154th FE MQF

Card Set Information

154th FE MQF
2010-10-04 15:50:44

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  1. Operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed is a________.
    B. Caution
  2. Normal operation of the NTS system does not commit the propeller to feather. However, a malfunctioning NTS system may completely feather the propeller or cause the engine to:
    D. Stall/flameout
  3. The hydromechanical fuel control senses ________ and varies fuel flow accordingly.
    C. Inlet temperature, inlet pressure altitude, RPM, and throttle position
  4. The Temperature Datum Control Valve switches lock a fuel correction only when they are positioned at LOCKED/LKD while the:
    D. Throttle is in the temperature controlling range and the fuel correction light is out
  5. In most cases degradation of an individual thermocouple assembly would affect each circuit equally. The indicating signal will be lower (_________ degrees C) than that actual temperature experienced by each thermocouple sensing element.
    B. 3.5 to 22
  6. The engine low oil quantity warning light illuminates when an oil tank quantity level drops to approximately:
    B. 4 gallons
  7. The PROPELLER LOW OIL WARNING light and the PROP LOW OIL QUANTITY light will illuminate when the oil quantity for any propeller drops approximately ________ below normal in the pressurized sump.
    B. 2 quarts
  8. Early stage thermocouple decay may be difficult to identify, due to:
    D. No change in TIT and minimal increase in fuel flow and torque
  9. During the landing approach, ________before the throttles are retarded should give more equal power distribution on all engines.
    B. Locking the TD valve
  10. In case of power failure, the cross feed valves:
    B. Hold the last energized position
  11. The fuel low pressure warning light is turned on when fuel supply pressure at the point where fuel enters the engine pump falls below approximately ________ PSI
  12. When operating with less than 6,000 pounds of total fuel in the main fuel tanks:
    • -Place the crossfeed valve switches to OPEN for tanks containing fuel
    • -Place the BOOST PUMP switches to ON for all tanks containing fuel
    • -Place the CROSSFEED SEPARATION valve switch to open
  13. The 28 volt external DC source should have a capacity of ________ amperes.
  14. The battery is disconnected from all DC buses except the _______ when external DC power is being used.
    Battery bus
  15. The engine hydraulic pump pressure warning light will illuminate whenever the pump output pressure drops below approximately 1,000 PSI or:
    Engine pump switch is placed in the OFF position
  16. The ADS control panel ramp and door control switch must be set to OFF, and the ramp manual control knob, above the ramp control panel, must be set at the ________ position before operating the pump switch on the ramp control panel.
    6N (neutral)
  17. Prior to raising the ramp, ensure that:
    Locks are retracted and the ramp seal area is clear
  18. If an individual landing gear position indicator becomes inoperative because of a faulty grounding circuit, the warning horn and warning light will indicate the position of:
    The other two gear only.
  19. After any full anti-skid braking operation above 130,000 pounds (aborted takeoff, engine-out/flaps-up landing, etc.), the approximate ground cooling time is ________ minutes.
  20. Elevator trim tab travel is controlled by limit switches set at ________ degrees nose down and ________ degrees nose up.
  21. The landing gear warning horn cannot be silenced until the landing gear is down and locked or the flap lever is retracted above ________ % or more.
  22. When the flight station air conditioning is on, the bleed air pressure gage reads ________ than the actual pressure in the cross wing manifold.
    6 PSI lower
  23. Cabin differential pressure will be zero for landing. If the differential pressure is less than ________ Hg, no discomfort will be experienced if the air conditioning master switch is turned to a nonpressure position.
  24. When the leading edge temperature reaches approximately ________ the overheat warning light for that area is energized and the light illuminates.
    200 degrees F
  25. Operation of the NESA anti-icing when outside air temperature is above ________ degrees C will increase the possibility of delamination within the NESA panels.
  26. In any airplane configuration that could limit the normal climb capability of the airplane (such as engine out, ramp door open, etc) or operational situation where an RA maneuver is prohibited, the TCAS should be placed in:
  27. It is possible for the (TCAS) system to issue a RA advisory command that would put the airplane outside the performance envelope
  28. Ensure that the secure voice system mode switch is in the ________ position to provide normal operation (plain text) of the UHF radio when secure voice is not to be used.
  29. Ensure all personnel are clear of the area between the cargo and the open ramp/door before placing the airdrop/troop jump computer-manual select switch to the:
    • -AD/TJ CMPTR position
    • - TJ-CMPTR AD-MAN position
  30. The electrical control system of the ramp and door is inactivated when the:
    Anchor line support arms are not in the up position
  31. The LAPES/CDS switches must remain _________ in the NORMAL/OFF (guarded) position except when required to be in ARM for operational check or mission requirements.
  32. When 100 percent oxygen is being supplied, _________ oxygen is consumed per person as altitude ________.
  33. The AERP system ________ protect the user against ammonia fumes or carbon monoxide gas and _______ be used without an oxygen source in an oxygen deficient atmosphere
    Will not, shall not
  34. Do not enter/exit from the ________ side of the nose wheel well due to possible hazard of venting liquid oxygen.
  35. The high pressure of the Halon fire extinguisher can spread a class ________ fire.
  36. Do not operate ________ lights for prolonged periods while the airplane is on the ground.
  37. During ground operations, avoid direct viewing of the strobe lights within a distance of________ feet to prevent eye damage.
  38. The CVR is operational anytime the ________ bus is powered by any source other than external power.
    Essential AC
  39. With the escape ladder installed, it is impossible to exit the airplane from the center escape hatch using the ________ side of the ladder
  40. In emergencies, MIL-L-7808 and MIL-L-23699 may be mixed. The amount of emergency oil added should not exceed ________ tank capacity.
  41. During the BEFORE EXTERIOR INSPECTION and before any electrical power is applied to the airplane, the engineer will:
    • -Ensure that all locking pins are removed from doors and hatches
    • -Check the form 781
    • -Ensure that all aircraft switches and circuit breakers are in their normal shutdown position
  42. While accomplishing the POWER ON INSPECTION, if a light in the overheat test panel fails to illuminate during testing, bleed air systems:
    Should not be pressurized until proper inspection and repairs have been made
  43. During the POWER ON INSPECTION, movement of the flaps is essential at this time to enable detection of ________ or malfunctions during the walk-around inspection.
    Hydraulic leaks
  44. Do not ________ or open the ground test valve if ramp hydraulic actuators are preloaded or cargo loading operations are in progress.
    Deplete hydraulic pressure
  45. Depletion of the emergency brake hydraulic system pressure with the brake select switch in normal is an indication of a(n) ________ failure.
    Emergency brake selector valve
  46. During EXTERIOR INSPECTION, if not previously checked by maintenance, a work stand/ladder will be required to check:
    • -Engine inlets
    • -Exhaust areas
    • -External tank caps
  47. Quick Don oxygen mask system is the _______ use equipment unless dictated otherwise
  48. After moving the condition lever to ground stop, do not move the lever from this position until ________.
    Engine rotation has stopped
  49. During low air density conditions (high temperature above approximately 28 degrees C/high altitude), if the engine accelerates smoothly with no indication of stall and TIT limits are not exceeded, time to stabilize on speed is ________ seconds.
  50. The throttles must not be moved out of the ________ detent during engine starting.
  51. During engine start, a positive indication of hydraulic pressure must be observed by:
    The time the engine is on speed
  52. You must have positive oil pressure on the engine and reduction gear by _________ percent rpm, or immediately discontinue the start.
  53. A positive hydraulic pressure indication must be noted by the time the engine is on speed. Normal operating pressure should be indicated within ________ after on speed.
    30 seconds
  54. If start TIT is less than _________degrees C, record in AFTO Form 781. Maintenance action is required prior to flight.
  55. If auxiliary feather motor operation is not indicated for a propeller:
    The malfunction will be corrected prior to flight
  56. When down-shifting from normal to low-speed ground idle, the engineer will monitor the engine instruments and be prepared to shut down the engine by placing the condition lever to GROUND STOP if the temperature exceeds ________ degrees C or a stall occurs.
  57. If a stop, sudden or severe braking application has occurred during turns:
    Record in Form 781
  58. The use of brakes during reverse taxiing should be ________ to prevent the airplane from setting on the tail.
  59. Do not hold the ice detector TEST switch in the No. 2 or No. 3 position longer than five seconds. The test cycle may be repeated once, but then wait ________ minutes for the ice detector to cool before performing this test again.
  60. With engines running, never operate the propeller anti-icing or de-icing system for more than ________ cycles while the airplane is on the ground.
  61. If the BLADE DE-ICING ammeter falls below________, do not fly into icing conditions.
    65 amperes
  62. Observe engine torque and TIT when placing each ________ switch in the ON position when accomplishing the Before Takeoff checklist.
  63. Main tank boost pump switches ________ be turned off in-flight unless directed by a specific procedure in the flight manual
    Will not
  64. Above crossover, if the engine instruments are not similar in ________, with throttles aligned, a propulsion system malfunction may exist.
    Fuel flow, TIT, or torque
  65. If indicated torque exceeds 19,600 inch pounds:
    An entry in the FORM 781 is required noting the highest torque value observed and describing the runway and/or flight conditions
  66. Never place the throttles in the TAKEOFF position without monitoring the ________, since it is possible to exceed the maximum allowable torque.
    Torque meters
  67. The minimum flap retraction speed for a maximum effort takeoff is:
    Obstacle clearance speed plus 10 knots
  68. For GCAS ESCAPE MANEUVERS; Crewmembers will back up the pilot who is performing the escape maneuver. The __________ and ____________ the airplane will confirm escape maneuver is being properly flown.
    Flight Engineer, Pilot not flying
  69. The PF will advise the engineer of the landing field conditions:
    when initiating the Descent Checklist
  70. New TOLD will be required any time gross weight changes 5,000 pounds or more, outside temperature changes ________ degrees C or more, or pressure altitude changes 1,000 feet or more.
  71. Higher than normal ________ system pressure may be encountered in-flight.
    Emergency brake
  72. At high airspeeds, abrupt movement of the throttles into the ground range could result in:
  73. The two common types of wind shear phenomena found on final approach are:
    Decreasing headwind, increasing headwind
  74. During landing, at the first indication of directional control difficulties during reversing, immediately:
    Return all throttles to GROUND IDLE
  75. The nose gear must be on the ground prior to _________.
  76. When moving the flaps at low airspeed, an asymmetrical flap may go undetected until near or above ___________.
    Takeoff speed
  77. If a go-around is accomplished, retracting flaps from 100 to 50 percent will:
    Increase stall speed
  78. The flight engineer should monitor engine instruments during shutdown for:
    Zero fuel flow and TIT and RPM decrease
  79. If NTS advisory lights do not illuminate when shutting down engines from low-speed ground idle:
    A recheck of the NTS system must be made before the next flight
  80. Regardless of specific emergency encountered:
    • -Maintain airplane control
    • -Analyze the situation
    • -Take coordinated corrective action
  81. When pulling the condition lever to FEATHER, pull it all the way to the detent to assure that the propeller is fully feathered when the engine fuel is shut off. If the lever is left at a mid-position, and NTS is inoperative, a(n)
    Engine decoupling is possible
  82. In the event of a throttle control cable failure, ________ attempt to move the condition lever due to the possibility of cable fouling.
    DO NOT
  83. If on cross feed during ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE, ________ before shutting off the fuel boost pump and closing the cross feed valve for the affected engine.
    Ensure source of fuel to operate engines
  84. If cabin pressure increases at an excessive rate and cannot be reduced by normal means then:
    • -Immediately shut off engine bleed air, one at a time, until the rate of pressure increase is at a safe value
    • -Control pressure by using engine bleed air as necessary to vary the amount of conditioned air supplied for pressurization
    • -If necessary for further control when descending, one of the air conditioning systems can be shut down to expedite depressurization of the airplane
  85. If either the left or right wheel well overheat light illuminates after takeoff and the condition persists after isolation procedures have been accomplished, it may be indicative of:
    Overheated brakes
  86. The correct procedure for high TIT on the ground is:
    Move affected throttle to "ground idle" and place the affected engine TD switch to NULL. If condition persist place condition lever to "ground stop"
  87. If a tailpipe fire occurs in-flight, follow the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE. If the fire persists:
    The airplane should be accelerated as rapidly as possible, not exceeding maximum airspeed
  88. If a turbine overheat occurs in-flight:
    Retard the throttle toward FLIGHT IDLE. If the condition persists, proceed with the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE
  89. During GROUND EVACUATION; if pyrotechnics are loaded on the airplane, evacuate a minimum of ______ feet from the airplane
  90. Do not exceed ________ KIAS with the ramp (or ramp and cargo door) open regardless of whether the paratroop doors are open or closed or the position of the air deflectors.
  91. Maximum airspeed with the paratroop doors open and locked is:
    250 KIAS
  92. If parking brake handle does not properly retract and requires additional force to fully seat:
    Document in Form 781
  93. If aborting for a propeller malfunction or any other malfunction which could result in asymmetric power causing directional control problems when the throttles are placed in the ground range, shut down the affected engine while throttle is in:
  94. For malfunctions which result in asymmetric thrust, the airplane will attempt to ________ the malfunctioning power plant during airplane acceleration
    Turn toward
  95. For a takeoff continued after engine failure, flap retraction should be accomplished in ______ percent increments with airspeed increasing approximately ________ knots between retraction increments.
    10, 5
  96. In all combinations of two engine failures, monitor ________ to keep it within the range of available output.
    Generator loading
  97. Two-engine operation above ________ pounds gross weight or at high density altitude is marginal.
  98. If a propeller malfunction occurs after refusal speed and there is no indication of fire, it is recommended that the engine be allowed to run until at least ________ is reached.
    Two-engine inoperative air minimum control speed
  99. During pitchlocked propeller operation, the engine should be shutdown when
    • -Reaching 150 KTAS
    • -RPM cannot be maintained with the throttles
    • -Reaching a suitable landing area
  100. If a propeller fails to feather in flight, it is critical to restore oil to the ________ of the windmilling propeller as soon as possible
    Reduction gearbox
  101. For PROPELLER BRAKE FAILURE; if the propeller does counter-rotate, and the procedures are ineffective:
    Land as soon as practical
  102. If throttle control cable failure is suspected, do not move the throttle prior to engine shutdown. To do so could cause:
    The propeller to go into reverse pitch or to full power
  103. Any time an IGNITION CONTROL circuit breaker is pulled on an inboard engine, the ________ for that engine is inoperative
    Ice detection system
  104. A sheared shaft on the speed sensitive control with the throttle above 65 degrees travel may be indicated by:
    • -Momentary illumination of the SECONDARY FUEL PUMP PRESSURE light
    • -TIT will not exceed start limiting temperature of 830 degrees C
  105. In case of loss of oil pressure:
    Shut down the engine by using ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE
  106. Following a negative G condition, closely monitor gearbox and engine oil pressure for ________.
    Two minutes
  107. A negative G condition may allow air to enter the engine oil supply line resulting in a loss of oil pressure approximately ________ later due to oil pump cavitation.
    30 to 90 seconds
  108. If a Tachometer Generator Failure occurs on the engine selected as the master engine, first
    Place the synchrophaser master switch to OFF/other master
  109. When operating in tank-to-engine position with an inoperative fuel boost pump, avoid:
    Rapid acceleration or nose low attitudes
  110. Do not select ________ unless the crossfeed system is pressurized by operating fuel boost pumps in other tanks.