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2010-11-06 11:58:57

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  1. What are the intracellular and extracellular concentrations of sodium?
    • Intracellular = 15mM
    • Extracellular = 150mM
  2. What are the intracellular and extracellular concentrations of Potassium?
    • Intracellular = 150mM
    • Extracellular = 5 mM
  3. What are the intracellular and extracellular concentrations of Calcium?
    • Intracellular = 0.0001mM (free)
    • Extracellular = 1mM (free)
  4. What are the intracellular and extracellular concentrations of Glucose?
    • Intracellular = 1mM
    • Extracellular = 5.6 mM
  5. Definition:
    The concentration of all osmotically active particles dissolved in water
  6. What are the non-penetrating solutes:
    Ions (Na, K, Cl, Ca, etc.) and nutrients
  7. What are the penetrating solutes?
    Glucose and Urea
  8. Definition:
    A measure of the ability of a solution to induce shrinkage or swelling when placed in contact with specified cells
  9. Water will flow down its concentration gradient from a solution with ( ) osmolarity to a solution with ( ) osmolarity
    Low to High
  10. Definition:
    The pressure that must be exerted on the cell to prevent the flow of water due to the solute concentration difference
    Osmotic Pressure
  11. What effect does a high osmolarity (high solute concentration) have on osmotic pressure?
    Higher osmolarity = higher osmotic pressure
  12. Type of membrane potential for a given ion where the driving force of the concentration gradient balances the driving force of the electrical gradient. There is no net movement of the ions across the membrane
    Equilibrium Potential
  13. What is the equilibrium potential of Potassium?
    -89 mV
  14. What is the equilibrium potential of Sodium?
    +60 mV
  15. What is the equilibrium potential of Chloride?
    -72 mV
  16. At rest, the conductance of which ion is approximately 50x that of which other ion?
    At rest, the conductance of potassium is approximately 50x greater than sodium
  17. Osmolarity Calculations:
    150 mM NaCl = ?
    5 mM KCl = ?
    1 mM CaCl2 = ?
    2 mM MgCl2 = ?
    10 mM Glucose = ?
    • 150 mM NaCl = 300 mOsm
    • 5 mM KCl = 10 mOsm
    • 1 mM CaCl2 = 3 mOsm
    • 2 mM MgCl2 = 6 mOsm
    • 10 mM Glucose = 10 mOsm
  18. Resting membrane potential
    -70 mV
  19. Definition:
    The difference between the membrane potential and the equilibrium potential
    Driving Potential
  20. Events during an Action Potential (7):
    • 1. Neuron at resting potential
    • 2. Depolarization of neuron causes membrane to reach threshold potential and activate voltage-
    • gated sodium channels
    • 3. Influx of sodium leads to further depolarization of neuron. Depolarization produced by influx of
    • sodium causes delayed opening of potassium channels
    • 4. Sodium channels inactivate after 1 msec
    • 5. Efflux of potassium causes repolariztion of neuron
    • 6. Overshoot of hyperpolarization is due to high potassium conductance
    • 7. Potassium channels close and membrane potential returns to resting potential
  21. What is the threshold potential?
    -55 mV
  22. What 2 factors cause an increase in conduction velocity of an action potential?
    Myelination and increasing the axon diameter
  23. Where does membrane potential peak?
    +30 mV
  24. What molecule is responsible for vesicle docking, and holds vesicles in place?
  25. What digests SNAREs, inhibiting neurotransmitter release?
    Botulinum Toxin
  26. This type of potential is due to the release of one vesicle of ACh. Depolarizes the postsynaptic membrane by 0.4 mV
    Miniature Endplate Potential (MEPP)
  27. This type of potential is produced by activation of nicotinic receptors by ACh. Due to an increase in both sodium and potassium conductance through nicotinic receptors. Magnitude is 40 mV. Caused by the release of over 200 synaptic vesicles
    End-plate Potential (EPP)
  28. Type of summation:
    Increasing the frequency of the action potentials of a single neuron will increase the amplitude of graded potentials. The second action potential arrives before the membrane potential has returned to baseline
    Temporal Summation
  29. Type of summation wherein multiple action potentials arrive at the same location at the same time
    Spatial Summation
  30. Drug used in the inhibition of neurotransmission that serves to blockade action potentials
  31. Drug used in inhibition of neurotransmission that serves to inhibit the synthesis of neurotransmitters
  32. Drug used in the inhibition of neurotransmission that inhibits the storage of neurotransmitters
  33. Drug used in inhibition of neurotransmission. It is an N-type calcium channel blocker. It is released from sea snails & used for chronic pain.
  34. This drug is the nicotinic receptor antagonist
  35. This drug is the muscarinic receptor antagonist
  36. This drug is the beta-adrenergic receptor antagonist
  37. Drug used to inhibit neurotransmitter metabolism with organophosphates that inhibit acetylcholine esterase
  38. Monoamine Oxidase (MAO) metabolizes which three catecholamines?
    Dopamine, Norepinephrine, Epinephrine
  39. Monoamine Oxidase (MAO) metabolizes which indolamine?
  40. This drug is used as an antidepressant and in Parkinson's disease
  41. Catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) inhibitors increase levels of which catecholamines in synaptic clefts?
    Dopamine, Norepinephrine, Epinephrine
  42. Which two dugs are known as catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) inhibitors and are used for Parkinson's disease?
    Tolcapone and Tasmar
  43. What drug blocks dopamine reuptake?
  44. What drug blocks serotonin reuptake?
    Fluoxetine (Prozac)
  45. Which drug is an alpha-adrenergic agonist?
  46. These drugs bind to GABA receptors and increase the frequency of the GABA-stimulated chloride channel opening
    Benzodiazpines (Diazepam, Valium)
  47. Definition:
    Causes the reduction or elimination of pain
  48. Definition:
    This causes a reduction or elimination of sensation. Includes mechanical sensation (touch, pressure, vibration) and painful stimuli (nociception) and temperature
  49. Type of local ester anesthetic. First synthetic local anesthetic. Used as an infiltration anesthetic and occasionally for nerve blocks for diagnostics. Low potency, slow onset, short duration of action. Has been replaced by newer agents
    Procaine (Novocain)
  50. Type of local ester anesthetic. Fast onset, short acting, rapidly metabolized. Commonly used for labor and delivery and C-sections. Has generally replaced procaine as a short acting local anesthetic
    Chloroprocaine (Nesacaine)
  51. Type of ester anesthetic. More potent and longer duration than procaine due to slow metabolism. Widely used for spinal anethesia.
    Tetracaine (Pontocaine)
  52. Type of local ester anesthetic. Used only as a topical local anesthetic. A weak acid, so it exists primarily as uncharged form at physiological pH. Has rapid onset and effects last 30-60 minutes. Found in many over the counter preparations.
  53. Type of local ester anesthetic. First local anesthetic. Has both local anesthetic and potent vasoconstrictor properties (due to blockade of catecholamine reuptake at vascular smooth muscle). Used as a topical anesthetic primarily for analgesia of the upper respiratory tract as well as nose and ear procedures. Its vasoconstrictor properties limit the bleeding during the procedures and improve surgical visualization.
  54. An amide local anesthetic. The most widely used local anesthetic. Produces fast, intermediate lasting local anesthetic. Usually given as a 2% solution with epinephrine
    Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
  55. A widely used amide local anesthetic. Has a long duration of action. Has a higher cardiotoxic effect than lidocaine.
    Bupivicaine (Marcaine, Sensorcaine)
  56. Intermediate acting local amide anesthetic with properties similar to lidocaine, but with a slightly higher therapeutic index and a slightly longer (20%) duration of action. Slightly more toxic in neonate and should not be given for obstetrical anesthesia. Not an effective topical anesthetic.
    Mepivicaine (Carbocaine, Isocaine)
  57. Local amide anesthetic with long duration. Has less cardiotoxic effects than bupivicaine
    Ropivacaine (Naropin)
  58. Method of Anesthetic Administration:
    Anesthetic is administered by applying the local anesthetic to mucous membranes of the nose, mouth, throat, tracheobronchial tree, esophagus, and genitourinary tract. Anesthetics are rapidly absorbed into the blood after this type of application, and thus has a higher risk for toxic reactions.
    Topical Anesthetic
  59. Method of Anesthetic Administration:
    Extravascular placement of local anesthetic in area to be anesthetized. The local anesthetic is injected into the area without consideration of the course of the cutaneous nerves. Can produce effective anesthesia without disrupting bodily functions. A large amount can be given to a small area. Lidocaine is the most commonly used for this type of administration.
    Infiltration Anesthesia
  60. Method of Anesthetic Administration:
    Injection of a local anesthetic into or around a peripheral nerve or nerve plexsuses. Produces a greater area of anesthesia than infiltration anesthesia. Anesthesia of peripheral mixed nerves will cause loss of sensation as well as blockade of somatic motor neurons resulting relaxation of skeletal muscles. The outer portion of a peripheral nerve contains neurons from proximal areas while the inner portion of the nerve contains neurons from more distal areas. The anesthesia will occur several centimeters distal to the site of injection. Long acting anesthetics, bupivacaine and ropivacaine, are primarily used for this type of administration.
    Nerve Block Anesthesia
  61. Method of Anesthetic Administration:
    Injection of local anesthetic into the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the lumbar space. This route of administration produces anesthesia over a large portion of the body with minimal plasma levels. The anesthetic is injected below the termination of the spinal cord, approximately at the second lumbar vertebra, and above the termination of the thecal sac in the sacrum. The lumbar and sacral nerve roots are bathed in CSF and there is a large volume of CSF where drug can be injected with minimal chance of producing nerve trauma. Used for surgery to abdomen, lower extremities, and perineum. Long acting anesthetics, bupivacaine and ropivacaine, are used.
    Spinal Anesthesia
  62. Type of Anesthetic Administration:
    Local anesthetics are injected into the epidural space. The drugs can be administered in the caudal, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical regions of the spinal cord. The site of action is on the nerve roots. New technology allows for chronic administration through catheters placed in the epidural space. Local anesthetics are more readily absorbed into the circulation using this than spinal. Commonly used during labor and delivery. Can cross the placenta into the neonate. Lidocaine, Ropivacaine, and bupivacaine are used.
    Epidural Anesthesia
  63. Definition:
    This agent is used to block propagation of action potentials from sensory neurons into the spinal cord to releave nociception
    Local Anesthesia
  64. Definition:
    These are frequently included in the formulations with local anesthetics. Purposes are to decrease the absorption of the local anesthetics into the circulation, prolong the duration of action, and decrease toxicity. Epinephrine is the common one used.
  65. What are the five dose-dependent effects of Lidocaine?
    • 1. Analgesia
    • 2. Circumoral and tongue numbness, tinnitus, skeletal muscle twitching, systemic hypotension, myocardial depression
    • 3. Seizures, unconsciousness
    • 4. Apnea
    • 5. Cardiovascular depression
  66. What are the effector organs of the autonomic nervous system (4)?
    • 1. Cardiac Muscle
    • 2. Smooth Muscle
    • 3. Glands
    • 4. GI Neurons
  67. Which type of ganglionic neurons are myelinated, and secrete acetylcholine as their neurotransmitter?
    Preganglionic Neurons
  68. Where are the cell bodies of preganglionic neurons located, and where do they send their axons?
    Located in CNS and send axons to peripheral ganglia where they innervate postganglionic neurons
  69. Where are the cell bodies of postganglionic neurons located, and where do they send their axons?
    Located in peripheral autonomic ganglia, and send axons to the target organ
  70. Which type of ganglionic neurons are unmyelinated and secrete acetylcholine or norepinephrine as their transmitter?
    Postganglionic Neurons
  71. These cells are located in the adrenal medulla, and receive innervation from preganglionic sympathetic neurons. These secrete epinephrine and norepinephrine in proportions of 80% and 20%, respectively.
    Specialized Chromaffin Cells
  72. What is the cholinergic neurotransmitter?
  73. What is the primary neurotransmitter released by sympathetic postganglionic neurons?
  74. Is epinephrine released from sympathetic postganglionic neurons?
    No, it is only released as a hormone from chromaffin cells in the adrenal medulla
  75. Where are adrenergic receptors found?
    On effector organs or tissues
  76. What type of effects (excitatory or inhibitory) do alpha-adrenergic receptors produce?
    Excitatory, except in the GI tract, where they produce inhibitory effects
  77. Which type of receptor are located on presynaptic noradrenergic terminals and act as autoreceptors?
    Alpha2-adrenergic receptors
  78. What type of effects (excitatory or inhibitory) do beta-adrenergic receptors produce?
    Inhibitory, except in the heart, where they produce excitatory effects
  79. Where are beta1-adrenoreceptors primarily found, and what type of effects do they produce?
    Found primarily in the heart, and produce excitatory effects on the heart
  80. What type of receptors are located primarily in brown adipose tissue, are excited by circulating epinephrine, and mediate lipolysis when stimulated?
  81. Definition:
    Organs which receive innervation from both the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems have which type of innervation?
    Dual Innervation
  82. Definition:
    This occurs in dual innervated organs when the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems work together to produce an effect
    Functional Synergism
  83. Definition:
    A continuous resting level of autonomic neural activity to an organ or tissue. This means, in effect, that there is almost always some autonomic nerve activity from both the SNS and PNS under all types of conditions
    Tonic or Basal Nerve Activity
  84. What is the SYMPATHETIC receptor and response (effect) on the EYES?
    Alpha-1; Mydriasis (contract radial muscle)
  85. What is the PARASYMPATHETIC receptor and response (effect) on the EYES?
    Muscarinic; Miosis (contract circular muscle)
  86. What is the SYMPATHETIC receptor and response (effect) on the CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM?
    Beta-1; excitatory
  87. What is the PARASYMPATHETIC receptor and response (effect) on the CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM?
    Muscarinic; inhibitory
  88. What is the SYMPATHETIC receptor and response (effect) on the BLOOD VESSELS?
    alpha-1, alpha-2, and beta-2; Aphas excite, betas inhibit
  89. What is the PARASYMPATHETIC receptor and response (effect) on the BLOOD VESSELS?
    No effect
  90. What is the SYMPATHETIC receptor and response (effect) on the LUNGS?
    beta-2; inhibitory
  91. What is the PARASYMPATHETIC receptor and response (effect) on the LUNGS?
    Muscarinic; Excitatory
  92. What is the SYMPATHETIC receptor and response (effect) on the GI TRACT?
    Alphas and Betas; inhibitory
  93. What is the PARASYMPATHETIC receptor and response (effect) on the GI TRACT?
    Muscarinic; inhibitory
  94. What is the SYMPATHETIC receptor and response (effect) on the REPRODUCTIVE TRACT?
    Alpha-1; ejaculation
  95. What is the PARASYMPATHETIC receptor and response (effect) on the REPRODUCTIVE TRACT?
    Muscarinic; erection
  96. Definition:
    A reflex used to control short term changes in blood pressure
    Baroreceptor Reflex (Baroreflex)
  97. Where are receptors that sense blood pressure located?
    At the carotid sinus and the aortic arch
  98. What is one contributory mechanism of hypertension?
    An increase in the tonic or basal level of sympathetic tone to the heart and/or blood vessels
  99. Definition/Disorder:
    A tumor of the chromaffin cells in the adrenal gland. Accounts for only 0.1% of hypertensive patients
  100. Definition/Disorder:
    A drop in arterial pressure of 30 mmHg or more upon standing. Dizziness is felt upon standing due to an inadequate perfusion of the CNS. Due to an inadequate reflex control of blood pressure.
    Postural (Orthostatic) Hypotension
  101. Definition/Disorder:
    This results from loss of sympathetic innervation to the head; the damage that produces this can occur in any part of the total pathway from hypothalamus to spinal cord and back up to the head. There are three classic signs of this syndrome: Miosis, Ptosis, and Anhydrosis
    Horner's Syndrome
  102. Definition:
    Constriction of the pupil of the eye to less than or equal to 2 mm
  103. Definition:
    Drooping of the eyelid
  104. Definition:
    Loss of sweating
  105. Definition/Disorder:
    This can occur in diabetics due to degeneration of small nerve fibers. The precise cause is not certain, but may be a problem of adequate blood perfusion and/or metabolic problems in neurons. A wide variety of problems can result, such as impaired swallowing, delayed gastric emptying, diarrhea, orthostatic hypotension, bladder dysfunction, and erectile dysfunction
    Autonomic Diabetic Neuropathy
  106. Definition/Disorder:
    Some patients with a spinal cord lesion at the T6 level or above may develop this condition. The major characteristic of this condition is extremely high blood pressure. Multiple stimuli may evoke the hypertension, the most common of which being bladder distension and distension of the colon and/or rectum, but other stimuli such as touching the lower abdomen adn pregnancy may also evoke it. Presumably the plasticity that occurs in the spinal cord after a spinal cord injury allows sensory input to produce an abnormally large sympathetic outflow
    Autonomic Dysreflexia (aka Sympathetic Hyperreflexia)
  107. Does inhibition cause an increase or decrease in heart rate?
  108. Does excitation cause an increase or decrease in heart rate?
  109. Does constriction respresent an excitatory or inhibitory effect on blood vessels?
  110. Does dilation respresent an excitatory or inhibitory effect on blood vessels?
  111. Definition:
    These neurons send status reports of the organs to the CNS. All organs have them
    Sensory Neurons
  112. Single innervation is only seen where?
    blood vessels
  113. What activates non-innervated receptors?
    Circulating epinephrine
  114. Definition:
    Cyndrilical bundles of thick and think filaments that form muscle fiber; hexagonal array of thick and thin filaments
  115. What are A-bands composed of?
    Overlapping myosin and actin
  116. What are I-bands composed of?
    Actin alone
  117. Do I-bands change length during contraction?
    Yes, they shorten
  118. Do A-bands change length during contraction?
  119. Definition:
    The force exerted by muscle on an object
  120. Definition:
    The force exerted by an object on muscle
  121. Definition:
    A type of contraction wherein the load is equal to or greater than tension, there is no shortening, and there is a constant length of muscle. Measure tension
    Isometric Contraction
  122. Definition:
    A type of contraction wherein the tension is greater than the load, the muscle shortens, and there is constant tension. Measures length
    Isotonic Contraction
  123. As load decreases, what happens to the distance of shortening?
  124. What are the two factors that determine tension of whole muscles?
    • 1. Number of fibers per motor unit
    • 2. Recruitment--activation of more motor units
  125. Definition:
    Type of skeletal muscle that deals with metabolism. Has numerous mitochondria, rely on oxidative phosphorylation for ATP, highly vascularized, contain myoglobin to transport and help store O2 in cells, "red" muscle due to myoglobin
    Oxidative Fibers
  126. Definition:
    Type of skeletal muscle that deals with metabolism. Has high amounts of glycolytic enzymes, few mitochondria, large stores of glycogen, little myoglobin, poorly vascularized, pale color, "white" muscle fibers
    Glycolytic Fibers
  127. Definition:
    Type of skeletal muscle that has low ATPase activity, and slow cross-bridge cycling
    Slow-Twitch Fibers
  128. Definition:
    Type of skeletal muscle that has high ATPase activity, and rapid cross-bridge cycling
    Fast-Twitch Fibers
  129. What are the three characteristics of muscle fiber types?
    • 1. Myosin ATPase activity (slow-twitch or fast-twitch)
    • 2. Metabolism (oxidative or glycolytic)
    • 3. Fiber Size (small, medium, or large)
  130. What is the order of recruitment of muscle fiber types?
    • 1. Type I
    • 2. Type IIa
    • 3. Type IIb
  131. Definition:
    Decrease in tension after continuous stimulation
  132. Which muscle fiber type fatigue the slowest?
    Type I
  133. Which muscle fiber type fatigue the fastest?
    Type IIb
  134. What is the present theory of the mechanism of muscle fatigue?
    Accumulation of inorganic phosphate (PO4) during muscle activity inhibits cross bridges binding to actin
  135. Definition:
    Bundles of muscle fibers
  136. Do the thick and thin filaments change length during muscle contraction?
    No, shortening is due to thin filaments sliding over the thick filaments
  137. What are the four steps of the cross bridge cycle in muscle contraction?
    • 1. "Energized" cross bridge attaches to actin
    • 2. Pi is released and cross bridge rotates and pulls the thin filaments towards the center of the sarcomere; ADP is released from myosin head
    • 3. ATP binds to myosin head; cross bridge detaches
    • 4. Hydrolysis of ATPase on myosin energizes cross bridge
  138. What are the two roles of ATP in the cross bridge cycle?
    • 1. Hydrolysis of ATP "energizes" the cycle
    • 2. Binding of ATP breaks the linkage

    *Lack of ATP produces rigor mortis--the stiffness seen in rigor mortis is due to crossbridges staying bound to actin
  139. What effect does the binding of calcium to troponin produce?
    Causes a conformational change in troponin, which allows tropomyosin to move off of the actin binding site, leaving it open for myosin cross-bridges to bind, leading to muscle contraction
  140. At what load to you get maximum velocity?
    Zero Load
  141. What type of contraction is seen as maximum load
    No contraction (isometric twitch)
  142. What does cancer cachexia cause?
    An irreversible loss of muscle mass
  143. What change in fiber type can happen with endurance exercise?
    Fast-glycolytic fibers (type IIb) can increase oxidative enzymes and become fast oxidative fibers (Type IIa)
  144. What change in fiber type can happen with high intensity exercise?
    Fast oxidative fibers (type IIa fibers) can increase glycolytic enzymes and become fast glycolytic fibers (type IIb)
  145. What is the function of dense bands in smooth muscle?
    Attach actin to membrane
  146. Definition:
    Low resistance electical pathways between cells in smooth muscle
    Gap Junctions
  147. Which branch of the nervous system provides the innervation for smooth muscle?
    Autonomic Nervous System
  148. Does smooth muscle fatigue?
  149. What does calcium bind to in smooth muscle?
  150. What does the calcium-calmodulin complex bind to in smooth muscle?
    Myosin Light-Chain Kinase
  151. What are the seven steps of smooth muscle PHASIC contraction?
    • 1. Calcium binds to calmodulin
    • 2. Calcium-calmodulin complex binds to myosin light-chain complex
    • 3. Myosin light-chain kinase phosphorylates myosin with ATP
    • 4. Activated myosin then binds to actin and begins the cross bridge cycle
    • 5. Sequestration of calcium causes inactivation of myosin light chain kinase
    • 6. Myosin is dephosphorylated and cross bridge cycle ceases
    • 7. If myosin is detached from actin when myosin is dephosphorylated by phosphatase, then the muscle relaxes
  152. What differences are seen in TONIC contraction of smooth muscle?
    • 1. Activation of cross bridge cycle by CaCAM activation of myosin light chain kinase
    • 2. If myosin is attached to actin when myosin is dephosphorylated, then the myosin remains attached to actin and a sustained contraction ocurrs (latch state). The myosin will detach when myosin is rephosphorylated by MLCK
  153. Definition/Smooth Muscle Type:
    This smooth muscle type has a high degree of innervation. Individual muscle cells contract independently of their neighbor. "Multiunit" refers to the muscles acting independently as multiple units. There is no organized neuromuscular junction. Neurotransmitter is released from variscosities adn affects fewer cells.
    Multiunit Smooth Muscle
  154. Definition:
    The synapse between autonomic nerves and smooth muscle
    Neuroeffector Junction
  155. Definition/Smooth Muscle Type:
    In this type of smooth muscle, smooth muscle cells contract with other cells. There are numerous gap junctions to allow electrical coupling between smooth muscle cells. Coordinated contractions spread across the muscle by propagation of electrical activity through gap junctions. This smooth muscle type is found in the muscles lining the hollow organs.
    Single Unit Smooth Muscle (aka Unitary Smooth Muscle)
  156. What three factors causes the velocity of smooth muscle contractions to be 10 to 100 times slower than skeletal muscle?
    • 1. the ATPase for the myosin is slower in smooth muscle than in skeletal muscle
    • 2. the calcium for smooth muscle comes from extracellular sources
    • 3. the cross bridge cycle depends on the degree of phosphorylation of the myosin
    • (the greater percentage of myosin phosphorylated, the faster the velocity of contraction)
  157. Pharmomechanical coupling in smooth muscle is contraction without changes in membrane potential. Receptor activation leads to increased levels of what molecule? What is released from SR?
    Leads to increased inositol triphosphate (IP3) and release of calcium from SR
  158. Definition:
    Contraction of smooth muscle without changes in membrane potential
    Pharmacomechanical Coupling
  159. beta 2 receptors are in
    lungs, blood vessels
  160. Beta 2 receptors activity
    not active naturally (can be pharmacologic targets)
  161. muscles that make hair stand up
  162. viscous saliva comes from
    sympathetic innervation of salivary glands
  163. What does beta 1 agonist do?
    • Increase heart rate
    • Increase ventricular contraction
    • Increase conduction velocity
  164. Classic nicotinic receptor blocker
  165. Preganglionic efferent neurotransmitter for autonomic nervous system
  166. Whenever there is reciprocal innervation who wins, parasympathetic or sympathetic?
  167. sympathetic ganglia location
    close to spinal cord
  168. regional blood vessels - skin - what receptor is sparse?
    very very few non innervated beta 2 receptors
  169. True or False:
    Curare also blocks autonomic ganglia
    True at higher doses
  170. Example of organ that has reciprocal innervation
    pacemaker part of the heart
  171. True or False:
    Epinephrine will cause vasodilation in muscles
    True, beta 2 receptors common there
  172. Parasympathetic ganglia location
    close to effectors
  173. baroreceptors are what kind of receptors?
  174. eccrine sweat glands are activated by what neurotransmitter
    acetylcholine (sympathetic)
  175. most important role of epinephrine in the body in fight or flight (according to Koss)
    glycogenesis (beta 2 receptor liver), free fatty acid release (beta 2 adipose tissue)
  176. Constriction of pupil (definition)
  177. dilation of pupil
  178. micturition
  179. What does Curare do?
    Blocks nicotinic receptors
  180. Nitric oxide in blood vessels causes
  181. what does atropine do?
    blocks muscarinic receptors
  182. What does physostigmine target?
    targets acetylcholinesterase