Exercise Physiology

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Exercise Physiology
2010-10-29 20:00:36
Exercise Physiology

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  1. _______ ______: process by which ambient air is moved into and exchanges air in the lungs. Different from oxygen consumption.
    Pulmonary Ventilation
  2. _______: diaphragm descends, ribs are raised, volume increases, intrapulmonic pressure decreases, air rushes in. (external intercostals, scm, scalenes, spinal extensors)
  3. _________: diaphragm relaxes, ribs lower, volume decreases, intrapulmonic pressure increases, air rushes out. (rectus abdominus, internal intercostals, posterior inferior serratus)
  4. _____ _____: governs gas diffusion through alveoli. It's rate is directly proportional to the tissue area, a diffusion constant (solubility, molecular wt), and the pressure differential on either side of the membrane.
    Fick's Law
  5. True or False: Co2 diffuses about 10 times faster than O2 because of higher solubility.
    False: 20 times faster
  6. ____ ____: maximal inspiration at end of tidal inspiration

    ____ ____: maximal expiration at end of tidal expiration.

    ____ ____: maximal volume expired after maximal inspiration.
    Tidal Volume (TV)

    Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV)

    Force Vital Capacity (FVC) (TV +IRV + ERV)
  7. _____ ____ ____: air volume remaining in lungs after maximal expiration.
    ____ ______ ____: volume in lungs after tidal expiration.
    _____ _____ _____: volume in lungs after maximal inspiration.
    • Residual Lung Volume (RLV)
    • Functional Residual Capicity (FRC) (ERV+RLV)
    • Total Lung Capacity (TLC) (FVC+RLV)
  8. FEV/____- normal or increased for restrictive lung disease (80% or greater)
    ___/ FVC- <70% indicates obstructive lung disease
    ___: only 40% of normal in obstructive lung disease
    • FVC
    • FEV
    • MVV
  9. True or False: Dynamic Lung Volumes provide no information about aerobic fitness. There is no difference between healthy and olympic athletes.
  10. True or False: Dynamic Lung Volumes does not provide indication of health risk for "at risk" exercisers.
  11. _____ _____: Increases intrathoracic pressure that occurs when exhalation is forced against closed glottis. Results in collapse of veins in thoracic region, impaired venous return, acute drop in arterial blood pressure, decreased blood supply to brain, and "spots before the eyes".
    Valsalva Maneuver
  12. True or False: Valsalva Maneuver causes acute rise in blood pressure with resistance training.
  13. ____ ____: driving force for pulmonary blood and alveolar gas exchane.
    Pressure Differential
  14. ____ ____: the rate of gas diffusion into a liquid depends on pressure differential between the gas above the fluid and gas dissolved in the fluid and solubility of the gas in the fluid.
    Henry's Law
  15. PO2 ___ mm Hg: regulates breathing and 02 loading of Hb.

    PCO2- __ mmHg: chemical basis for ventilatory control via respiratory center.
    • 100
    • 40
  16. In the Medulla
    ___ neurons activate diaphragm and intercostals.

    ___ neurons activated by passive recoil of lungs.
    • Inspiratory
    • Expiratory
  17. True or False: P02 has most important respiratory stimulus to medulla at rest.
    False: PC02 has most important stimulus. P02 has no effect.
  18. Describe the phases of Ventilatory Response During Exercise:
    • 1. Neurogenic: central command, peripheral input stimulates medulla. RAPID RISE
    • 2. Neurogenic: continued central command, peripheral chemoreceptors (carotid) SLOWER EXPONENTIAL RISE
    • 3. Peripheral- C02, H+, lactate(medulla), peripheral chemoreceptors. STEADY RATE VENTILATION
    • 4. Recovery- removal of central, peripheral, chemical input ABRUPT DECLINE
  19. _____ ____: ratio of minute ventilation to oxygen consumption. 25=light exercise/35-40=intense exercise
    Ventilatory equivalent
  20. _____ ____: imbalance between lactate formation and clearance. Describe 4 Ways:
    • Lactate Threshold
    • 1. reduced lactate clearance
    • 2. increased lactate production in specific fibers
    • 3. increased rate of glycolysis/cellular respiration
    • 4. reduced blood oxygen content
  21. Describe 3 functions lof measuring Lactate Threshold levels:
    • 1. Provides sensitive indicators of aerobic training status
    • 2. Predicts endurance performance
    • 3. Establishes effective training intensity
  22. ____ ____: point of disproportionate increase in Ve with increased VO2.
    True or False: increase not linked to increased 02 demand but increased C02.

    Lactate+ NaHC03 yields NaLactate + H2C03 --> H20 + C02
    • Ventilatory Threshold
    • True
  23. ____ _____ ____: inability to fully aerate blood in pulmonary capillaries. Caused by Rapid Blood Flow, Bypass Of Diffusion Area, and ANF (pulmonary capillary vasodilators affected.
    Exercise Induced Ventilation
  24. ___ muscle in arterioles constricts or relaxes to regulate blood flow to periphery. Vessel diameter is critical to blood flow.
  25. BP= ____ (Q)x ___ _____

    ___ BP: during left ventricular contraction the highest pressure generated (120)
    __ BP: relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle (80)
    cardiac output (Q) x peripheral resistance


  26. Peripheral Resistance = ___/ __
  27. ____ ____ Mechanism: reduced renal blood flow causes kidneys to release renin. Renin stimulates function of angiotensin1 that converts rapidly to angiotensin 2. Angiotensin 2 constricts arterial blood vessels and stimulates adrenal cortex to release aldosterone, which causes sodium and salt retention by kidneys.
    Renin-angiotensin mechanism
  28. ____ blockers: adrenergic inhibitors that slow heart rate and reduce myocardial contractility.
    ___ blockers: adrenergic inhibitors that induce dilation of arterial blood vessels.
    ___ ___ blockers: induce dilation of arterial blood vessels.
    ______: cause renal excretion of electrolytes and water to reduce plasma volume.
    _____ inhibitors: induce dilation of arterial blood vessels by inhibiting kidney's production of vasoconstricting hormone angiotensin. Causes retension of sodium and water which expands blood volume.
    • beta blockers
    • alpha blockers
    • calcium channel blockers
    • diuretics
    • ace inhibitors
  29. At rest, myocardium can extract __-__% of 02 in blood of coronary vessels. Other tissues __%.
    • 70-80%
    • 25%
  30. ___ ___ node: "pacemaker" located within posterior wall of R atrium.
    Sinoatrial Node
  31. ____ Effect: increases HR (SA node) resulting in tachycardia.
    ____ Effect: increases myocardial contractility.
    • Chronotropic effect
    • Inotropic effect
  32. Sympathetic nervous system releases _____ which accelerates HR.
    Parasympathetic nervous system releases ____ which slows HR.
    _____: slowing of heart due to vagus nerve stimulation.
    • catecholamines (epinephrine/norepinephrine)
    • acetylcholine
    • Bradychardia
  33. ______ Law: Pressure= Gradient X vessel radius4 / Vessel Length X viscocity

    Decrease radius by half, flow decreases by __
    Increase radius by 2, flow increases by __
    • Poiseuille's Law
    • 16
    • 16
  34. _____ _____: key signal molecule in dilation of blood vessels and decreasing vascular resistance.
    Nitrous oxide
  35. ____ ____: amount of blood pumped by the heart in 1 minute.
    cardiac output
  36. Describe the 2 things we measure to calculate cardiac output.
    • 1. average difference between 02 content of arterial blood and venous blood
    • 2. 02 consumed in 1 min.
  37. Cardiac output at rest:
    5l/min for 70 kg _____
    4 l/min for 56 kg _____
    • male
    • female
  38. Describe 2 factors that affect cardiac output at rest.
    • 1. training increases vagal tone (parasympathetic) and decreases sympathetic drive (lowers HR)
    • 2. training increases blood volume, myocardial contractility, comliance LV (increases SV)
  39. Cardiac output increases __ fold during exercise for untrained individuals.

    Cardiac output increases __ fold during exercise for trained individuals.
    • 4 fold
    • 7 fold
  40. Describe the 3 mechanisms that increases SV during exercise.
    • 1. enhanced diastolic filling
    • 2. greater systolic emptying
    • 3. training adaptation-expanded blood volume and reduced peripheral resistance
  41. ___-___ mechanism: contractile force increases as resting lenght of cardiac fibers increases.
    Frank-Starling mechanism
  42. ____ ____: increase in HR and decrease in SV during exercise due to plasma volume shift, decreased preload, and reduced SV.
    cardiovascular drift
  43. What adaptations allow expansion of a-v 02 difference:
    • increased capillary to fiber ration
    • increased oxidative enzyme activity
    • increased size and number of mitochondria
  44. ____ Hypertrophy: endurance training; 25% larger heart volume and volume overload with training- increased plasma volume ("preload")

    ____ Hypertrophy- resistance training: thicker intraventricular septum, ventricular wall thickness, and increased "afterload"- heart is constantly pumping against resistance to blood flow
    • Eccentric
    • Concentric
  45. ______: dense CT surrounding entire muscle- joins to stron CT of the tendons at the muscle tendon junction.
    ______: CT layer surrounding bundles of muscle fibers (up to 150-fasciculus)- major pathway for blood vessels and nerves.
    ______: fine layer of CT separates each muscle fiber- role in force transmission to tendon.
    • Epimysium
    • Perimysium
    • Endomysium
  46. ____ ____: terminal cisternae, ca2+ storage site.

    ____ ____: direct electrical impulse into muscle.

    _____ : produce ATP in vicinity of contractile apparatus.
    • sarcoplasmic reticulum
    • transverse tubules
    • mitochondria
  47. ____: wind around each other in double helical arrangement.
    ____: bundles contain globular heads.
    • Actin
    • Myosin
  48. ______: functional unit of the muscle fiber (contractile apparatus of the fiber.
  49. Three substances that play an essential role in muscle contraction:
    acetylcholine, calcium, atp
  50. _____: released from motor nerve axon causes depolarization of muscle fiber- action potential travels along muscle fiber, down into t-tubule, causing __ release from sarcoplasmic reticulum.
    • acetylcholine
    • ca2+
  51. __ binds to troponin allowing actin and myosin to bind.

    Actin and myosin binding cause myosin ATPase to hydrolyze ___ to ADP causing myosin crossbridge movement.
    Ca2+ is taken up by the _____ _____ as muscle activation ceases, restoring Troponin-Tropomyosin inhibition with actin and myosin in relaxed state.
    • Ca2+
    • ATP
    • Sarcoplasmic reticulum
  52. _____: fibers run parallel to muscle's long axis, a fiber's force generation transmits directly to the tendon.
    _____: pennation angle, some of the force is Not transmitted to the tendon, but allows for more sarcomeres to contribute to force production.
    • Fusiform
    • Pennate
  53. Afferent neurons enter cord through ____ ____ and transmit sensory information from periphery.
    Afferent neurons synapse through _______ that relay information to various levels of cord.
    • dorsal root
    • interneurons
  54. ____ ____: consists of the motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates. May innervate many muscles but each muscle fiber is innervatied my only one neuron.
    motor unit
  55. The ____ _____ is the information sender and the _____ _____ is the information recipient. However, most neurons function as both.
    • Presynaptic neuron
    • postsynaptic neuron
  56. At an excitatory synapse, ___ binds to postsynaptic neuron and causes _____ channels to open. The influx of ____ increases the voltage across the membrane and an action potential is generated if reaches approximately ___.
    • Ach
    • Sodium
    • Sodium
    • -50 Mv
  57. ______: describes changes in membrane potential that helps trigger an action potential.
    ______: describes change in membrane potential that inhibits an action potential.
    • EPSP's
    • IPSP's
  58. At an inhibitory synapse the binding of neurotransmitter ____ to postsynaptic neuron causes ___ channels to open. Influx of ____ decreases the voltage across the membrane and an action potential is not generated.
    • GABA
    • Chloride
    • Cl-
  59. _____ _____: one of the factors that contributes to increases in strength prior to hypertrophy of the muscle.
    Neural Facillitation
  60. ___ ____ motor units innervate Type IIb muscle fibers.
    ____ ____ motor units innervate Type IIa muscle fibers.
    _____ motor units innervate Type I muscle fibers.
    • Fast Fatigable (FF)
    • Fatigue Resistant (FR)
    • Slow
  61. ______ or ______ ______: either the neuron receives enough input to initiate an action potential or it does not.
    All or None Principle
  62. Describe the 2 methods to improve force gradation of muscle.
    • 1. Increasing the number of motor units
    • 2. Increasing the frequency of discharge
  63. _____ _____: motor units with the small axons are recruited first, while motor units with larger axons are recruited last.
    Size Principle
  64. _____ _____: Tap stretches muscle, muscle spindle detects stretch , sensory fibers send signal to cord. Alpha motor neuron contracts muscle and extends leg.
    Stretch Reflex
  65. _____ ______: inhibition of motor neurons controlling the antagonist muscles.
    Reciprocal Inhibition
  66. ____ _____ ____: causes muscle relaxation and lengthening in response to contraction.
    Golgi Tendon Organ
  67. ____ ____ ____: rapidly progressing fatal disease attacking the upper motor neurons and lower motor neurons due to neurotoxicity.
    Amyotropic Lateral Sclerosis.
  68. ____ _____: no communication between nerve and muscle . Less junctional folding and fewer ACh receptors. Inhibition of existing ACh receptors by antibodies. Widened synaptic cleft. End plate potentials diminished. Corticosteroids and Immunosupressive drugs may help.
    Myasthenia Gravis
  69. _____ _____: slow or delayed relaxation of muscle after a contraction. Continuous muscle activity in absence of input from motor neuron.
    Myotonia Congenita
  70. _____: South American Indian arrowhead poison binds to ACh receptor. Asphyxiation occurs when respiratory muscles are involved.
  71. _____: singnal by nerve at muscle does not cause depolarization thus muscles do not respond due to blockage of Sodium channels.