69. Synovial fluid is pale yellow and is pushed into cartilage in a sponge-like
    fashion. It also helps reduce friction in joints due to.
    a. hyaluronic acid in GAG
    b. hypoxyapatite in GAG
    c. glycoproteins
    d. uncovertebral acid
    • a
    • (hyaluronic acid is a large constituent of synovial fluid. Glycoproteins help to form GAG's but aren't directly what helps reduce the friction)
  70. Hyaline cartilage is usually damaged by OA therefor is less capable of
    absorbing shock, but it is the main articular cartilage for
    friction-free movement. What type of collagen is it composed of?
    a. Type I
    b. Type II
    c. Type A
    d. Gamma
    • b
    • (Type one is for the more rigid type of cartilage like the ligaments tendons and joint capsules. Type A is the fastest type of motor nerve, it is highly myelinated and innervates extrafusal muscle, alpha 120 m/s , and also has beta 70m/s and gamma40m/s)
  71. This part up the joint helps to guide normal movement in many directions (omnidirectional)
    a. Joint capsule
    b. Organized CT
    c. Hyaline cartilage
    d. collateral ligaments
    • a
    • (the joint capsule functions to guide movement in all directions. The joint capsule is made of dense unorganized fibrous tissue and of type I collagen fibers. Collateral ligaments typically help in just on plane.)
  72. This part of the joint contributes to the proprioceotive feedback, has pain
    and mechanoreceptors and forms a layer that keeps foreign objects
    outside of the joint.
    a. Joint capsule
    b. Organized CT
    c. Hyaline cartilage
    d. collateral ligaments
    a
  73. The labrum is an example of interarticular fibrocartilage that
    a. decreases friction
    b. decreases stability
    c. Decreases congruency between joints
    d. doesn’t do anything in the joint
    • a
    • (the labrum actually increase stability in the joit. It also increases congruency between joints by deeping the socket that the convex end fits into, it also helps create the negative pressure in the joint that improves stability through the process called, atmospheric pressure)
  74. The articular ends of the bones in the knee fit together fairly tightly. This is an example of
    a. static stabilizers
    b. Joint geometry
    c. dynamic stabilizers
    d. Joint compressive forces
    e. Atmospheric pressure
    b
  75. The joint capsule, labrum, ligaments and menisci are examples of
    a. static stabilizers
    b. Joint geometry
    c. dynamic stabilizers
    d. Joint compressive forces
    e. Atmospheric pressure
    a
  76. Musculotendinous units are examples of
    a. static stabilizers
    b. Joint geometry
    c. dynamic stabilizers
    d. Joint compressive forces
    e. Atmospheric pressure
    c
  77. The weight of an individual that causes the joints ends to approximate is an example of
    a. static stabilizers
    b. Joint geometry
    c. dynamic stabilizers
    d. Joint compressive forces
    e. Atmospheric pressure
    d
  78. The air tight chamber within a joint capsule contributes the the stability of the joint via
    a. static stabilizers
    b. Joint geometry
    c. dynamic stabilizers
    d. Joint compressive forces
    e. Atmospheric pressure
    e
  79. Joints can be classied under the sellar classification. The to main types are
    a. ellipsoid and condyloid
    b. sellar and condyloid
    c. sellar and ovoid
    d. ellipsoid and ovoid
    • c
    • (ellipsoid is when the convex is distal condyloid is when the concave is distal)
  80. Under the sellar classification, ball and socket joints are considered
    a. modified sellar
    b. modified ovoid
    c. unmodified sellar
    d. unmodified ovoid
    • d
    • (ball and socket retain all 3 degrees of movement making them unmodified)
  81. The 1st CMC joint is an example of
    a. modified sellar
    b. modified ovoid
    c. unmodified sellar
    d. unmodified ovoid
    • c
    • (CMC is a saddle joint and maintains the 2 degrees of movement consistant to a true sellar joint)
  82. The MCP joint is an example of
    a. modified sellar
    b. modified ovoid
    c. unmodified sellar
    d. unmodified ovoid
    • b
    • (the MCP is ovoid but only has 2 degrees of movement)
  83. The elbow is an example of a
    a. modified sellar
    b. modified ovoid
    c. unmodified sellar
    d. unmodified ovoid
    • a
    • (the elbow has some sellar shape to it, but only has 1 degree of motion that is significant)
  84. When treating a shoulder, the plane of treatment would be
    a. parallel to the surface of and on the head of the humerus
    b. parallel to the surface of and on surface the glenoid fossa
    c. perpendicular to the surface of the acromial process
    d. parallel to the coracoid process
    • b
    • (a sounds pretty good, but just remember that the plane is relative to the concave surface and so the makes b the most correct answer)
  85. “Slop” is another word for
    a. joint play
    b. joint dysfucntion
    c. joint effusion
    d. joint style
    • a
    • This reffers to accesory motions in the joint
  86. This tissue withing the skeletal muscle is responsible for the stretch-strain curve response.
    A. non-contractile
    B. adipose
    C. contractile
    D. tendon
    A. The non-contractile connective tissue within the skeletal muscle is responsible for the viscoelasticity (which allows for slow deformation and presents with imperfect recovery) of muscle.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. The ability to stretch (upto to 1/2 times beyond its resting length)
    A. viscoelasticity
    B. viscosity
    C. elasticity
    D. extensibility
    D. Extensibility. Viscoelasticity is the ability of the muscle to slowly deform with an imperfect recovery. Elasticity is the ability of a tissue to return back to its original length. Viscosity is muscles resistance to change.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. The ability to respond to chemical, electrical, and mechanical stimuli
    A. conductivity
    B. irritability
    C. responsibility
    D. reactivity
    B. Irritability. Conductive is incorrect because muscle doesn’t conduct.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. This molecule reacts with calcium to begin the actin-myosin interaction
    a. troponin
    b. tropomyosin
    c. Z disc
    d. myosin heads
    • a. troponin. Tropomyosin is the structure the guards the binding sites of the actin
    • to prevent intereaction. Z disc is the ine where actin attach.
  90. What surrounds the muscle fibers?
    A. myomeurium
    B. epimysium
    C. endomysium
    D. perimysium
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. What surrounds the muscle fasciculus?
    A. endomysium
    B. perimysium
    C. myomeurium
    D. epimysium
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. What surrounds the muscle belly?
    A. endomysium
    B. perimysium
    C. myomeurium
    D. epimysium
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. Slow twitch muscle is
    A. oxidative/ type II
    B. oxidative/ type I
    C. glycolytic/type I
    D. glycolytic/ type II
    B. Fast twitch is described by d.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. Slow twitch muscle fiber is
    A. red/contracts at 40-84 m/s
    B. white/ contracts at 40-84 m/s
    C. red/ contracts at 90-100 ms
    D. white/ contracts at 90-100 ms
    C. Fast is desribed by c.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. Slow twitch muscle
    A. has low endurance/ aerobic
    B. has low endurance/ anaerobic
    C. has high endurance/ aerobic
    D. has high endurance/ anaerobic
    C. Fast is described by b.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. Slow twitch muscle
    A. low mitochondria count/ many fibers and neurons
    B. high mitochondria count/ many fibers and neurons
    C. high mitochondria count/ fewer fibers and neurons
    D. low mitochondria count/ fewer fibers and neurons
    C. Fast is described by d.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. Which of the following is not characteristic of slow twitch fibers?
    A. solues, hip, and back
    B. sensitive to injury
    C. resilient to atrophy
    D. postural and tonic
    C. Slow twitch muscle atrophies rather quickly. Atrophy also occurs quicker when the muscle is fight in a shortened position.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. Which of the following is not characteristic of fast twitch fibers?
    A. supply energy quick, but supply is limited
    B. reaches peak contraction quicker tha slow twitch
    C. high mitochondria counts
    D. contrast at 40-84 ms
    C. Slow twitch as relatively lower mitochondria counts than do dlow twitch muscle fibers. This is why it depelets its energy quickly.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. Which of the following is not characteristic of fast twitch muscle fibers?
    A. slow to atrophy but quick to recover
    B. biceps, triceps, gastroc
    C. fatigues rapidly
    D. inhibited by pain
    A. Fast twitch is slow to atrophy, but also takes longer than the slow twitch to recover.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. Which is not a true of type IIA and type IIX
    A. IIA has a better capacity for endurance and strength than IIX
    B. IIA has and increased oxidative capacity for training, while IIX does not
    C. IIA reaches its peach tension before IIX
    D. IIA is between type I and II, IIX is the fastest and creates the most power
    C. IIX reaches its peak tension the quickest.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. T/F ROM is dependent on the length of the muscle fibers.
    True
  102. What are the four common shapes of muscle from the notes?
    A. fusiform, triangular, rhomboidal, pennate
    B. fusiform, triangular, rhombencephalon, pennate
    C. falciform, triangular, rhomboidal, pennate
    D. fusiform, triangualr, rectangular, pennate
    A. Rhombencephalon is from neuro and is developes into the metencephalon and the myelencephalon. Falciform is the ligament from the liver that attaches it to the anterior abdominal cavity.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. Which are the two categories of long muscles?
    A. rectus and transverse muscles
    B. flat muscles and gravis longus muscles
    C. strap muscles and fusiform
    D. stretch muscles and long muscles
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. T/F In general penne muscles create greater maximal force than fusiform muscle of similar size
    • F. Penne is a type of paste that goes great with alfredo sauce. Pennate
    • muscles do creat great maximal force the fusiform of similar size.
  105. Which is and example of Unipennate muscles?
    A. sartorius
    B. posterior tibialis
    C. Quadriceps fermoris
    D. deltoid
    B. posterior tibialis, flexr policis longus is too. Quad. fem is bi-pennate, so is the gastroc. Sartorius, semi membranousus and rectus ab. are a strap muscles. Deltoid is multipennate.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. Which of the muscles would create the most power
    A. Steve’s (cross section=50cm^2)
    B. Rithea’s (cross section=495cm^2)
    C. Ryan’s (cross section=500cm^2)
    D. Kalani’s (cross section=20cm^2)
    C. the larger the cross section, the greater the contractile protein available to generate force. This is why oblique muscles can create powerful movements with limmited ROM
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. T/F Pennate have the greatest potential to create the greatest amount of tension
    T. This is because there is a direct relationship between x-sectional area and muscle tension.
  108. Hypertrophy in humans is typically not caused by
    A. an increase in muscle cells
    B. increase in number of capillary beds
    C. size of CT gets bigger
    D. an increase in actin and myosin filaments
    A. in human’s hyperplasia is disregarded for practical purposes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  109. Since hypertrophy usually takes 4-6 weeks, the initial strength gains experienced when first training are primarily due to
    A. stress-strain curve
    B. beginner’s luck
    C. neuromuscular integration
    D. physiological hypertrazation
    C. Neuromuscular intergration recruits MU that have not been active. It also coordinates the contraction of MU to create great force generations. Neuromuscular integration is usually experienced in the first 2-3 sessions and upto 3-4 weeks. This is the period before hypertrophy when the nervous system is recruiting and coordinating MU to handle the new work loads.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  110. T/F Joint effusion can cause muscle inhibition.
    T
  111. What do we call a lack of nerve supply to a muscle?
    Denervation
  112. A motor unit is
    A. all of the fascicles innervated by a sensory neuron
    B. all the muscles innervated by a motor neuron
    C. all of the muscle fibers innervated by a sensory neuron
    D. all of the muscles in a unit
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. Muscle spindle fibers are
    A. attached to the contractile tissue of extrafusal muscle fibers
    B. house the GTO
    C. connective tissue sacs attached to extrafusal CT
    D. from a contractile sac within extrafusal fibers
    C. Muscle spinal fibers are connective tissue sacs with in extrafusal muscle which attach to the connective tissue of the extrafusal fibers. The sacs house intrafusal fibers (nuclear bags and chains) which pickup the sensory of the movement of muscle and report to the reflexs and CNS.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  114. Which region of the intrafusal fibers is contractile?
    A. polar sacs
    B. polar regions
    C. central region
    D. illicit juntions
    B. The polar regions are contractile and adjust to reset the nuclear sacs and chains. The polar region is innervated by type II sensory and Gamma motor nerves.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  115. The nuclear bag fibers are
    A. slow to fast stretch/ phasic
    B. sensitive to slow stretch/ tonic
    C. sensitive to fast stretch/ phasic
    D. slow to fast stretch/ tonic
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  116. Which is not characteristic of nuclear bags?
    A. type Ia nerves
    B. detects velocity as well as amount of change (rate of change)
    C. detects amount of stretch (final result)
    D. quick response
    C. it is the nuclear chain that detects the over all change in position. The chain also has Ia nerves on it.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  117. What nerves are found in the intrafusal muscles?
    A. Ia and Alpha
    B. II and Gamma
    C. Ia and Gamma
    D. II and Alpha
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  118. Which of the following in not a function of the gamma motor funciton?
    A. contract and shorten the polar ends
    B. stimulate contractile elements of intrafusal fibers.
    C. contract the nulcear bag fibers
    D. allow for resetting of spindles after shortening of lengthening
    C. The nuclear bag contains no contractile tissues. It is only receptive tissue that is sensitive to pressure induced upon it by the contraction of relaxation of the polar ends.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  119. Which is not a characteristic of the GTO?
    A. Ib fibers that are inhibitory only
    B. cause motor contraction in the muscle
    C. found in MT juntion
    D. convey information about the force of muscle contraction
    B. The GTO do not cause motor contraction. They have no motor control. The GTO give feedback on the tension being placed on the muscle but do not record positioning.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  120. 1. In which of the following ways do you create the greatest tension within the muscle in the rectus femoris?
    A. Fast hip extension movement
    B. Slow hip extension movement
    C. Slow hip flexion movement
    D. Fast hip flexion movement
    A. Fast hip extension movement, just look at the graph in your notes (force-velocity curve). (This question was Dr. Wallman approved in class)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  121. A patient comes in with a separated symphysis pubis. The injured joint is an example of:
    A. Synovial joint
    B. Elastic joint
    C. Cartiliaginous joint
    D. Fibrous joint
    C. The joints with cartilagenous discs are cartilagenous joints. Fibrous joint would be like inferior tib/fib, syndesmosis.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  122. Ginglymus joint : Uniaxial
    A. Plane joint : Biaxial
    B. Saddle Joint : Uniaxial
    C. Ellipsoid joint : Non-axial
    D. Spheroidal joint : Triaxial
    D. A spheroidoal joints is a ball and socket joint. So it would be triaxial.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  123. T/F Periosteum is avascular.
    False
  124. All of the following are components of a synovial membrane EXCEPT:
    A. Gives proprioceptive feedback
    B. Contains macrophages
    C. Secretes synovial fluid
    D. Regulates entry into joint cavity
    A. There is some research that indicates the synovial membranes have pain receptors in them, but the lack the nerve endings for proprioceptive feedback as far as I am aware. The joint capsule is most involved in proprioception.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  125. A friend likes to crack her knuckles. She asks you what the “pop” is.
    The best answer in terms of joint stability components is:
    A. Joint geometry
    B. Dynamic stabilizer force
    C. Atmospheric pressure
    D. Joint compressive forces
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  126. All of the following are examples of static stabilizers EXCEPT:
    A. Ligament
    B. Joint capsule
    C. Meniscus
    D. Muscle
    D. Muscle is considered a dynamic stabilizer due to its properties, extensibility, irritability, contractility
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  127. An example of an unmodified oviod:
    A. Hinge joint
    B. Saddle joint
    C. Ellipsoid joint
    D. Spheroidal joint
    D. spheroidal joint. An unmidified oviod is one the retains the ability to moves in 3 degrees such as a spheroidal or ball and socket joint.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  128. Which is true about the treatment plane:
    A. Most often on convex surface
    B. Lies parallel to axis
    C. Always on concave surface
    D. Always on convex surface
    C. The treatment plane is parallel to the concave surface.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  129. A patient is unable to perform shoulder adduction. You should mobilize the patient with a/an:
    A. Superior glide
    B. Inferior glide
    C. Posterior glide
    D.Anterior glide
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  130. Articular surfaces are out of their normal articular relationship:___________
    Dislocation. Subluxed is similar, but with a subluxation, the articular surface is partial in contact even though it is out of position.

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