Biol 120 Exam 1 part 1

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Biol 120 Exam 1 part 1
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2010-09-26 22:30:15
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Microbiology Rawat
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Exam 1 Flashcards
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  1. Microbes
    SA/V & Nutrient uptake
    Growth rate is proportional to nutrient uptake
  2. Bacteria Storage Form of Sugar
    • Usually glycogen
    • Sometimes cellulose
    • Never starch
  3. Prokaryote Cell Membrane
    Protein Anchor
    Site of many proteins for transport and bioenergetics
  4. Prokaryote Cell Membrane
    Energy Conservation
    Membrane is used for proton motif force
  5. Triclosan
    Chemical in soap that inhibits enoyl reductase, killing prokaryotes
  6. Chemoorganotroph
    Use organic molecules (glucose, acetate, etc) to affix O2
  7. Chemolithotrophs
    Use inorganic molecules (H2, Fe, NH4+) to affix O2
  8. Hopanoids
    Present instead of sterols in archaea
  9. Ether Linkage
    Used instead of ester linkage for lipid linkage in archaea
  10. Lipid Composition of Bacteria
    Phospholipids
  11. Lipid Composition of Archaea
    • Sulfolipids
    • Glycolipids
    • Nonpolar isoprenoid lipids
    • Phospholipids
  12. 3 Characteristics of Active Transport
    • 1. Saturation Effect
    • 2. Highly Specific
    • 3. Number of transport proteins is highly regulated
  13. 3 Types of Simple Transport
    • Driven by energy of proton motif force
    • 1. Antiporter
    • 2. Uniporter
    • 3. Symporter
  14. Antiporter
    Transport a molecule across a membrane while simulataneously transporting a second molecule in the opposite direction.
  15. Uniporter
    Transports a molecule in a single direction across the membrane
  16. Symporter
    Cotransporters. Transport one molecule along with another substance, usually a proton.
  17. Group Translocation
    Involves a series of proteins in the transport event. Driven by phosphoenolypyruvate
  18. Phosphoenolpyruvate
    Drives group translocation
  19. ABC System
    • Transport involving three components:
    • 1. A substrate binding protein
    • 2. A membrane-integrated transporter
    • 3. ATP hydrolyzing protein
  20. Membrane Transporters
    (Alpha Helix)
    All membrane transporters contain 12 alpha helix domains that weave back and forth through the membrane to form a channel
  21. Periplasmic Binding Protein
    ATP Binding Protein
    • Involved in ABC transport
    • Periplasmic Binding Protein is on the outside of the membrane while the ATP binding protein is on the inside
  22. Sec System
    Translocase. Used to transport proteins out of cell or into membrane
  23. How do bacteria (and some archaea) maintain shape and rigidity?
    Cell Wall
  24. What acids cause cell wall to be negatively charged?
    • Teichoic acid
    • Lipoteichoic acid
  25. Two Sugar Derivitives of Peptidoglycan
    • N-acetylglucosamine
    • N-acetylmuramic acid
  26. Amino Acids of Peptidoglycan
    • L-alanine
    • D-alanine
    • D-glutamic acid
    • Lysine or DAP
  27. Techoic Acid of Peptidoglycan
    Used to attach bacteria to host cell
  28. Outer membrane of Gram negative bacteria
    Outer membrane are anchored to peptidoglycan via lypoproteins
  29. Paripathis Space
    Area between peptidoglycan and other layers of cell wall
  30. Lipopolysaccharide (LPS) layer
    • Outer membrane of gram negative bacteria.
    • 1. Polysaccharid portion has two components: O antigen and Core Polysaccharide
    • 2. Lipid portion called Lipid A: fatty acids connected to amine group
  31. Lipid A of LPS
    Causes inflamation when immune system kills bacteria
  32. How many carbons are in Core Polysaccharide of LPS?
    7 (this is odd)
  33. Outer membrane has a lot of porins for movement of small hydrophilic molecules
    (2 types)
    • 1. Non-specific: Water filled
    • 2. Specific: Have binding site for specific substance
  34. Slime Layer
    Loosely associated layer
  35. Capsule
    • Tightly associated amino acid polymer.
    • Usually associated with disease causing
    • 1. Protects from dessication
    • 2. Adherence to cells via biofilms
    • 3. Prevention of phagocytosis
  36. Bacterial DNA
    (location and binding proteins)
    Found in nucleoid. No histones, but have binding proteins. Circular chromosome.
  37. Plasmids
    (Shape and function)
    Small circular DNA. Don't usually have necessary genes, but have genes that give selective advantage in various environments.
  38. Drugs ending in -mycin
    Target bacterial ribosomes. Archaeal ribosomes are not effected. They are too similar to eukaryotes.
  39. Thylakoid Membranes
    Phototrophs have these. They are folds in plasma membrane that function in the light reactions of photosynthesis.
  40. Carboxisomes
    Surrounded by a protein membrane. Contain rubisco which is used for affixing CO2
  41. Gas Vessicles
    Protein coat that is permeable to gases, but not liquid. They are used for buoyancy in photosynthetic bacteria
  42. Enterosomes
    • Found in intestinal (enteric) bacteria
    • Metabolize enzymes in the intestine
  43. Pilli
    • Usually found on gram negative bacteria
    • Involved in conjugation
    • Made of pillin
    • Bind viruses
    • Motility
    • Composed of flagellin
    • Hook- Wide region at base of filament. Connects filament to motor portion of base.
    • Motor- Central rod that passes through series of rings.
    • L Ring- Gram neg: Anchored to LPS layer
    • P Ring- Peptidoglycan layer
    • MS & C Rings- Cytoplasmic Membrane and cytoplasm
    • Mot Proteins- Generate torque
    • Fli Proteins- Motor switch, reverses direction
  44. How Flagella Works
    • Rotor: Central rod, L, P, C, and MS Rings- together called the Basal Body
    • Stator: Mot Proteins surrounding basal body

    Proton movement through Mot Proteins drives rotation.
  45. Fimbriae
    Shorter than flagella. Used for cell to adhere to surfaces
  46. Vocab:
    1. Single Flagella
    2. Single Flagella at Each Pole
    3. Tuft of Flagella at One or Both Ends
    4. Evenly Distributed Flagella All Over Surface
    • 1. Monotrichous
    • 2. Amphitrouchous
    • 3. Lophotrichous
    • 4. Peritrichous
  47. Chemotaxis
    • Drawn toward chemicals of food or other bacteria
    • 1. Spacial Gradient- Conc. of chem in space
    • 2. Temporal Gradient- Is conc. increasing or decreasing
  48. Phototaxis
    Drawn toward light
  49. Antigens on bacterial surface (3)
    • H Antigen- Flagellar antigen
    • O Antigen- LPS
    • K Antigen- Capsular antigen
  50. Endospores
    • Produced in detrimental environment
    • Resist heat, chemicals, radiation
  51. Cycle of Spore Formation
    Vegetative Cell -> Sporulating Cell -> Mature Spore -> Germination (repeat)
  52. Seven Stages of Endospore Formation
    • 1. DNA becomes dense
    • 2. Asymetric Cell Division
    • 3. Endospore septum grows around protoplast
    • 4. Forespore formation, Primordial cortex formed between two membranes, dehydration
    • 5. Calcium incorporation, dehydration, coat layers formed
    • 6. Maturation (development of heat resistant chemicals)
    • 7. Lysis of cell and release of endospore
  53. 4 Properties of Viruses
    • 1. Infectious
    • 2. Must use host to manufacture components
    • 3. Genome codes for proteins host can't provide
    • 4. Self assemble
  54. Capsid
    (virus)
    Protein case, arranged in precise repetitive order
  55. Capsomer
    Larger capsid. More elaborate with more types of proteins. Smallest thing to be seen with an electron microscope
  56. Nucleocapsid
    Complete package of nucleic acids and proteins
  57. Icosahedron
    • 20 faces, 12 vertices
    • Most efficient arrangement of subunits
  58. Lysozyme
    Enzyme carried by virus to produce hole in cell wall to enter or lyse
  59. Reverse Transcriptase
    Carried by retroviruses to convert RNA into DNA
  60. Titer
    Measure of virus quantity
  61. Plaque Assay
    • Each plaque is from a single virion
    • Plaque- cleared area of plate
  62. 5 Steps of Virus Replication
    • 1. Attachment (Absorption) into host
    • 2. Penetration (entry, injection) of virion or genome
    • 3. Synthesis- of viral nucleic acid and proteins
    • 4. Assembly- of capsids and pachaging of viral genomes (maturation)
    • 5. Release- of mature virions from cell
  63. Latent Period
    Eclipse + Maturation
    • Eclipse- When viruses attach to host and are unable to affect other cells
    • Maturation- Titer increases as new viruses are formed, but they are trapped in host cell
  64. Burst Size
    Number of viruses released from host
  65. Attachment
    (virus)
    Attach to specific receptor of host
  66. What does it mean that a cell is "permissive to a virus"?
    Cell allowed viral genome to enter
  67. Restriction Endonucleases
    How do they defend cell? How do viruses get around this?
    • Destroy double strand viral DNA after it enters.
    • Virus can use glucosylation or methylation to mark DNA for protection from restriction enzymes.
    • Virus can also encode proteins to inhibit restriction system.
  68. Seven Classes of Viruses
    • 1. dsDNA
    • 2. ssDNA
    • 3. dsRNA
    • 4. ssRNA +
    • 5. ssRNA -
    • 6. ssRNA w/ DNA intermediate
    • 7. dsDNA w/ RNA intermediate
  69. Shapes of Viruses & Examples
    • 1. Helical (Tobacco mosaic virus)
    • 2. Polyhedral (Adenoviruses)
    • 3. Spherical (Influenza)
    • 4. Bacteriophage (T4)
  70. Naked Virus vs Enveloped Virus
    • Naked: Nucleocapsid
    • Enveloped: Nucleocapsid inside envelope
  71. Bacteriophage Anatomy
  72. Early Proteins
    • Synthesized soon after infection
    • Necessary for replication of virus nucleic acids (poymerases)
    • Typically act catalytically
    • Synthesized in smaller amounts
  73. Late Proteins
    • Synthesized later in infection
    • Include proteins of virus coat
    • Typically structural components
    • Synthesized in larger amounts
  74. Retrovirus Structure and Function
  75. Retrovirus Genome
    • Two identical ssRNA+ molecules
    • gag gene: structural proteins
    • pol gene: reverse transcriptase and integrase
    • env gene: encode envelope proteins
  76. Animal RNA Viruses
    Nonenveloped:
    Enveloped:
    • Nonenveloped: ssRNA, dsRNA
    • Enveloped: ssRNA only
  77. Effects of Virus on Animal Cell (5)
    • 1. Cell fusion
    • 2. Virus present but not replicating=lysis
    • 3. Slow release of virus w/o cell death
    • 4. Lysis
    • 5. Tumor Cell
  78. Prion
    • abnormal protein with a lot of beta sheets.
    • transmissible spongiform encephatopathies (TSE)
    • Turns other proteins abnormal
    • Mad Cow Disease
  79. Generation Time aka Doubling Time
    Time it takes for bacteria to reproduce
  80. Graph (log of viable cells)
    Lag Phase
    Exponential growth phase
    Downslope
    • Lag Phase- small slow. Bacteria still getting used to medium
    • Exponential growth phase- When generation time is measured. Keep growing until resources run out
    • Downslope- bacteria consume eachother (cell walls)
  81. Spread Plate Method vs Pour Plate Method
    • Spread plate- hockey stick to spread on medium
    • Pour plate- bacteria diluted and poured along with medium
  82. Common errors in viable cell counts
    • 1. Innoculation size
    • 2. Culture medium
    • 3. Incubation conditions and length
  83. Turbidity
    • Cells reflect light
    • turbidity is proportional to the number of cells
  84. Continuous Culture
    Chemostat
    Steady state. Cell number and nutrient status remain constant.

    Chemostat adds medium, air, and removes dead cells
  85. Growth Yield
    Concentration of nutrient in limiting amount
  86. Factors Influencing Microbial Growth
    Macronutrients
    Micronutrients
    Siderophores
    • Macronutrients- Carbon, nitrogen, water, etc. (need a lot)
    • Micronutrients- cofactors and growth factors (need a little)
    • Siderophores excreted to obtain iron
  87. Microbial nutrition chart
    Categorized by energy source and carbon source
  88. Chemicall defined media vs Chemically undefined media
    • Chemically defined- precise amount of purified chemicals and distilled water
    • Chemically undefined- protein and amino acid based (better)
  89. Selective Medium
    Allows growth of some organisms and inhibits others
  90. Differential medium
    Identify organism by biochemical difference between two organisms that grow equally well on certain medium
  91. Enriched Medium
    • Add nutrients that allow organism to grow that wouldn't normally
    • ex. bile and crystal violet- selects for gram negative
    • ex. lactose fermentation- select for organism that ferments lactose. Read with pH meter
  92. Temperature Extremophiles
    • Psychorophile - 4
    • Mesophile- 39
    • Thermophile- 60
    • Hyperthermophile- 106
  93. Obligate Aerobe
    Needs oxygen
  94. Obligate anaerobes
    Die in oxygen environement
  95. Facultative Anaerobes
    Use oxygen and other electron acceptor. Can survive in oxygen but doesn't need it
  96. Microaerophilic
    Require low oxygen levels
  97. Aerotolerant anaerobes
    Don't use oxygen but aren't killed by it
  98. Sodium thioglycolate
    Used to reduce oxygen in lab. Gives layers in broth of varied oxygen concentrations
  99. Aerobes vs Anaerobes in flast
    Lab setting
    • Aerobes:
    • 1. Vigorously shake flask
    • 2. Bubbling sterilized air
    • 3. Large headspace

    • Anaerobes
    • 1. Fill tube so no headspace
    • 2. Reducing agent (reduce O2 to H2O) ex. thiogycolate
  100. Toxic forms of O2
  101. Acidophile Nomenclature

    Adaptations of acidophiles & alkaliphiles
    • Obligate- Needs acidic environment
    • Tolerant- will survive in acid but doesn't prefer

    Acidophiles- adapt membrane stability under high proton concentration

    Alkaliphiles- adapt Na+ gradient instead of H+ gradient
  102. Halophiles
    Osmophiles
    Xerophiles
    • Halophiles- salt
    • Osmophiles- sugar
    • Xerophiles- dry environment
  103. To maintain osmolarity in salty environment
    • 1. pump inorganic ions
    • 2. increase synthesis of organic solute (Compatable solutes= don't inhibit biochemistry or cell processes)
  104. Bacteriocidal
    Bacteriostatic
    Decontamination
    Disinfection
    Sterilization
    • Bacteriocidal- kill bacteria
    • Bacteriostatic- inhibit growth of bacteria
    • Decontamination- treatment to make inanimate surface safe to handle
    • Disinfection- Eliminate all pathogens, but not all microbes
    • Sterilization- Eliminate all microbes
  105. Physical Antimicrobial Control (3 methods)
    • 1. Heat- high temp for long time to get microbe and endospores
    • 2. Radiation
    • 3. Filtration
  106. Autoclave
    Used to sterilize. use steam heat pressure at temp above boiling point
  107. Thermal Death Times
    Time it takes to kill cells at certain temp
  108. Decimal Reduction Time
    Time required for ten-fold reduction of population density at a given temperature
  109. Electromagnetic Radiation (3 methods to control microbial growth)
    • 1. UV radiation- decontaminate air and water
    • 2. Ionizing radiation- penetrate light absorbing materials and break DNA
    • 3. heat
  110. Best filter size
    • 0.2um filter
    • Used especially for heat sensitive mediums (mediums that can't be heated)
    • HEPA filter traps bacteria
  111. Which of the following statements about the intracellular state of a virus is NOT correct?

    a) The virus particle is referred to as a
    virion.
    b) New copies of the virus genome are produced.
    c) The virus replicates.
    d)The components that make up the virus coat are synthesized.
    a) The virus particle is referred to as a virion.
  112. The smallest morphological unit of a virus that can be seen with the electron microscope is the:

    A) capsomer.
    B) viral nucleic acid.
    C) virus spikes.
    D) capsid.
    A) capsomer.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. Which of the following statements does NOT describe a factor affecting the efficiency of plating in quantitative virology?

    A) Some viruses produce many incomplete virus particles during infection.
    B) The viral mutation rate may be so high that many virions contain defective genomes.
    C) Some virions do not successfully infect cells.
    D) The virus successfully infects a host cell and causes the formation of a plaque.
    D) The virus successfully infects a host cell and causes the formation of a plaque.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  114. During the first few minutes after a virus infects a cell, the virus is said to undergo:
    A) attachment
    B) entry
    C) eclipse
    D) titer
    C) eclipse
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  115. Restriction enzymes are specific for:
    A) double-stranded RNA viruses.
    B) single-stranded RNA viruses.
    C) single-stranded DNA viruses.
    D) double-stranded DNA viruses.
    D) double-stranded DNA viruses.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  116. What type of virus requires an enzyme known as reverse transcriptase?
    A) smallpox virus
    B) polioviruses
    C) bacterial viruses
    D) retroviruses
    D) retroviruses
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  117. T4 DNA is protected from host defenses by glycosylation of:
    A) guanine.
    B) cytosine.
    C) thymine.
    D) adenine.
    B) cytosine.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  118. Which of the following viruses causes a latent infection?
    A) lambda
    B) T4
    C) herpes simplex virus
    D) P1
    C) herpes simplex virus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  119. During a retroviral infection, where is the RNA converted into DNA?
    A) in the cytoplasm within an uncoated viral core particle
    B) in the virus itself, before entry into the host cell
    C) in the host cell's nucleus
    D) in the cytoplasm associated with the endoplasmic reticulum
    A) in the cytoplasm within an uncoated viral core particle
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  120. Viroids possess what type of nucleic acid?
    A) double-stranded DNA
    B) single-stranded RNA
    C) single-stranded DNA
    D) double-stranded RNA
    B) single-stranded RNA
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  121. A prion particle contains:
    A) polysaccharide.
    B) protein.
    C) RNA.
    D) DNA.
    B) protein.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  122. Which of the following is NOT one of the three distinct mechanisms by which prion disease occurs?
    A) inherited prion disease
    B) sporadic prion disease
    C) endogenous prion disease
    D) infectious prion disease
    C) endogenous prion disease
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  123. Which statement regarding the cytoplasmic membrane is NOT correct?
    A) Hopanoids are present in the cytoplasmic membranes of many Bacteria and serve to strengthen and stabilize the membrane.
    B) The inner surface of the cytoplasmic membrane interacts with proteins involved in energy-yielding reactions.
    C) The cytoplasmic membrane is a highly fluid structure in which proteins are free to move among the phospholipids.
    D) The general structure of the cytoplasmic membrane is a phospholipid bilayer.
    C) The cytoplasmic membrane is a highly fluid structure in which proteins are free to move among the phospholipids.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  124. In a peritrichous arrangement of flagella, how are the flagella distributed over the organism?
    A) A single flagellum is attached at both ends of the cell.
    B) A single flagellum is attached at one end of the cell.
    C) Multiple flagella are randomly dispersed over the cell surface.
    D) Multiple flagella are attached to one end of the cell.
    C) Multiple flagella are randomly dispersed over the cell surface.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  125. ABC System refers to:
    A) a means of locomotion in bacteria.
    B) a means of passive uptake of nutrients.
    C) the ATP-binding cassette.
    D) the generation of the high-energy compound ATP.
    C) the ATP-binding cassette.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  126. The outer portion of the outer membrane is, for the most part, composed of:
    A) teichoic acids.
    B) lipopolysaccharide.
    C) phospholipids.
    D) lipid A.
    B) lipopolysaccharide.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  127. Which cell surface structure can also be used as a receptor by certain viruses?
    A) pili
    B) flagella
    C) capsule
    D) slime layer
    A) pili
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  128. Which of the following statements regarding the cell wall of bacteria is NOT correct?
    A) It is a target of certain antibiotics.
    B) It is composed of a repeating framework of lipids.
    C) It helps to provide shape and rigidity to the cell.
    D) The composition of the amino acids in the tetrapeptide and interbridge can vary.
    B) It is composed of a repeating framework of lipids.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  129. The outermost layer of the outer membrane is composed of:
    A) glycerol polymers.
    B) lipopolysaccharide.
    C) periplasm.
    D) teichoic acids.
    B) lipopolysaccharide.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  130. Species of the Euryarchaeota include all the following EXCEPT:
    A) extreme halophiles.
    B) methanogens.
    C) photoautotrophs.
    D) hyperthermophiles.
    C) photoautotrophs.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  131. What is always a product of a methanogenic reaction?
    A) CH4
    B) HCO3-
    C) CO2
    D) H2O
    A) CH4
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  132. Where does oxidative phosphorylation take place within an aerobic eukaryote?
    A) the mitochondrion
    B) the hydrogenosome
    C) the chloroplast
    D) the nucleus
    A) the mitochondrion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  133. hloroplasts are found in all the following organisms EXCEPT:
    A) photosynthetic prokaryotes.
    B) plants.
    C) certain protists.
    D) unicellular and multicellular algae.
    A) photosynthetic prokaryotes.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  134. Where in a eukaryotic cell are 70S ribosomes found?
    A) There are no 70S ribosomes found in a eukaryotic cell.
    B) They are found within the mitochondria of a eukaryotic cell.
    C) They are found within the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell.
    D) They are found within the cytoplasm of a eukaryotic cell.
    B) They are found within the mitochondria of a eukaryotic cell.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  135. The energy to drive motility in
    motile eukaryotes is derived from a protein called ________, which is
    attached to tubulin and functions as an ATPase.
    A) axoneme
    B) integrin
    C) ECM
    D) dynein
    D) dynein
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  136. Which of the following protists are animal parasites?
    A) euglenids
    B) ciliates
    C) apicomplexans
    D) dinoflagellates
    C) apicomplexans
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  137. To obtain iron, some bacteria produce phenolic siderophores called:
    A) enterobactin
    B) aquachelin.
    C) ferrobactin.
    D) cytochelin.
    A) enterobactin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  138. In oxidative phosphorylation, ATP is produced:
    at the expense of the proton motive force.
  139. Chemolithotrophs use what compound as a carbon source?
    A) an inorganic compound
    B) carbon dioxide
    C) sunlight
    D) an organic compound
    B) carbon dioxide
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  140. Under which of the following conditions would a lag phase NOT occur?
    A) An inoculum of damaged cells is transferred into the same medium.
    B) An inoculum is taken from a stationary-phase culture and transferred into the same medium.
    C) An exponentially growing culture is transferred into the same medium under the same conditions of growth.
    D) A microbial population is transferred from a rich culture medium to a poorer one.
    C) An exponentially growing culture is transferred into the same medium under the same conditions of growth.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  141. The most important environmental factor affecting the growth and survival of microorganisms is:
    A) temperature.
    B) pH.
    C) water availability.
    D) oxygen.
    A) temperature.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  142. Organisms capable of causing disease in humans and animals are of which temperature class?
    A) thermophiles
    B) hyperthermophiles
    C) mesophiles
    D) psychrophiles
    C) mesophiles
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  143. Which of the following statements about thermophiles/hyperthermophiles is NOT correct?
    a) The amino acid sequence of their enzymes differ greatly from those of the heat-sensitive forms of the enzymes that catalyze the same reaction in mesophiles.
    b) Cytoplasmic membranes have membrane lipids rich in saturated fatty acids.
    c) Certain solutes, such as di-inositol phosphate and mannosylglycerate, are
    produced at high levels and help to stabilize proteins.
    d) Their proteins have an increased number of ionic bonds between basic and acidic amino acids and their often highly hydrophobic interiors.
    • a) The amino acid sequence of their enzymes differ greatly from those
    • of the heat-sensitive forms of the enzymes that catalyze the same
    • reaction in mesophiles.
  144. In which habitat would you expect to find aerobic prokaryotes?
    A) the deep subsurface of the earth
    B) mud and other sediments
    C) sewage sludge
    D) the ocean surfaces
    D) the ocean surfaces
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  145. To live in the presence of oxygen, an organism must possess:
    A) superoxide dismutase and either catalase or peroxidase
    B) highly hydrophobic proteins and saturated fatty acids in the cytoplasmic membrane.
    C) superoxide and catalase.
    D) transpeptidase and peroxidase.
    A) superoxide dismutase and either catalase or peroxidase
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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