Systems1 Flashcards

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Systems1 Flashcards
2010-09-21 22:31:06
Systems1 Systems Test

Systems1 Flashcards
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  1. Primary flight controls are all manually operated using ___ linkages
  2. All of the secondary flight controls are ___ operated and controlled
  3. (T/F) The trim interrupt button will disengage the TAD
  4. The trim system is powered by which bus?
    The battery bus
  5. The TAD computer bases rudder trim input on what 4 factors?
    Pitch rate, altitude, airspeed, and engine torque
  6. (T/F) TAD helps to maintain a heading
    False. TAD provides directional stability.
  7. The gust lock positions the elevator in the ___ configuration
    nose down
  8. The primary hydraulic system is pressurized to ___ psi
    3000 ±120
  9. What systems are operated by the primary hydraulic system?
    Landing gear and main landing gear inboard doors, flaps, speed brake, and nose wheel steering
  10. The rod in the hydraulic service bay indicates hydraulic fluid ___
    level (NOT pressure)
  11. Minimum primary hydraulic pressure
    1800 psi
  12. A piston steps down the pressure for the return side of the reservoir to ___ psi
  13. The primary hydraulic system pressure release valve operates at ___ psi
  14. Describe the purpose of the slide valve in the power package
    The slide valve isolates the hydraulic pressure coming from the engine-driven pump, through the power package, from the rest of the hydraulic system when the emergency system is activated.
  15. What system will not be isolated from the primary hydraulic system after the emergency system is activated?
    Nose wheel steering
  16. What system, operated by the primary hydraulic system, is not part of the selector manifold?
    Nose wheel steering
  17. Hydraulic system normal operating pressure range (green on gauge)
    2880-3120 psi
  18. Hydraulic system extended scale (safe ranges above above and below normal ranges, white on gauge)
    1800-2880, 3120-3500
  19. Hydraulic system low and high cautionary pressure ranges (amber on gauge)
    1700-1800 and 3500-3600
  20. HYDR FL LO trigger
    hydraulic fluid below 1 quart
  21. The emergency hydraulic system will be used in what three circumstances?
    • (1) Primary hydraulic system failure
    • (2) engine failure
    • (3) battery bus failure
  22. Systems operated by emergency hydraulics
    • (1) landing gear and main landing gear inboard doors
    • (2) the flaps
  23. The pressure relief valve in the emergency hydraulic systems operates at ___ psi
  24. An hydraulic fuse between the primary and emergency systems allows a max leak rate of ___ and max volume of ___ to leak from the emergency system before it is isolated.
    .25 gallons/min, 20-30 cubic inches
  25. EHYD PX LO trigger
    2400 ±150 psi in the emergency hydraulic accumulator
  26. Bus for landing gear controls
    battery bus
  27. When will the gear handle illuminate red?
    • (1) when the main gear inboard doors are not closed
    • (2) when the PCL is approaching idle with the gear handle up
  28. When do the gear indicator lights illuminate red?
    • (1) when the gear or inboard doors are in transit
    • (2) when the PCL is approaching idle with the gear handle up
  29. When will the gear aural warning sound?
    • (1) when flaps LDG w/ gear UP
    • (2) PCL < mid range and airspeed < 120 even without flaps LDG and gear UP
    • (3) weight on wheels and gear handle not down
  30. The landing gear aural warning cannot be silenced if...
    • (1) gear UP and flaps LDG
    • (2) gear handle UP with aircraft on the ground
  31. (T/F) before pulling the EMER LDG GR handle, the gear handle should be placed to DOWN.
  32. Bus that normally powers the flaps
    battery bus
  33. Emergency flaps are powered by which bus?
    Hot battery bus
  34. Normal flap operation and position indication are unavailable under what two conditions?
    • (1) battery bus failure
    • (2) when the auxiliary battery is the only source of power
  35. Bus that powers the speed brake--Generator bus
  36. The nose will pitch ___ when the speed brake is extended
  37. The speed brake will automatically retract in what two circumstances?
    • (1) the flaps are extended
    • (2) the PCL is moved to MAX
  38. Bus that powers the nose wheel steering
  39. The nose wheel will turn up to ___ degrees in either direction when NSW is off
  40. With NWS, the nose wheel will turn up to ___ degrees in either direction
  41. Explain the linkage between the rudder pedals and the NWS
    A push-pull cable connects from the pedals to a small lever controlling a servo valve that hydraulically controls the actuator
  42. Describe the parking brake handle operation
    While applying the toe brakes, pull and turn the handle 90 degrees clockwise to activate.
  43. Indications of abnormal primary flight control operations include...
    • (1) uncommanded pitch, roll or yaw
    • (2) sluggish response to control inputs
  44. In case of abnormal primary flight control operations, perform the ___ checklist
  45. Two runaway trim indications
    • (1) Flight controls
    • (2) trim position indicator
  46. Checklist for runway trim
    Runaway trim checklist
  47. Two TAD failure indications
    • (1) increased effort to trim aircraft
    • (2) annunciator panel (TAD FAIL)
  48. (T/F) TAD failure has its own checklist
  49. Which systems should be considered inoperative when the HYDR FL LO indicator is lit?
    Landing gear normal extension, flap normal extension, speed brake and NWS
  50. Describe considerations if primary hydraulic pressure is between 1800 and 2880 psi
    • (1) Hydraulic operation available, but at reduced capacity
    • (2) service before next flight
  51. Possible necessary action if hydraulic pressure below 1800 psi
    Use emergency system
  52. Indications of unsafe landing gear
    • (1) lack of noticeable drag
    • (2) lack of noticeable noise
    • (3) AOA indexer not active
    • (4) inability to turn on landing or taxi lights, (5) tendency to roll (main gear)
  53. Asymmetric flaps indication
    Uncommanded lateral rolling or yawing during flap extension
  54. Indications of loss of normal flap operation
    • (1) no response to flap controls
    • (2) loss of battery bus or only power source is the auxiliary battery
    • (3) visual verification from control tower or other aircraft
  55. The 360° radial of a VOR points towards ___ north
  56. What are the 3 distinct ILS signals and their purposes?
    • (1) localizer signals, centerline control
    • (2) glideslope, approach angle
    • (3) marker beacon, progress along approach path
  57. (T/F) DME range is the lateral distance between the aircraft and the VOR
    False. DME is a direct, slant range, and is affected by altitude differential
  58. What are the 3 systems composing the T-6 flight instruments?
    • (1) Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS)
    • (2) Air Data System (ADS)
    • (3) Standby Instruments
  59. Which instrument system consists of a control panel and two 5-inch displays?
  60. Describe the standard configuration of the EFIS
    Top display: Electronic Attitude Director Indicator (EADI). Bottom display: Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI)
  61. EADI and EHSI both receiver their information from what system?
    The Attitude Heading and Reference System (AHRS)
  62. What does AHRS stand for?
    Attitude Heading and Reference System
  63. What does EHSI stand for?
    Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator
  64. What does EFIS stand for?
    Electronic Flight Instrument System
  65. What does EADI stand for?
    Electronic Attitude Director Indicator
  66. What does EID stand for?
    Electronic Instrument Display
  67. What does ADS stand for?
    Air Data System
  68. What does ADC stand for?
    Air Data Computer
  69. Describe the configuration of ADS
    • 3 EIDs:
    • (1) Airspeed Indicator (ASI)
    • (2) Altimeter
    • (3) Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI)
  70. What system provides input to the ADS?
    The Air Data Computer (ADC)
  71. (T/F) The ADC provides information corrected for temperature, position, and instrument error.
  72. List the 5 standby instruments
    • (1) airspeed
    • (2) attitude
    • (3) altitude
    • (4) turn and bank
    • (5) magnetic compass
  73. Describe the connections for the primary and secondary pitot/static systems
    Primary: provides info to the ADS through the ADC. Secondary: provides pitot/static pressure to the standby instruments
  74. Locate the primary and secondary pitot/static sources
    Primary: pitot tube on right wing, static ports on fuselage. Secondary: pitot tube on left wing, static ports on fuselage.
  75. EHSI power bus
    Generator bus
  76. EIDs power bus
    Generator bus
  77. ADC power bus
    Generator bus
  78. EADI power bus
    Battery bus
  79. Standby instrument power bus
    Battery bus
  80. What is the only electronic instrument system powered by the battery bus?
  81. If the battery bus fails, the standby instruments can still receive power from the ___
    auxiliary battery
  82. The EADI attitude indicator scale is graduated in ___ increments within ___ of the horizon line, and in ___ increments from ___ to ___ from the horizon line.
    2.5°, 30°, 5°, 30°, 85°
  83. The EADI declutter mode will simplify the display when pitch exceeds + ___ or - ___, or the roll angle exceeds ___.
    30°, 20°, 65°
  84. The recovery chevrons appear in the EADI when the pitch attitude is between ___ and ___ nose high or low.
    40°, 90°
  85. In enroute mode, the EHSI can display what three items in the upper left corner?
    • (1) distance to the next selected point
    • (2)ground speed (GS)
    • (3) time to go (TTG)
  86. In enroute mode, the EHSI can display what three items in the upper right corner?
    • (1) selected navigation course (CRS) or desired track (DTK) for GPS
    • (2) heading (HDG) dialed in under the heading bug
  87. What does the vertical 3-letter display to the left of the EHSI indicate?
    Primary navigation source (VOR, GPS, etc)
  88. In enroute mode, the EHSI displays what items in the two bottom corners?
    Bearing pointer source and distance for the selected number 1 and number 2 nav sources.
  89. Describe the function of the EHSI HDG knob
    The heading (HDG) knob sets the heading bug. Turn to set, or pull to quickly set to the present aircraft heading.
  90. Describe the function of the EHSI CRS knob
    The course (CRS) knob sets the course pointer and digital readout. Pull to set a direct path to the selected NAVAID (VOR) or waypoint (GPS).
  91. Describe the function of the EHSI HSI button
    The Horizontal Situation Indicator (HSI) button toggles between the navigation data page and the DG data page. If in the nav map mode, will return to HSI normal mode.
  92. Describe the function of the EHSI NAV button
    The NAV sensor select button cycles between the VOR and DME modes and GPS modes, with and without TTG and GS.
  93. Describe the function of the EHSI bearing pointer selector buttons
    Cycles bearing pointer between VOR and GPS sources, or removes the pointer from the display. One for each of the two pointers.
  94. Describe the function of the EHSI MAP button
    For GPS sources, cycles through: waypoints; waypoints w/ grnd stations; waypoints w/ airports; waypoints w/ grnd stations and airports.
  95. What buttons returns the EHSI from the MAP function back to the normal mode?--HSI
  96. (T/F) On the EHSI display, the number over the range circle represents the radius of the circle.
    True. This is referred to as the "half-range" in the book, because the full display has approx. twice the radius.
  97. List the EHSI range scales available ("half-range" or radius ranges).
    2.5, 5, 10, 20, 40, 80, 120, 160, and 500 NM
  98. Describe the function of the EHSI ARC button
    Presents a large scale view showing only 85° of the compass
  99. What button is used to back out of the EHSI ARC MAP mode back to the regular MAP mode?
  100. Describe the function of the EHSI and EADI CMP buttons
    The composite (CMP) button toggles the composite display on either screen.
  101. (T/F) If either cockpit selects composite mode on one of the EFIS displays, both cockpits display this format.
  102. Describe the composite EFIS display
    Based on the EADI display. Adds course pointer and deviation bar, selected course (CRS), selected heading (HDG), selected NAV sensor, TO and FROM info, distance info, GS/TTG or DME HOLD annunciation
  103. In approach mode, both the EADI and EHSI add what info to the display?
    Glideslope and localizer
  104. (T/F) In approach mode, the EHSI adds marker beacon information
    False. Only the EADI does this.
  105. Describe the sequence and appearance of the marker beacon information displayed in the EADI on approach--Outer marker (OM) in blue, middle marker (MM) in amber, and inner marker (IM) in white
  106. At 1,000' above the antenna, what are the width and length of a beacon marker signal?
    2,400' wide by 4,200' in length
  107. Describe EADI behavior when pitch or roll information fails
    Removes blue sky field, horizon line, sky pointer, and the roll and pitch scales. Displays "ATTITUDE FAIL" in red letters enclosed in a red box. Red Xs cover ILS info
  108. Describe EHSI behavior when heading data becomes unavailable
    Displays "HDG" in red and enclosed in red box at top. Also, red Xs cover course and heading data and ILS info.
  109. The VSI shows climbs or decents in ___ from ___ to ___.
    Feet/minute, 0, 6000
  110. What does ASI stand for?
    AirSpeed Indicator
  111. The ASI indicates airspeed in ___ knot increments from ___ to ___ knots, and ___ knot increments from ___ to ___ knots.
    5, 40, 320, 10, 320, 400
  112. The ASI displays mach number starting from mach ___.
  113. A "barber pole" needle on the ASI indicates ___ and ___ as altitude increases.
    Vmo ( maximum operating airspeed), decreases
  114. The affected EID will display ___ if the ADC output or channel is bad
    "ADC A FAIL" or "ADC B FAIL"
  115. The EIDs will display ___ if the ADC fails
    "ADC FAIL"
  116. The standby airspeed indicator displays airspeed from ___ to ___knots
    60, 350
  117. What indicates that the standby attitude indicator has lost power?
    A red "OFF" flag
  118. The standby attitude indicator will continue to provide pitch and roll within ___ degrees for at least ___ minutes after the "OFF" flag appears.
    6, 9
  119. On the standby turn and bank indicator, what does a red dot indicate?
    That turn rate is not available. Note that slip information is always available since its indicator is mechanical.
  120. When should compass reading be taken?
    During level, unaccelerated flight.
  121. What is the standby attitude indicator's circuit breaker labeled?
  122. For ILS glideslope information, the a ___ vertical scale is displayed.
  123. The Baro-set knob on the altimeter is used to set the ___.
  124. The EHSI 360° display scale is divided into ___ and ___ degree increments.
    5, 10
  125. Describe the functions of the "PULL TO CAGE" knob on the standby attitude indicator.
    Pull and turn CW to cage, CCW to uncage
  126. The altimeter displays pressure in what units?
    Both millibars and inches of mercury
  127. Where is the AOA computer located?
    On the avionics shelf under the front cockpit glareshield
  128. From what 3 sources does the AOA computer receive input?
    (1) AOA vane near the left wingtip, (2) flap position microswitch, and (3) landing gear (while extended)
  129. Describe the uses and positions of the markings on the AOA gauge.
    Green band from 10-11 units: normal approach speed. White triangle at 4.9 units: max range. White diamond at 8.8 units: max endurance. Red line at 18 units: stall.
  130. For a normal approach, the optimum landing airspeed is about ___ knots and ___ approximately ___ knot for every ___ pounds of fuel.
    100, decreases, 1, 100
  131. (T/F) The T-6 has an audible stall warning.
  132. When is the stick shaker activated?
    Approximately 5-10 knots above stall speed (15.5 units on the AOA gauge)
  133. Describe AOA indications when the LOW test switch is activated.
    On-speed approach indications will be shown (amber donut, 10.5 ± .25 units)
  134. Describe AOA indications when the HIGH test switch is activated.
    High AOA approach indications will be shown (green chevron, 18 ± .25 units) and operate stick shaker.
  135. On the ground, the AOA indexer will display ___
    the red chevron
  136. AOA system power bus
  137. AOA vane anti-ice heat power bus
  138. What is the range for the accelerometer?
    6 to +10 Gs
  139. Which clock button is used to switch between modes?
    SEL (Select)
  140. (T/F) The CTL button is used to set minutes in clock LT mode.
    False. Minutes and seconds are synced to the GMT time.
  141. What inputs will allow you to set the clock time?
    Press SEL and CTL at the same time.
  142. Describe the annunciator light color coding (3 colors)
    Red: warning; amber: caution; green: system status
  143. Bus for main annunciator panel, master warning and caution lights, and fire annunciator
    Redundant generator and battery
  144. Bus for warning tone generator--generator
  145. Master warning tone description
    Decaying tone
  146. Where is the Flight Data Recorder (FDR) located?
    Left avionics bay
  147. The green "MAINT" IDARS annunciator illuminates when IDARS reaches ___ % full
  148. Bus for IDARS
  149. Describe the clock modes
    • (1) GMT
    • (2) LT: local time
    • (3) ET: elapsed time (count up or down)
    • (4) FT: flight time (does not function on T-6)
  150. UHF frequency range, increment size, and available channels
    225.00-399.975 MHz, 25 KHz, 7000
  151. VHF frequency range, increment size, and available channels
    118.00-151.95 MHz, 25 KHz, 1358
  152. (T/F) The UHF radio automatically monitors guard frequency (243.00)
  153. (T/F) The VHF radio automatically monitors guard frequency (121.50)
    False. Only the UHF radio monitors guard automatically.
  154. Describe VHF/UHF toggle switch operation.
    Up for UHF, down for VHF
  155. In what situation would you need to use the UHF backup controls?
    RMU failure or loss of main battery power
  156. (T/F) An automatic selector switch toggles between top and bottom UHF antennas.
  157. Up to ___ channel presets are available on the UHF backup control unit?
  158. How do you activate the UHF backup control unit?
    With the "OFF/PUSH TEST" knob. Turn CW.
  159. Where is the UHF backup control located?
    Front cockpit only
  160. Bus for VHF radio
  161. Bus for primary and backup UHF control
    Battery and auxiliary battery
  162. Bus for intercom power
  163. What are the 2 intercom modes?
    HOT and COLD
  164. Describe audio function when the ALTN/NORM switch is set to ALTN
    Amplifier is bypassed (good if it isn't working) and only raw audio for UHF comm and aural warning is provided. The intercom doesn't work.
  165. Where is the marker beacon sensitivity switch located?
    Front cockpit audio control panel only
  166. Bus for audio control panel
  167. Describe markings on the RMU transfer switches
    White diamond
  168. Describe markings on the RMU mode switches
    White rectangle
  169. Bus for RMU
  170. On the RMU, the large frequency knob controls ___ increments, and the small on ___ increments. Pulling the small one out and turning controls ___ increments.
    10 MHz, 1 MHz, 25 KHz
  171. (T/F) If the UHF is set to BOTH mode in the RMU, it will transmit on both main and standby freqs
    False. It will scan both main and GUARD receivers
  172. On the RMU, how do you access the special functions page?
    PAGE button
  173. (T/F) Selecting BOTH mode on UHF will transmit on GUARD
    False. GUARD must be turned on in the special functions page.
  174. If the backup radio control unit is used, what will be displayed on the RMU?
  175. The RMU holds presets for ___ UHF, ___ VHF, and ___ NAV frequencies.
    20, 20, 10
  176. UHF radio direct tuning is accomplished by...
    holding down the appropriate transfer key for at least 3 seconds, then dialing in the new frequency.
  177. The RMU preflight test is initiated by...
    applying power to the unit.
  178. Navigation receiver location
    Right avionics bay
  179. VOR frequency range
    108.0-117.95 MHz
  180. The VOR signal is received through what antenna, and where is it located?
    The NAV/GS/ ILS antennas mounted on each side of the vertical stabilizer
  181. Marker beacon antenna location
    Under the fuselage just in front of the vertical fin.
  182. For ILS operation, the ___ frequency is entered into the RMU as the primary navigation frequency
  183. Bus and circuit breaker label for navigation receiver
    VHF NAV on generator bus
  184. The DME signal is reliable up to ___ nautical miles
  185. DME antenna location
    Under the fuselage, in front of the marker beacon antenna
  186. DME receiver location
    Right avionics bay
  187. When DME hold is activated, the words "DME HOLD" will appear on the ___ below the primary nav frequency.
  188. Describe the EHSI display when DME hold is active.
    The frequency (in white) will replace the GS readout below the distance field, followed by an amber "H". TTG is removed.
  189. Bus for DME receiver
  190. Air traffic control uses Mode ___ and ___ separate codes for traffic control.
    A, 4096
  191. The ___ supplies the transponder with altitude information
    Air Data Computer (ADC)
  192. Transponder Mode ___ adds ___ information to regular squawk and shows up on the RMU as ___.
    C, altitude, ALT
  193. Location of the transponder
    Right avionics bay
  194. Location of transponder antenna
    Under the fuselage, just in front of the wing
  195. Bus for transponder and circuit breaker label
    Generator, XPDR
  196. After pressing the IDENT button, the IDENT signal will transmit for ___ and then return to the previous mode.
    20 seconds
  197. Location of NACWS computer
    Left avionics bay
  198. bus for NACWS
  199. 2 NACWS antenna locations
    One on top of the cowling in front of the windscreen, and another below the fuselage near the wing trailing edge.
  200. During the NACWS startup self test, the screen will display ___.
  201. While on the ground, NACWS will display ___ after the self test is completed.
  202. NACWS shows relative locations for up to ___ of the highest threat aircraft
  203. Describe the 3 icons depicting traffic in NACWS
    Upward or downward pointing triangles: traffic above or below respectively. Rectangle: traffic on altitude (±300 ft).
  204. NACWS traffic is displayed with altitude separation between ___ and ___ vertical separation.
    400, 900
  205. NACWS traffic is displayed with no altitude tag if it is ___ to ___ feet off altitude
    1000, 2700
  206. NACWS traffic with no altitude transponder is displayed as a ___.
    white circle
  207. How does NACWS display a traffic advisory?
    Yellow and flashing
  208. (T/F) NACWS active mode is used when passive mode is unavailable.
  209. NACWS active mode interrogates other aircraft within ___ NM
  210. (T/F) In active mode, NACWS displays only aircraft it considers a threat.
  211. NACWS range settings available
    1.5, 3, 5, 10, 20 NM
  212. What are the dimensions of the NACWS enroute mode protection zone?
    ±500 ft vertically, 1 NM horizontally
  213. In enroute mode, aircraft within ___ seconds of penetrating the NACWS protection zone are labeled a threat.
  214. What are the dimensions of the NACWS landing mode protection zone?
    ±500 ft vertically, 0.1 NM horizontally
  215. In enroute mode, aircraft within ___ seconds of penetrating the NACWS protection zone are labeled a threat.
  216. At ___ NM range, NACWS operates in ___ mode. At all other ranges it operates in ___ mode.
    1.5, landing, enroute
  217. When is the NACWS display opened?
    Automatically when a traffic alert is generated, or when the NACWS trigger is depressed on the stick.
  218. TAS Normal/Above/Below modes are selected by ___.
    A switch on the control stick
  219. TAS normal mode is ±___ ft
  220. TAS above mode is + ___, - ___ ft
    8700, 2700
  221. TAS below mode is +___, - ___ ft
    2700, 8700
  222. TAS ranges available
    3, 5, 10, 20, 40 NM
  223. TAS computer location
    left avionics bay
  224. TAS computer receives altitude and speed data from the ___, heading data from ___, and present position from the ___.
  225. Bus for TAS--Generator
  226. TAS tracks aircraft within ___ NMs and within ___ feet above or below. Only those within the selected range are displayed though.
    40, 10,000
  227. Two levels of TAS advisory
    proximate traffic and traffic advisory
  228. TAS proximity traffic is displayed as a ___ indicating the intruding aircraft is within ±___ feet and within ___ NM range.
    Filled white diamond, 1200, 5
  229. (T/F) an downward pointing arrow next to traffic in TAS indicates that the traffic is below you.
    False. The arrow represents the trend, in this case the traffic is descending.
  230. TAS traffic advisories are displayed as a ___.
    yellow filled circle
  231. TAS traffic advisories are given when the time to the closest point of the intruding aircraft is ___ to ___ seconds.
    15, 30
  232. When is TAS in sensitivity level A?
    landing gear extended
  233. When is TAS in sensitivity level B?
    Landing gear retracted.
  234. In sensitivity level A, when will TAS issue a traffic advisory? (3 answers)
    • (1) vert. separation of <600ft within 20 sec
    • (2) vert. separation of <600ft and less than 0.2 NM
    • (3) horiz. separation from non-altitude reporting aircraft within 15 sec. or 0.2 NM.
  235. In sensitivity level B, when will TAS issue a traffic advisory? (3 answers)
    • (1) vert. separation of <800ft within 30 sec
    • (2) vert. separation of <800ft and less than 0.55 NM
    • (3) horiz. separation from non-altitude reporting aircraft within 20 sec. or 0.55 NM.
  236. TAS displays "other" traffic as an ___, indicating relative altitude >±___ feet, or > ___ NM distant
    open white diamond, 1200, >5 NM
  237. TAS shares a screen with the ___.
  238. GPS antenna location
    Top of vertical stabilizer
  239. (T/F) If the front cockpit GPS is not functioning, the back display may be used.
    False. The front display must be on and functioning properly or the back will not work.
  240. Bus for front GPS
  241. Bus for rear GPS
  242. What action should be taken if the GPS displays "TEST FAIL" instead of "ANNUN ON"?
    Cycle power to the unit
  243. The GPS stores information on the right side of the self-test display in ___ storage so that it is nonvolatile.
  244. The GPS can store up to ___ flight plans with up to ___ waypoints each. They are labeled ___ through ___.
    25, 30, 1, 25
  245. The active flight plan in the GPS is always ___.
    FPL 0