MQ1PltMQFpart2.txt

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Anonymous
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404
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MQ1PltMQFpart2.txt
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2009-10-20 22:37:07
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Pilot MQF questions 61-121
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  1. 61. During an MCE gaining handover, the Ku command link is established when:

    A. I say it is
    B. System amps increase by approximately 10 amps
    C. uplink signal strength increases
    D. the "Ku Command Link Lost" warning message disappears.
    D. the "Ku Command Link Lost" warning message disappears.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. 62. (MCE Operations) How long should LOS uplink signal strengths be greater than 0% before disabling the Command Link (on the ground)?

    A. 1 sec
    B. 5 sec
    C. 10 sec
    B. 5 sec
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. 63. (MCE Operations) Before airborne handover, the airspeed, altitude and heading hold should be set to ensure valid parameters are established in the autopilot, in the event an inadvertent uplink is established.

    a. true
    b. false
    a. true
  4. 64. It is possible for the actual nose camera lens inside the fuselage to fog during descent. Fogging of the actual nose camera lens can be prevented with the use of nose lens heat.

    a. true
    b. false
    b. false
  5. 65. The UPS and batteries will power the PPO racks for approximately _____ minutes without line power.

    A. 18
    B. 30
    C. 20
    A. 18
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. 66. If power is cut off to a GCS on fire, the UPS batteries will still provide power if they were not turned off prior to evacuation.

    a. true
    b. false
    a. true
  7. 67. With a left PSO rack failure or rack lock-up, the pilot has the option of sending the aircraft lost link while configuring the right PSO rack.

    a. true
    b. false
    a. true
  8. 68. If no emergency mission is loaded on PSO 2 before pressing the rack switch button, the emergency mission start point will immediately change to _____ regardless of what the PSO-1 tracker display shows.

    A. The last waypoint
    B. Waypoint 1
    C. There is no change
    B. Waypoint 1
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. 69. A Loss of Control situation may be indicated by

    a. Uncommanded roll, pitch, or yaw
    b. Impending stall conditions
    c. Actual stall conditions
    d. All of the above
    d. All of the above
  10. 70. A stall condition may be indicated by

    a. Warnings on the HUD
    b. Excessively high AOA
    c. Unexpected loss of altitude
    d. All of the above
    d. All of the above
  11. 71. If primary and secondary airspeeds exceed a ____ KIAS differential, ensure that the Airspeed or Pilot/Static Failure checklist is executed prior to switching airspeed source.

    A. 3
    B. 5
    C. 10
    B. 5
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. 72. When SAS is engaged in flight, stick commands will not match actual aircraft pitch and roll angles for 0.5 seconds. During this time, GCS stick commands will be interpreted as control surface commands and may contribute to loss of aircraft control.

    a. true
    b. false
    a. true
  13. 73. If an aileron or tail servo exceeds _____ degrees C, land as soon as possible.

    A. 165
    B. 451
    C. 100
    D. 200
    A. 165
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. 74. Flight control servos have a high probability of failure after ____ minutes at ____ degrees C.

    A. 10, 200
    B. 10, 100
    C. 5, 165
    D. 5, 451
    A. 10, 200
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. 75. When battery voltage drops below _____ volts, all electrical power may be lost.

    A. 28
    B. 22
    C. 21
    D. 24
    B. 22
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. 76. If the engine is windmilling above _____ RPM, the Engine Start command will have no effect.

    A. 1600
    B. 1000
    C. 1800
    B. 1000
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. 77. A loss of coolant could be indicated by a large difference (greater than 50 degrees) between ______ and water temperature.

    A. MCT
    B. EGT
    C. CHT
    C. CHT
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. 78. Turning on the engine cooling fan may help decrease high EGT or MCT.

    a. true
    b. false
    b. false
  19. 79. Impending propeller servo failure is indicated by erratic Prop P Amps and increasing Prop Servo Temp above _____.

    A. 135° C
    B. 165° C
    C. 150° C
    B. 165° C
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. 80. Turbocharger failure is indicated by excessive or inadequate ______ or warning messages on the HDD.

    A. EGT
    B. RPM
    C. MAP
    C. MAP
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. 81. When operating in VPP mode, any change in _____ will have an immediate effect on MAP and RPM. The pilot must monitor RPM and MAP closely to prevent an engine overspeed or overboost.

    a. Airspeed
    b. Altitude
    c. Power setting
    d. All of the above
    d. All of the above
  22. 82. Changing to VPP Mode at high airspeeds can result in over speed if the propeller control lever is not set below the current propeller command.

    a. true
    b. false
    a. true
  23. 83. If the alternator is functional, wind-milling RPM above _____ will provide electrical power to the system.

    A. 1200
    B. 1000
    C. 1600
    D. 1400
    C. 1600
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. 84. For an engine-out straight-in approach, a good reference is a no wind glide of _____ feet per nm (propeller stopped), or _____ feet per nm (propeller wind milling) to the reference point of 1/3 down the landing surface

    A. 800 / 1000
    B. 600 / 800
    C. 400 / 600
    D. 700 / 900
    B. 600 / 800
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. 85. During a forced landing and operating on battery power, once the landing gear is lowered, battery life may preclude another full landing cycle prior to a successful touchdown.

    a. true
    b. false
    a. true
  26. 86. For a straight-in forced landing pattern maintain a clean aircraft configuration glide at maximum range airspeed until reaching a point ____ nautical miles and ____feet AGL (propeller stopped) then lower the landing gear.

    A. 1, 800
    B. 1, 600
    C. ½, 480
    B. 1, 600
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. 87. What are the correct altitudes for A, B and C (assuming stopped propeller)?



    A. A= 1800-2000' AGL B= 1000-1200' AGL C= 600-800' AGL
    B. A= 4800-5100' AGL B= 3700-3900' AGL C= 600-800' AGL
    C. A= 1800-2000' AGL B= 800-1200' AGL C= 400-800' AGL
    A. A= 1800-2000' AGL B= 1000-1200' AGL C= 600-800' AGL
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. 88. Battery capacity decreases at temperatures above _____ and can be seriously degraded at temperatures of _____ and above.

    A. 35˚ C, 45˚ C
    B. 35˚ C, 50˚ C
    C. 30˚ C, 50˚ C
    B. 35˚ C, 50˚ C
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. 89. The Aircraft Component Currents Requirements chart shows typical amperage for each listed device. However, momentary in-rush current can be up to _____ times as much when a unit is first turned on.

    A. 1-3
    B. 1-2
    C. 2-3
    C. 2-3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. 90. (Block 10) Decreasing oil level may be an indication of an oil leak, oil consumption, or oil foaming. Below what oil level must an RTB be initiated?

    A. 70%
    B. 60%
    C. 50%
    C. 50%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. 91. When AGM-114 missiles are fired from MQ-1B aircraft, auto tracking is automatically suspended for __ seconds.

    A. 4
    B. 8
    C. 5
    A. 4
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. 92. The LTM is eye safe beyond ___ km.

    A. 0.5
    B. 1.0
    C. 1.5
    B. 1.0 km
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. 93. The LRD PRF code can be set to values ranging from _____ to _____.

    A. 1111, 1888
    B. 1111, 1999
    C. 0000, 9999
    A. 1111, 1888
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. 94. The effective slant range of the ROVER system is about ____ nautical miles using an aircraft omni antenna and over ____ nautical miles using the aircraft directional antenna.

    A. 20, 100
    B. 10, 50
    C. 20, 70
    C. 20, 70
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. 95. (914i) Maximum allowable RPM is ____, while a Rev Limiter prevents speeds above _____.

    A. 5800, 5750
    B. 5900, 5800
    C. 5900, 5750
    B. 5900, 5800
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. 96. The maximum EGT difference between cylinders in flight (for all power settings ) is:

    A. 350˚ F
    B. 300˚ F
    C. 200˚ F
    A. 350˚ F
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. 97. What is the maximum allowable Cylinder Head Temperature (CHT)?

    A. 275˚ F
    B. 300˚ F
    C. 260˚ F
    C. 260˚ F
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. 98. (914i) What is the maximum allowable difference between MAP sensors?

    A. 2 in Hg
    B. 1.5 in Hg
    C. 2.5 in Hg
    C. 2.5 in Hg
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. 99. A failing VPP assembly or servo may be indicated if VPP Servo Amps frequently peak above 1.5 for more than an hour.

    a. true
    b. false
    a. true
  40. 100. Unless otherwise stated, performance outside normal operations limits, but within the maximum and minimum (“yellow” caution), indicates a malfunction requiring continuous monitoring; however, no permanent damage to the system is likely.

    a. true
    b. false
    a. true
  41. 101. Maneuvering speed decreases ________ per 100-pound decrease from maximum weight.

    A. 5 KIAS
    B. 3 KTAS
    C. 3 KIAS
    C. 3 KIAS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. 102. Aircraft ultimate failure occurs with acceleration loads equal to or greater than

    A. -2 to +6
    B. -2 to +3
    C. -1 to +3
    A. -2 to +6
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. 103. When using Ku-band datalink, aircraft maneuvering should be limited to ____ pitch and _____ roll.

    A. ±20, ±20
    B. ±25, ±40
    C. ±10, ±20
    C. ±10, ±20
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. 104. Flying between 78 and 85 KIAS with flaps commanded down will constantly run the flap servos.

    a. true
    b. false
    a. true
  45. 105. In-flight, ______ mode(s) should be turned off in emergency situations only.

    A. cruise
    B. SAS
    C. hold
    D. VPP
    B. SAS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. 106. The Stall Protect feature provides protection for both positive and negative AOA.

    a. true
    b. false
    b. false
  47. 107. When operating in turbulent conditions, maneuvering shall be limited to:

    A. +2.0g
    B. -1.5g
    C. -2.0g
    D. +1.5g
    D. +1.5g
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. 108. The use of pitot heat will guarantee the absence of ice from the pitot-static system.

    a. true
    b. false
    b. false
  49. 109. Weapons pylons increase parasitic drag by _____ and each AGM-114 missile increases drag by an extra _____.

    A. 15, 4
    B. 17, 2
    C. 17, 4
    B. 17, 2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. 110. The AGM-114 requires an acceleration of ___Gs for _____ seconds to arm.

    A. 10, 1.3
    B. 1.2, 10
    C. 10, 3
    A. 10, 1.3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. 111. When the AGM-114 Electronic Assembly power is turned ON:

    a. power buttons for both missiles will be enabled
    b. missile status conditions will be reset to initial
    c. A&B above
    c. A&B above
  52. 112. Which launch mode results in the most direct of all trajectories during missile flight?

    A. LOAL-L
    B. LOAL-D
    C. LOAL-H
    B. LOAL-D
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. 113. Which launch mode is ideal for use against a cave entrance requiring a horizontal attack?

    A. LOAL-L
    B. LOAL-H
    C. LOAL-D
    A. LOAL-L
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. 114. Which launch mode results in a more vertical attack, an option which yields an optimal soft target dispersal pattern?

    A. LOAL-D
    B. LOAL-L
    C. LOAL-H
    C. LOAL-H
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. 115. Shortly after powering down the missile, when can you safely reapply power without damaging the seeker gimbals?

    A. 1 minute
    B. 20 seconds
    C. 30 seconds
    C. 30 seconds
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. 116. A _____ is an event when the rocket or missile motor ignites and produces thrust but hangs up on the launcher and does not separate from the aircraft.

    A. Misfire
    B. Weakfire
    C. Hangfire
    C. Hangfire
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. 117. For optimum lethality, the correct combination of _____ must be referenced to get desired results.

    a. Altitude above target
    b. Launch mode
    c. Offset angle and range
    d. All of the above
    d. All of the above
  58. 118. The AGM-114M warhead:

    A. is intended for use against reactive armor
    B. employs a blast frag warhead that contains a fuze delay for target penetration
    C. contains an additional metal fuel fill that optimizes overpressure performance
    d. All of the above
    B. employs a blast frag warhead that contains a fuze delay for target penetration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. 119. Do not power on missile unnecessarily. Leaving the missile powered on for extended durations may decrease reliability.

    a. true
    b. false
    a. true
  60. 120. Do not select LOBL for either K- or P- missiles. LOBL is not designated for use with MQ-1 and has not been tested.

    a. true
    b. false
    a. true
  61. 121. After a misfire, the UAV should loiter in the air if outside temperature on the ground is above ____.

    A. 95º F
    B. 95º K
    C. 95º C
    A. 95º F
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. 122. Decreasing shot range and azimuth angle will increase AGM-114P impact angle.

    a. true
    b. false
    a. true

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