proc. t.2

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proc. t.2
2010-10-03 22:18:55
proc test

test 2
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  1. List the 2 major division or components of the circulartory system?
    cardiovascular and lymphatics
  2. List the 3 functions of the cardiovascular system?
    transport oxygen, nutrients & wastes, removal of waste products, and maintence of the body temp, water & electrolyte values.
  3. What is the function of erythorocytes?
    RBC- carry oxygen
  4. What is the function of a leukocytes?
    WBC- fights infections=defender
  5. What is the function of platelets?
    repairs damage to blood vessels=promotes blood clotting
  6. What are 4 functions of the lymphatic system?
    fight diseases, returns proteins to the blood, filters the lymph, and transfers fats from intestines to thoracic ducts.
  7. A common method or technique of introducing a needle and/or catheter into the blood vessel for angigraphic procedures is called?
    seldinger technique
  8. List the common risks or complications of angiography?
    bleeding of puncture site, thrombus, emblous, CM reaction and infections
  9. What is the preferred vessel for arterial vessels access during angiography?
    femoral artery
  10. What device is used to inject contrast media during angiography?
    automatic electromechanical injections
  11. List the 5 common pathologic indicators for cerebral angiography?
    Vascular stenosis and occlusion, aneurisms, trauma, ateriovenous malformations, neoplastic disease
  12. What are the contraindications for angiography?
    CM allergy, impowered renal function, blood clotting, disorders or taking anticoagulant medications, unstable cardiopulmonary neurologic status, hypertension (more pressure)
  13. How does a stent graft function in treatment of an abdomincal aortic aneurysm?
    Keeps it open an stabolizes vessel wall and also makes no clotting
  14. What type of exam is a "runoff"?
    peripheral angiography exam of the lower extremity..
  15. What is the purpose of a dilator?
    opens up the vessels
  16. What is the difference between a catheter and a guide wire?
    catheter goes over the guide wire = catheter stays in and they pull the guide wire out after it finds the correct route.
  17. Angiography is considered a ___________procedure.
  18. How will obtaining a detailed patient history help to predict CM reactions?
    to see if they have ahd a reaction before (generally 2nd reaction is worse that 1st)
  19. What are the 2 areas of board certification for angiography and interentiona procedures?
    cardiac and vascular
  20. What are the requirements to become board eligible?
    • Registered x-ray tech
    • clinical competency prior to applying for post primary certification
    • sit for boards
  21. Who is considered the father of CT?
    Godfrey Hounsfeild
  22. As CT advanced from the 1st scan through the different generations of scanners____________dramatically decreased?
    scan time
  23. What are some disadvantages of CT?
    • increased patient dose
    • high cost
    • not able to be used on large patients
  24. A voxel is a ____ dimensional image of the tissue while a pixel represents____dimensions
  25. List the primary components of a CT scanner?
    Gantry, computer, operator console, detectors, tube, table
  26. Ct numbers are a numerical scale that represents tissue______?
  27. Window width controls____?
  28. Window level controls______?
  29. What are common indications of a CT of the head?
    tumors, circulatory pathology, inflmmation/infection condition, degenerative disorder, trauma, congenital abnormalites, hydrocephalus
  30. Why is low concentratoin of barium used for CT studes?
    to prevent beam hardening
  31. What is teh hole in the middle of the gantry called?
  32. T/F: The first CT scanner was designed to image the head only?
  33. What is the significane of slip ring technology?
    Continous rotation of the x-ray tube to get rid of the cord=pathways for helical scanning
  34. The ratio between patient couch movement and x-ray beam collimations is defined as?
  35. What are teh five steps in the CT process?
    • acquisition
    • restruction
    • display
    • maniuplation
    • storage
  36. How can CT dose me minimized?
    reduce # of slices, shielding, increase slice thickness
  37. What are the undesirable results of over sampling?
    increased dose
  38. An image used for localization that resembles a conventional radiograph created with stationary CT tube and detectors ans patient movement is called?
    scout (tomogram, scanogram)
  39. Why is contrast media necessary for a CT study of the abdomen and pelvis?
    to be able to diagnose the unpacified portions of the small and large bowels, they may be misdiagnosed as lymph nodes absesses or masses=deliniate between the tissues
  40. What are the requirements to become board eligible in CT?
    • Registered Tech
    • clinical compitency (125 exams out of 9 catagories)
    • Pass an exam (education)
  41. Why is MRI the modality of choice for soft tissue imaging?
    allows increased contrast resolution at molecular level.
  42. What is the significance of the primary magnet and how does it relate to image quality?
    B0=creates static magnetic field-stronger magnet more protons align to it. better the image
  43. What are the advantages and disadvantages of permanent primary magnets?
    • Low operating cost
    • heavy
    • low strength
  44. What is the biggest advantage assocaiated with a resistive primary magnet?
    it can be shut off
  45. Which type of primary magnet is the most common? what are teh advantages and disadvantages of this type of magnet?
    • Supraconductive
    • A: fast and increased test load
    • D: does not shut off and costy
  46. What are the advantages and disadvantages of open MRI scanners?
    • A: Helps with closterfobic patiens
    • D: Low field and decreased quality images (depending on the tech)
  47. What is the loud thumping noise heard during an MRI scan?
    Gradients switching back and forth
  48. ______is used to study blood vessels and is a less invasive alternative to angiography?
  49. ______is used to determine which part of the brain is handling certain functions?
  50. What are several contraindications of MRI?
    pacemaker, ferromagnet aneurism clips, mettalic fragments in the eye, choclear implant, bone growth stimulators, neurostimulators, pregnancy
  51. What are the two options for certification in MRI?
    -primary certification only

    -registered tech+clinical experience within 24 mo
  52. Compare T1and T2?
    • T1= looks like x-ray-low contrsat
    • T2= used for pathology
  53. What is resonance?
    same energy in order to transfer
  54. 6 components of MRI?
  55. What is the last line you are able to pass when having anything metal in a MRI room called?
    five gows line
  56. Nuclear medicine uses radioactive material called______in the study and treatment of various medical conditions?
  57. Radioactive materials that are introduced in the body and concentrate in specific organs are called____? and how are these materials introduced into the body?
    Tracer= inhaled injected oral
  58. What is the most commonly used radionuclide?
    technetium 99 M (Tc-99m)
  59. T/F: The purose of a nuclear medicine study is primary to evaluate the structure of the area of interest?
  60. The term SPECT is an abbreviation for what?
    Single photon emission computed tomography
  61. The SPECT gamma camera provides a _____dimensional view of the anatomy?
  62. A study of the skeletal system using radioactive materials is called?
    Bone Scan
  63. A common genitourninary nuclear medicine study is perfomred for____?
    Kidney Transplant
  64. What radiopharmaceuticals are used during myocardial perfusion studies?
    Thalume, cardiolite
  65. What radiopharmaceutical is used to determine if a pulmonary lesion is benighn or malignant?
  66. The perfusion phase of a lung study is used to detect____?
    pulmonary embolism
  67. What radiopharmaceutical is used in a thyroud uptake study?
    sodium iodine
  68. A hyperthyroid will result in a ____ uptake reading and may indicate____disease?
    increase, grave
  69. A hypothyroid will result in a ____uptake reading?
  70. The term PET is an abbreviation for what?
    positron emission tomography
  71. PET uses radioactive compounds that emit____?
  72. What do the detectors of a PET scannner detect?
    gamma radiation=annilation
  73. What are the common positron emitting elements?
    oxygen, nitrogen, chlorlide
  74. F-FDG is used to measure what?
  75. O-water i used to measure what?
    blood flow/perfusion of blood
  76. N-ammonia is used to measure what?
    blood flow/ perfusion of blood
  77. C-methionine is used to measure what?
    Amino Acid Metabolism
  78. A____is used to produce the radioactive tracer close to cyclotron?
  79. For oncology applications, what properties of a tumore does PET scaning rely on?
    glucose uptake (sugar metabolism)
  80. For cardiology applicatoins_____is given to evaluate heart perfusions and_____is given to evaluate glucose metabolism?
    Amonia thalium; FFG
  81. How is PET used to evaluate seizure sites in epilepsy patients regardless of whether they are having a seizure at the time of the scan?
    Will be a increase in sugar uptake (with seizure sugar uptake will be normal or decrease)
  82. What is the purpose of brain mapping?
    vital areas of brain functioning
  83. What is the advantage of using amino acid metabolism for characterizing CNS tumors?
    more sensitive to locate low grade tumors
  84. How is PET used to assess alzheimers?
    Locate loss of function
  85. What is the purpose of a PET/CT?
    better contrast resolution