Antibody Identification 8.7

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Antibody Identification 8.7
2010-09-29 15:29:58
Antibody Identification Blood bank NSHS MLT

Blood Bank Unit 8.7 Antibody Identification
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  1. These are Antibodies that DO NOT react with antigens present on the RBC's of the antibody producer
    Alloantibodies (Non-self)
  2. Alloantibodies are formed against the RBC antigens of who?
    another individual
  3. These are antibodies that react with antigens present on the RBC's of the antibody producer.
    Auto antibodies (self)
  4. "By testing the serum with each of the cells in the panel, a pattern of reactivity will be established," is the principle of what procedure?
    Antibody Identification
  5. The Antibody Identification procedure is based on a pattern from _________ and ___________ reaction seen in the antigram.
    • positive
    • negative
  6. Antibody Identification is used to ID what three types of non-ABO antibodies?
    • unexpected
    • Atypical
    • Irregular
  7. What is the class of antibody that is stimulated by pregnancy or transfusion?
    Immune antibodies (IgG)
  8. What is the class of antibody that has an unkown stimulus?
    Naturally occuring (IgM)
  9. a history of what five items is useful in antibody ID.
    • Pregnancy
    • Transfusion
    • Pt diagnosis
    • Pt drug therapy
    • Recent RhIg
  10. A history or recent RhIg will cause a false positve for what reagent?
  11. What are six problems that indicate the presence of unexpected antibodies?
    • incompatible crossmatch
    • ABO discrepancy
    • Positive IAT
    • Positive DAT
    • HDN
    • Transfusion Reaction
  12. Serum or plasma for Antibody ID must be used within how many hours if refrigerated?
  13. Why must Serum or plasma be used within 72 hours if refrigerated?
    antibodies degrade with time
  14. Hemolysis causes what type of false result on Antibody ID?
  15. Serum separator will causes what type of false result in Antibody ID?
  16. what are the two tubes that Antibody ID can be collected in?
    • red top
    • purple top
  17. An antibody panel is usually only done when other procedure indicates the presence of what?
    atypical antibody
  18. What are three procedures that can indicate a need for antibody panel?
    • IAT
    • DAT
    • Crossmatch incompatibility
  19. An antibody panel contains _____ separate vials of commercially prepared red cells.
  20. What blood type is used in comercially prepared red cell reagents for antibody ID?
    O cells
  21. Who indicates what antigens are on cells of each reagent vial in antibody ID?
  22. what size of disposable glass tubes should be used for antibody ID?
  23. in other than optimal conditions such as the field, fleet hospitals, and power outages blood products are stored how?
    on ice in boxes
  24. in other than optimal conditions ABO/Rh is preformed using what method?
    finger stick and slide method
  25. in other than optimal conditions, blood is issued under _________ status.
    emergency only
  26. Compatibility in other than optimal conditions is based on what?
    donor and recipient ABO/Rh match only
  27. Antibody panel is tested in what three phases?
    • Saline phase (IS)
    • 37oC phase (LISS or Albumin phase)
    • AHG or coombs phase
  28. In the saline phase suspension of red cells are mixed at what temperature?
    room temp
  29. Saline phase detects what class of antibodies?
  30. What are the seven IgM antibodies?
    • I
    • P1
    • N
    • Lea
    • Leb
    • Lua
    • M
  31. What is the phase where red cells and serum are incuated with enhancement media?
    37oC phase
  32. What are the IgG antibodies detected in the 37oC phase?
    • Rh
    • Anti-K
  33. what are the occasional IgM antibodies detected in the 37oC phase?
    • Anti-Lea
    • Anti-Leb
    • Some Ss antibodies
  34. AHG detects what eight IgG antibodies?
    • Rh
    • Kell
    • Duffy
    • Kidd
    • Lewis
    • Lutheran
    • MNSs
    • Xg
  35. in what phase are reactions read microscopically if macroscopically negative/
  36. reactions should be read Macroscopically for ____________ and/or __________ in each phase.
    • agglutination
    • hemolysis
  37. True or flase
    Seological properties of the antibody are used only as a guide.
  38. what are the two hemolytic antibodies?
    • lewis
    • Kidd
  39. what system antibodies are capable of reacting in all phases and temps?
  40. this may resemble agglutination due to increased serum protein.
  41. Rouleaux is detected only in what phases?
    • saline
    • Allbumin
  42. how are Rouleaux resolved?
    saline replacement
  43. This is when serum contains anti-caprylate antibodies?
    albumin agglutinating phenomenon
  44. ALL red cells are agglutinated in albumin stabilized with caprylate only in what phase?
  45. This is a mixutre of patient red cells and serum/plasma that is tested in parallel with other tubes through various phases and temps.
    Autologous control (Auto control)
  46. Auto control most often has what result?
  47. What are four situations that can cause positive auto control?
    • cold autoantibodies (Anti-I and anti-H)
    • Rouleaux
    • albumin agglutinating phenomena (anti-caprylate antibodies)
    • warm autoantibodies
  48. non-reactive in all phases of antibody ID is considered to be what result?
  49. In antibody ID tubes that have what reaction should be reviewed?
  50. In atibody ID, antigens present in vial that is ________ are ruled out (crossed off).
  51. After the ruling out process of antibody ID antigens remaining match what?
    pattern of reactivity
  52. Antibodies are identified in antibody ID provided that it meets what three criteria?
    • vials containing antigen are positve
    • vials reacting have that anitgen
    • vials lacking antigen are negative
  53. after the ruling out process in antibody ID, if more than one antigen remains there is a possibility of what?
    multiple anitbodies
  54. This is used when testing additional cells is necessary in antibody ID.
    custom panel
  55. In a custom panel, each additonal cell must ____ one of the antigens but _____ the other.
    • lack
    • possess
  56. true or false
    custom panels are tested in all phases.
  57. if only one antigen remains in a custom panel, the serum has only ____ antibody.
  58. if more than one antigen remains in a custom panel serum may have ______ antibodies.
  59. this is done after antibody identification to determine if anitbody present is allo or auto.
    phenotype patient red cells for corresponding antigen
  60. in Antibody ID, patient should lack antigen unless what?
    • auto antibody (DAT positve)
    • antigens from donor cells.
  61. what are the five special serological test procedures?
    • cold panel
    • adsorption
    • elution
    • enzyme
    • neutralization/inhibition
  62. in a cold panel incubating at refigerator temperature is used to do what?
    enhance reactions of cold agglutinins
  63. what is the antibody that could mask other significant antibodies in a cold panel?
  64. This is the removal of antibody from serum by reacting that antibody with the specific antigen on red cells.
  65. Adsorption is used to __________ and __________ antibodies.
    • isolate
    • separate
  66. In adsorption antigens ______ to corresponding antibody on red cells.
  67. In adsorption, an equal volume of serum and washed packed red cells, is centrifuged to separate serum and cells, red cells are saved and panel is preformed on adsorbed _______.
  68. what two things can cause inaccurate test results on adsorption?
    • incorrect ratio of serum to cells
    • incorrect incubation time or temperature
  69. This is the removal and recovery of an antibody that is attached to a red cell surface.
  70. Elution is used to ________ anitbody, and _________ bound antibody.
    • liberate
    • recover
  71. what are the four basic procedures for elution?
    • heat
    • ether
    • digitonin (acid)
    • lui-freeze thaw
  72. in elution we are interestin in what antibodies?
    antibodies bound to red cell membrane
  73. how do you know the eluate is ready for antibody studies?
    eluate will be hemolyzed
  74. what two things can cause inaccurate test results on elution?
    • improper wasing
    • improper incubation time or temperature
  75. This is used to pretreat red blood cells to modify antigens.
  76. Do enzyme modify anitgen or RBC's?
  77. what are the four enzymes?
    • ficin
    • papain
    • bromelin
    • trypsin
  78. enzyme enhances reactivity of what five antibodies?
    • Rh
    • Kidd
    • Lewis
    • P1
    • I
  79. what are the three antigens destroyed by enzyme?
    • MNSs
    • Duffy
    • lutheran
  80. what two things can cause inaccurate test results on enzyme?
    • destruction or enhancement of incorrect antibody
    • tested for incorrect antibody
  81. this is used so antibodies are unable to react with antigens.
  82. in neutralization/inhibition antibody binds to antigen substance, and antigen substance _______ reactivity of suspect antibody.
  83. What is used to neutralize lewis?
    saliva of persons with Se genes
  84. what is used to neutralize P1?
    • hydatid cyst fluid
    • pigeon egg reagent
  85. what is used to neutralize Sda?
    Urine (body fluids)
  86. What two things can cause inaccurate test results in neutralization/inhibition?
    • used incorrect blood group antigen
    • tested for incorrect antibody