IFR Oral

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IFR Oral
2010-10-16 13:10:45
Instrument rating

Instrument Oral Exam Prep
Show Answers:

  1. What are the different types of compass errors?
    • Variation
    • Deviation
    • Magnetic Dip
    • Oscillation
    • Northerly Turning Errors
    • Acceleration Errors
  2. When is a procedure turn not required?
    • No PT on the IAP
    • Otherwise directed by ATC
    • Radar vectors to final
    • Timed approaches from a holding fix
    • Holding or teardrop depicted in lieu of PT
  3. What are the oxygen requirements?
    12,500- Worn by pilots at all times after 30 minutes

    14,000- Oxygen must be worn by all crew members

    15,000- Oxygen must be supplied to passengers
  4. What actions should a pilot take upon entering a hold or procedure turn?
    • Turn to outbound
    • Time
    • Twist to inbound heading
    • Throttle for speed
    • Talk to ATC
  5. Name 4 types of structural icing
    • Clear- Large drops freeze slowly on contact with aircraft
    • Rime- Small drops freeze fast on contact with aircraft
    • Mixed
    • Frost- Sublimation OAT and Dewpoint are below freezing
  6. What are the fundamental skills of IFR flying?
    Instrument Cross Check

    Instrument Interpretation

    Aircraft Control
  7. What reports should an IFR pilot make to ATC?
    • Vacating assigned altitude
    • Altitude change while VFR on top
    • Change in TAS of 5% or 10 knots (whichever is greater)
    • Unable to climb/descend 500FPM
    • Upon reaching or leaving a holding fix/clearance limit
    • Missed approach
  8. What instruments are pitot static?
    • Airspeed indicator
    • Altimeter
    • VSI
  9. UNOS
    • Undershoot
    • North
    • Overshoot
    • South
  10. ANDS
    • Accelerate
    • North
    • Deaccelerate
    • South
  11. What equipment checks are required under FAR 91?
    • VOR every 30 days
    • Transponder 24 months
    • Pitot Static 24 months
    • ELT 12 months or 1/2 of battery life
  12. What is indicated airspeed?
    What is read directly off of the airspeed indicator
  13. What is true airspeed?
    Calibrated airspeed corrected for winds
  14. What is calibrated airspeed?
    Airspeed corrected for instrument position
  15. What is density altitude?
    Pressure altitude corrected for non standard temperature
  16. What is required to be logged?
    • Certificates
    • Ratings
    • Recency
    • Flight Review
  17. When does an airport go IFR?
    • When there is less then 3 miles visibility
    • Less then 1000 FT ceilings
  18. What is the ELT frequency
  19. What code is 7500?
  20. What code is 7600?
    Lost communication
  21. What code is 7700?
  22. Airmet Tango
  23. Airmet Zulu
  24. Airmet Sierra?
    Mountain Obscuration
  25. Night VFR requirements?
    • Fuses 3 spare of each kind
    • Landing light if for hire
    • Anti collision lights
    • Position lights
    • Source of electrical power
  26. What are the day VFR requirements? TomatoFlames
    • Tachometer
    • Oil pressure
    • Manifold pressure
    • Altimeter
    • Temp gauge liquid cooled
    • Oil temp
    • Fuel gauges
    • Landing gear position indicator lights
    • Airspeed indicator
    • Mag compass
    • ELT
    • Seatbelts
  27. When can you cancel an IFR flight plan?
    • in VFR conditions in flight
    • on the ground
  28. How frequently should you check your altimeter setting?
    Set to a station 100NM of your location
  29. What are the legal methods of checking VOR receiver accuracy, and what are the tolerances on each type of check?
    • VOT +/-4
    • Designated ground checkpoint +/-4
    • Designated airborne checkpoint +/-6
    • Cross reference a prominent ground point with a VOR radial +/-6
    • Dual VOR check 4
  30. Define MDA
    Minimum descend altitude (non precision approach)
  31. Define DH
    Decision height (precision approach)
  32. Define HAA
    height above airport
  33. Define HAT
    Height above touchdown zone
  34. Define TCH
    Threshhold crossing height
  35. Define NoPT
    no procedure turn is authorized
  36. Define TDZE
    touchdown zone elevation
  37. What is the maximum altitude you can fly in reference to the instrument low altitude enroute charts?
    Chart is good up to 17,999 ft and the highest cruising altitude would be 17,000 feet.
  38. What are the 3 AGL altitudes on the approach plate
    • HAT
    • HAA
    • TCH
  39. How would you correct for fly up or fly down error while on an ILS approach?
    • Fly towards the needle with specific heading corrections
    • Pitch for glidepath
    • Power for airspeed
  40. What is the FAF on a precision approach?
    Glideslope interception
  41. Explain in detail the lost communication procedure with regard to altitude, routes and holding
    • Attempt contact on previous assigned frequency or with a FSS
    • Monitor NAVAID
    • Set transponder to 7600
  42. What if you lose communication on an IFR flight plan in VFR conditions?
    • maintain VFR
    • land as soon as practicable
    • notify atc after landing
  43. Lost communication while IFR/IFR conditions.
    • Assigned
    • Vector
    • Expected further clearance
    • FIled

    • Minimum enroute altitude
    • Eexpected further clearance
    • Assigned last atc clearance
  44. If while enroute to your destitnation you lost communication completely, and upon arrival at the airport you were forced to execute a missed approach, what would your next action be?
    Go to the alternate immediately. ATC will clear the airport area for 30 minutes thus shooting multiple approaches or holding will create a problem for ATC.
  45. Is an alternate static source required for IFR flight?
    Only when flying for hire
  46. How can you tell the difference between a spin and steep spiral by reference to the instruments?
    • Spin airspeed is near zero
    • Steep spiarl airspeed is rising
  47. Explain "VFR-on-top" clearance?
    • Fly at appropriate VFR altitude, comply with VFR visibility and cloud seperation criteria
    • Comply with all other IFR regulations
  48. Define TDZL
    Touchdown zone lights
  49. What is RCLS?
    Runway centerline lighting system
  50. What requires immediate notifcation to the NTSB?
    • An accident or any of the following incidents:
    • Flight control system malfunction
    • Injury or sickness of flight crew member
    • Failure of structural components of turbine engine
    • Inflight fire
    • Collision in flight
    • $25,000 in damage to property or other aircraft
    • Aircraft overdue and believed to have been in an accident
  51. GRABBCARD for IFR Flight
    • Generator or Alternator of adequate capacity
    • Radios
    • Altimeter
    • Ball (turn coordinator)
    • Clock (sweeping second hand or digital)
    • Attitude indicator
    • Rate of turn (turn coordinator)
    • Directional GYRO
    • DME above 24,000 ft
  52. How is the aircraft approach category determined?
    1.3 times VSO the stall speed in landing configuration at maximum gross weight
  53. What is the maximum holding speed for reciprocating engine airplanes, and when are you expected to effect the speed reduction?
    • 175 KIAS
    • within 3 minutes of reaching the fix
  54. What is the "ADIZ" and what is required to pass through it?
    Air defense identification zone

    • Flight plan IFR or Defense VFR
    • Two-way radios
    • Opearating transponder
    • Position reports
  55. What colors are the runway edges on an instrument runway?
    • White initial
    • Amber last 2000 feet or last half of runway shorter than 4000 feet
  56. Who must have an ELT?
    All aircraft except:

    • Jets
    • Scheduled flights
    • training flights within 50nm of home airport
    • Design and testing
    • New aircraft
    • Single seat aircraft
  57. What is a warning area?
    Airspace of defined dimensions extending from 3NM outward from the coast of the US containing activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. You can enter it, just realize the potential dangers.
  58. How wide is a vector airway?
    4 NM each side of centerline up to 51NM from the VOR
  59. What is a cruise clearance?
    • Allows pilot to select any altitude between minimum IFR altitude (Mea) and assigned altitude
    • After reporting leaving an altitude you can not go back to that altitude
    • Any approach can be used to land at the destination
  60. What is the sequence of information given when making a routine report IFR in non-radar environment?
    • Identification
    • Position
    • Time
    • Altitude
    • Position (over next reporting point)
    • Time
    • Position (over following reporting point)
  61. How often are enroute charts and approach plates revised?
    Every 56 Days
  62. What can you use as substitutions for inoperable components on an ILS approach?
    • Middle marker- PAR or Compass locator
    • Outer marker- PAR, ASR, NDB, VOR, DME
  63. What are the limits of the area where you can receive proper course guidance from the localizer?
    35 degrees within 20NM then 10 degrees out to 18NM from 1,000 FT to 4,500 FT AGL
  64. What is an LDA?
    Localizer-Type Directional Aid

    • Non precision/no glide slope
    • Comparable in utility and accuracy to ILS LOC
    • Not aligned with the runway
  65. What is an SDF?
    • Non precision approach no glide slope
    • not aligned with runway
    • course may be wider than a standard localizer 6 or 12 degrees
  66. What are the colors and patterns for the marker beacons?
    • Outer- Blue 2 dashes per second
    • Middle- Amber alternate dot and dash
    • Innermarker- Only dots
  67. Explain a stepdown fix
    Fix at which a descent to another altitude is allowed. Only one stepdown fix after the FAF is allowed. It must be identified by DME.
  68. Does an aircraft on an instrument flight plan making an instrument approach in VFR conditions have the righ of way or priority over other VFR traffic?
  69. What is the maximum allowable altimeter error for IFR?
    +/- 75 ft from field elevation
  70. What is the maximum allowable precision error DG for IFR?
    3 degrees in 15 minutes
  71. Does it matter where a VOT check is performed? Can it be done in the air?
    VOT check can be performed only as published in the A/FD whether it is a ground or airborne checkpoint
  72. Define MEA
    minimum enroute altitude which guarantees adequate obstructions clearance: 1,000 ft non-mountain and 2,000 ft in mountains within 4NM of airways. Navigation signal reception gauranteed but not communications.
  73. Deinfe MOCA
    Minimum obstruction clearance altitude which provies same obstruction clearance as MEA, Navigational signal coverage is guaranteed only within 22nm of the facility
  74. Define MAA
    Maximum authorized altitude
  75. MRA
    Minimum reception altitude
  76. MCA
    Minimum crossing altitude
  77. Explain the term straight-in versus circling minimums
    Straight in minimums require the runway to be aligned within 30 degrees otherwise circling minimums will be shown
  78. What follow up reports are required by the NTSB?
    • Accident within 10 days
    • Incident if requested
    • Missing aircaft 7 days
  79. When are you required to have a Mode C transponder?
    • All aircraft in Class A, B, and C
    • Within the 30NM mode C ring around class B
    • All airspace above 10,000 FT MSL
  80. What are the instrument currency requirements?
    • Within the preceeding 6 calender months at least:
    • 6 instrument approaches, 1 hold, intercepting and tracking
  81. What happens if a pilot allows his instrument currency to expire?
    After 6 months beyond the expiration of IFR currency the pilot in command may not operate in IFR conditions as PIC without receiving an instrument proficiency check or performing the above task with a safety pilot in simulated conditions.
  82. Who can be a safety pilot?
    Any pilot with a private pilot or above
  83. What is legally considered instrument flight time?
    Flight solely by reference to the instrument.
  84. When do you have to file an alternate?
    • 1 hour before and 1 hour after ETA at airport the weather repots forceast indicate:
    • 2000 foot ceilings
    • 3SM visibility
  85. what are the standared alternate minimums?
    • 600 Ft and 2SM visibility precision approach
    • 800 Ft and 2SM visibility non precision approach
  86. How can I tell if anairport has non-standard alternate minimums?
    Look for dark triangle with the letter A on the approach plate
  87. What are standard take-off minimums?
    • 1SM for 1 or 2engine
    • 1/2SM for more than 2 engines
  88. What are the fuel requirements for IFR flight?
    • complete flight to airport of intended landing
    • fly from that airport to alternate
    • fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed
  89. How can I tell if an airport has non standard take off minimums and procedures?
    Look for dark triangle with the letter T on the approach plate