vet anatomy

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Fkamins
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4901
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vet anatomy
Updated:
2010-01-25 20:33:02
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anatomical overview
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more dissection
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  1. Structural classification groups joints according to their what?
    uniting medium
  2. What the 3 types of uniting medium of joints in structural classification?
    Fibrous, cartilagenous and synovial
  3. What type of joint is a suture?
    A joint is fibrous aka synarthrosis, immovable
  4. Is a gomphosis a true joint? and what is a gomphosis
    Gomphosis- implantation of teeth in the jaw. It is not a true joint b/c the teeth are not a part of the skeleton
  5. Where are the symphyseal joints found?
    Along the midline of the bode ie: pelvic girdle
  6. What type of joint occurs b/w the bodies of most vertebrae?
    intervertebral discs
  7. Define the following:
    Ginglymus or hinge joint
    plane joint
    ball and socket/spheroidal joint
    pivot joint
    condylar joint
    • Ginglymus aka hinge joint- only for flexion/extension ie: elbow
    • plane joint- gliding or sliding ie: carpal bones
    • ball and socket- allows universal movement ie: shoulder/hip
    • pivot- rotation around a long. axis ie: atlantoaxial joint
    • condylar- flexion/extension/rotation ie: stifle
  8. Most joints of the thoracic and pelvic limb have what type of ligaments? Which joints don't?
    • Collateral ligaments
    • shoulder and hip
  9. what 5 things characterize a synovial joint?
    mobility, articular cartilage, joint capsule w/ fibrous/synovial membrane, synovial fluid, joint space
  10. What covers the articular ends of bones?
    articular cartilage aka hyaline cartilage
  11. What is the nerve and vascular supply in articular cartilage?
    none; cartilage is not vascularized
  12. How does articular cartilage receive nutrition and remove waste?
    Synovial fluid (hence, trace amounts remain in the joint space)
  13. Where are bursae located?
    • bone/skin
    • tendon/bone
    • bone/muscle
    • bone/ligament
  14. What is the function of a bursa
    protection; to lessen friction on articular surface of bone
  15. What structure is like a bursa and completely wraps around a tendon?
    Synovial sheath
  16. Where are synovial sheaths commonly found?
    Carpus, tarsus, digits
  17. What is the function or a synovial sheath
    to reduce friction on tendon as it crosses over joints
  18. What is the configuration of a shoulder joint?
    ball-and -socket joint
  19. List the joints of the manus and the bones they are between
    • carpus:
    • - antebrachiocarpal: bw radius, ulna and carpal bones
    • -middle carpal: bw proximal and distal carpal rows
    • -carpometacarpal joint: bw distal carpal and metacarpal bones
    • - Metacarpophalangeal joint (MP): bw metacarpal and proximal phalanx
    • -proximal interdigital (PIP): bw proximal and middle phalanges
    • - Distal interdigital (DIP): bw middle and distal phalanges
  20. With what do the proximal and distal ends of the ribs articulate?
    • proximal: thoracic vertebrae
    • distal: sternum
  21. Name the fibrocartilages bw the bodies of adjacent vertebrae
    intervertebral discs
  22. What elastic connective tissue structure attaches the 1st thoracic spine to the spine of the axis (C2) in the dog? In the cat?
    Nuchal ligament; cats don't have any.
  23. What elastic tissue fills the dorsal space (interarcuate space) bw the arches of adjacent vertebrae?
    Ligamentum flavum, interacuate, or yellow ligament
  24. What connects the heads of a pair of opp ribs, crossing the dorsal part of the intervertebral discs?
    Intercapital ligament
  25. What is the relatively immovable joint (synarthrosis) between the sacrum and the ilium?
    Sacroiliac joint
  26. Name the ball-and-socket joint of the pelvic limb
    Hip joint aka coxal joint
  27. What are the fibrocartilaginous discs bw the condyles of the femur and tibia?
    Medial and lateral menisci
  28. How are the cruciate ligaments that attach the femur and tibia named?
    for their attachment to the tibia
  29. List the 4 main joints of the hock/tarsus
    • tibiotarsal/tarsocrural/talocrural
    • proximal intertarsal joint (PIT)
    • distal intertarsal joint (DIT)
    • tarsometatarsal joint (TMt)
  30. List the diff types of muscles and whether or not they're voluntary
    skeletal m is voluntary while smooth/cardiac are not
  31. What are the 2 attachments of skeletal muscle?
    • origin: moves the least of the 2
    • insertion: moves more usually out twds limb, more distal
  32. What are the flat attachments of flat muscles (ie:abd m)
    aponeuroses
  33. What is the diff b/w tendons and ligaments?
    Tendons attach muscle to bone while ligaments attach 2 bones
  34. What do muscle actions depend on?
    How they cross a joint, # of joints crossed and shape of joint
  35. Define extrinsic and intrinsic muscles and give example
    • extrinsic m: muscle that has 1 end attached to body
    • intrinsic m: both attachments in structure ie: eye, larynx, thoracic limb)
  36. What nerve innervates the supraspinatus and infraspinatus?
    Subscapular nerve. Damage to this causes lameness= Sweeney in horses
  37. What nerve innervates almost all extensors of the thoracic limb?
    Radial nerve
  38. What are the 2 groups of forearm muscles?
    Extensors (craniolateral) and flexors (caudal) of the digits and carpus
  39. What is the rectus sheath?
    Aponeuroses of abd m around the rectus abdominus m
  40. What muscles cover the trachea ventrally?
    Strap muscles (sternohyoid/sternothyroid)
  41. What muscles are above and below the transverse processes of the vertebrae?
    Epaxial are above and hypaxial (longus colli) are below
  42. What are the extensors of the stifle and what innervates them?
    cranial thigh (quads) m., innervated by femoral n
  43. What is the action and innervation of medial thigh muscles?
    medial thigh muscles for adduction, innervated by obdurator n
  44. What is the innervation of the extensor muscles of the crus?
    craniolateral extensors innervated by common fibular nerve.
  45. What are the action of the crural muscles?
    • craniolateral: extensors of the digits and flexor of the tarsus
    • caudal: flexors of the digits and extensors of the tarsus
  46. What nerve innervates the thin muscles of facial expression?
    CrN 7, facial n
  47. What is the muscle of facial expression that encircles the eye and what innervates it?
    orbicularis oculi m, innervated by facial n.
  48. What nerve is sensory to the 3 areas of the face and motor to the muscles of mastication?
    Trigeminal n (CrN5) with mandibular division for muscles of mastication
  49. What is the motor innervation to the muscles of the tongue?
    hypoglossal n (CrN 12)
  50. What is the function of the cutaneous muscles?
    to twich the skin
  51. what forms the spinal plexuses that are clinically significant?
    interlacing ventral branches of spinal nerves
  52. What important nerve arises from the cervical and brachial plexuses that supplies the diaphragm?
    phrenic nerve
  53. What plexus supplies some of the extrinsic and all of the intrinsic muscles of the thoracic limb?
    bracheal plexus
  54. What plexus supplies the abd wall, pelvic limb, external genitalia, rump and perinium?
    lumbosacral plexus
  55. What is a dermatome?
    area that is innervated by a single nerve
  56. What 2 muscles does the suprascapular n innervate?
    supraspinatus and infraspinatus
  57. What does the radial nerve first reach the skin?
    Lateral arm, under border of lateral triceps
  58. What innervates the cutaneous trunci muscle?
    Lateral thoracic nerve
  59. What nerve innervates the flexor of the elbox and thus necessary for weight bearing?
    radial nerve
  60. What nerve supplies the extensors of the carpus and digits?
    radial nerve
  61. What is the cutaneous innervation of the paw of the ulnar nerve?
    Abaxial digit 5
  62. What is the branch of the vagus that returns to the neck?
    recurrent laryngeal nerve... damage leads to roaring
  63. What does the recurrent laryngeal nerve innervate?
    Laryngeal skeletal muscles. Cricoartyenoideus dorsalis m. clinically significant in horses
  64. What nerves supply the intercostal muscles and a lot of the thoracic wall?
    intercostal n
  65. What do the ventral and dorsal branches of the spinal T13, L1-L3 supply?
    Ventral: motor to abd muscles and skin of ventral abd

    Dorsal: motor and sensory to areas above transverse process of vertebrae also sensory to the skin on top of dorsal flank
  66. What nerve supplies motor innervation to the adductors of the thigh?
    Obdurator n
  67. What nerve innervates the extensors of the pelvic limb? Cutaneous innervation of this nerve?
    Common fibular n (peroneal)
  68. What is the cutaneous branch of the femoral n?
    Saphenous n to medial limb
  69. What nerve is required to bear weight on the pelvic limb?
    Femoral nerve (L4-6) extends stifle
  70. What nerve supplies the anus and the external anal sphincter?
    caudal rectal n
  71. What is the central H-shaped mass of a spinal cord cross-section?
    Gray matter (from neuronal bodies)
  72. What are the 5 functional divisions of the spinal cord?
    Cervical (c1-C5), brachial (C6-T2), thoracolumbar (t3-L3), pelvic limb (L4-S1), Sacral/caudal (S2-can)
  73. what are the ascending and descending tracts of the spinal cord and what do they carry?
    • ascending = afferent, sensory
    • descending = efferent, motor
  74. Where does the spinal cord end in a dog? Cat?
    • Dog: above body of vertebrae (L6)
    • Cat: above sacrum
  75. What are the meninges?
    3 connective tissue coverings that encircle the spinal cord and brain
  76. List the spaces assoc with meninges
    epidural space bw vertebrae and dura mater

    subarachnoid space bw pia and the arachnoid, contains CSF
  77. List and describe the meninges
    • dura mater: outer tough meninx
    • arachnoid: middle meninx pushes against dura mater
    • pia mater: innermost meninx, closely investing the spinal cord and brain
  78. describe the 2 expansions of the subarachnoid space used clinically
    Cisterna magna: located bw caudal surface of cerebellum and the dorsal surface of medulla, just inside foramen magnum

    Lumbar cistern: surrounding lumbar enlargement of spinal cord
  79. Where are the UMN located?
    UMN are located in the CNS, descending to synapse on LMN
  80. Where are the LMN located?
    Extending away from CNS in to muscles or glands
  81. Are spinal nerves lower or upper motor neurons?
    LMN
  82. What does the efferent neuron (LMN) of a reflex arc connect?
    connects spinal cord with muscles/glands
  83. The LMN can be ___ active
    spontaneously!
  84. What is the function of most UMN?
    UMN inhibits spontaneity/reflexes of the LMN until sp action is desired
  85. What is the function of proprioceptive fibers?
    They sense the position of body parts to each other and to environment
  86. Over what structures to proprioceptive fibers travel?
    peripheral n, spinal cord, brain stem, to cerebellum and cerebrum
  87. What structures carry superficial and deep pain sensory fibers?
    peripheral nerve, spinal cord, brain stem and cerebrum
  88. How is the brain divided functionally?
    Cerebrum/diencephalon, brainstem, vestibular system and cerebellum
  89. What makes up the forebrain and what is its function?
    Cerebrum and diencephelon; controls ANS and endocrine
  90. What is responsible for arousal and consciousness? Where is it located?
    Reticular activation system (RAS) in brainstem
  91. List 3 clinically sig parts of the brainstem
    RAS, cranial n and vital centers
  92. What is the function of the cerebellum?
    Coordinate movements, maintain equilibrium and maintain posture
  93. Name the 3 vital reflex centers in the brainstem
    cardiac, vasomotor and respiratory
  94. What is the function of the vestibular system?
    Controls posture and balance
  95. For lesion localization, how can the vestibular system be divided?
    • peripheral vestib (inner ear)
    • central vestib (brainstem)
    • centers of cerebellum
  96. What does contralateral and ipsilateral mean?
    contralateral means opp side, ipsi= same
  97. name the cranial nerves
    Olfactory, Optic, oculomotor, trochlear, trigeminal, abducens, facial, vestibulocochlear, glossopharyngeal, vagus, accessory and hypoglossal
  98. What cranial nerve is entirely sensory, dealing with vision?
    Optic nerve
  99. What cranial nerves move the eye?
    Oculomotor, trocheal and abducens
  100. What is the function of the parasympathetic fibers of the oculomotor nerve?
    motor involunary/smooth m of eye....near focus lens and constrict pupil
  101. What does the trigeminal nerve (CrN 5) innervate?
    sensory to most head and mastication
  102. What does the facial nerve innervate
    facial expression muscles , including orbicularis oculi, lacrimal gland and taste
  103. What does the auriculopalpebral nerve innervate
    eyelids
  104. What are the most important functions of the facial nerve clinically?
    motor to orbicularis oculi and lacrimal gland (to prevent dry eye)
  105. Where are the bucca branches of the facial n?
    cross masseter m laterally/superficially
  106. What is the trigeminal/facial reflex arc?
    trigeminal is sensory component while facial is motor component
  107. What is the 8th cranial nerve and what does it deal witih?
    Vestibulocochlear nerve; hearing and balance/motion
  108. What cranial nerve carries autonomic nerve fibers bw the brain and the viscera of the thorax and abdomen?
    Vagus
  109. What motor nerves supply the pharynx with aid in swallowing?
    Vagus and glosspharyngeal nerves
  110. What clinically imp nerves pass through the middle ear?
    facial nerve and sympathetic fibers
  111. What type of nerve is hypoglossal (CrN12) and what does it innervate?
    Motor nerve; innervates tongue
  112. Parasympathetic fibers are carried over what 4 cranial nerves
    3.7.9.10 (oculomotor, facial, glossopharyngeal, vagus)
  113. How does the ANS work?
    It works to control homeostasis with internal environment without conscious effort
  114. What structure does ANS regulate?
    Smooth and cardiac muscles and glands
  115. What is the function of each division of the ANS?
    • Parasympathetic: energy conserving
    • Sympathetic: energy expending
  116. Where do the 2 division of the ANS arise?
    thoracolumbar outflow (S) and craniosacral outflow (P)
  117. How does the ANS differ structurally from somatic nervous system?
    2 LMN vs 1
  118. What are the 2 LMN or the ANS?
    preganglionic and postganglionic
  119. Where does the preganglionic fiber synapse with the post. efferent fiber in relationship to CNS?
    in ganglia distal to/outside CNS
  120. What is the parasympathetic innervation to the thorax and most of the abd?
    Vagus nerve-cranial nerve
  121. What separates the respiratory and digestive passages in the head?
    hard and soft palates
  122. Name 4 types of permanent teeth and give abbrevs
    Incisors (I) Canine (C) Premolars (PM) Molars (M)
  123. What are the 3 divisions of the pharynx?
    oropharynx (below soft palate), nasopharynx (above), laryngopharynx
  124. Name the lymphoid tissue in the lateral wall of the oropharynx
    Palatine tonsil
  125. What is the largest meatus located b/w the ventral nasal choncae and the hard palate?
    ventral nasal meatus
  126. What does the pull of the cricoartytenoideus dorsalis m on the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage do?
    opens the glottic cleft by swinging vocal cords laterally
  127. what is the narrowest part of the laryngeal cavity?
    glottic cleft
  128. Tow which side of the trachea does the esophagus incline in the middle of the next
    left
  129. How does the cavity of the bony thorax relate to the thoracic cavity
    Larger, dome of diaphragm, extends in to bony thorax to 6th intercostal space
  130. The descending duodenum is on what side of the abdomen?
    Right
  131. Where is the cecum located?
    Right side b/w small and rest of large intestine
  132. List 3 diff types of peritoneum
    parietal (wall), visceral and connecting
  133. How are the mesenteries named?
    meso + organ to which its connected
  134. Where are the ovaries located in carnivores?
    Caudal to kidneys in the sublumbar region
  135. What is the suspensory ligament in carnivores?
    Part of broad ligament connecting the ovary to last 1 or 2 ribs
  136. What is the fornix of the vagina?
    Ventral recess formed by the cervix projecting in to the vagina
  137. Describe the cat scrotum's location and appearance
    Perineal and densely covered by hair
  138. What is the relationship of the ductus deferens to the the ureters?
    Loops dorsally over ureters (water under the bridge)
  139. What is the inguinal canal?
    Passageway through caudal abd wall
  140. Name the 3 main parts of vaginal tunic
    visceral parietal and connecting vaginal tunic
  141. The vaginal cavity is continuous with the___ at the vaginal ring
    peritoneal cavity
  142. On what side of the spermatic cord is the ductus deferens?
    Medial
  143. Define artery and vein
    Artery: vessel that carries blood away from the heard; they're generally thicker and stronger than vein to sustain the higher pressure , branch in to capillaries.

    Veins: vessel that carries blood towards the heart; thinner walled and carry greater volume than arteries. Capillaries feed in to small veins and in to larger. Valves on veins to prevent back flow of blood
  144. What sp large veins return blood from roughly the cranial and caudal part of body directly to heart?
    Cranial and Caudal vena cavae
  145. What are the chambers of the heart in the order they receive blood?
    Right Atrium (RA)--> Right ventricle (RV)--> left atrium---> left ventricle
  146. What side of the heart is part of the pulmonic circulation?
    Right
  147. What side of the heart is part of the systemic circulation?
    Left
  148. What is the outflow of the heart (left side) to the body?
    Aorta
  149. What arteries travel up the neck to supply the head and face?
    Common carotid arteries
  150. What vein returns blood from the head and neck?
    External Jugular veins
  151. Name the 3 unpaired branches to the abd viscera of the abd aorta
    celiac, cranial and caudal mesenteric arteries
  152. Name of the main branches of the terminal aorta
    External, internal iliac and 1 median sacral a
  153. What is the main artery to the uterus?
    Uterine artery
  154. What vessels supply the ventral abd wall? where do they run?
    cranial and caudal epigastric; run on the ventral abdomen on either side of symphysis
  155. What is the direct continuation of the external iliac artery out of the abd cavity to the pelvic limb for which it's the main supply?
    Femoral artery
  156. What is the vascular supply to the ovary?
    Ovarian artery and vein in mesovarium
  157. What is the large vein draining the intestine to the sinusoids of the liver?
    hepatic portal vein
  158. Where do the ovarian and testicular veins drain?
    the right one drains in to the caudal vena cava while the left in to the left renal v.
  159. What vessel crosses the ventral surface of the adrenal gland and are thus a surgical landmark for locating these structures?
    Phrenicoabdominal vv
  160. Were is the cephalic vein located?
    thoracic limbs
  161. What is the vein on the ventral surface of the tail that is the direct continuation of the median sacral vein?
    Median caudal vein
  162. What are the 2 superficial veins of the pelvic limb?
    lateral and medial saphenus veins
  163. What vein is on either side of the ventral surface of the tongue?
    Lingual vein... sublingual is on the floor of the mouth
  164. Describe the thoracic duct
    major lymphatic vessel returning most of lymph from body back in to gen circulation at the venous angle
  165. List the superficial lymph nodes of the body and their locations
    Parotid, mandibular, superficial cervical lymph nodes, popliteal , superficial inguinal.
  166. What lymph node is located near the end of the aorta above the descending colon?
    Medial iliac lymph nodes
  167. The skin consists of what 2 layers?
    epidermis and dermis
  168. 2 layers of the skin lie on the _?___
    subcutaneous layer, superficial fascia, subcutis, hypodermis
  169. Where is the skin thin and where is it thick?
    skin is thin on the belly and thick on the neck
  170. What is another name for eyelids?
    palpebrae
  171. What is the function of the pupil?
    Control incoming light
  172. What is the flap of skin inside the medial part of the eyelids?
    nictictating membrane aka 3rd eyelid
  173. What is the pocket of skin in the caudal edge of the ear?
    Cutaneous pouch
  174. What do the costal cartilages of the ribs caudal to the sternum form?
    costal arch
  175. What is the lateral area b/w the back legs on the stomach?
    Inguinal region
  176. What is the most dorsal portion of the flank?
    paralumbar fossa
  177. What are the boundaries of the perineum?
    Base of the tail, tuber ischii, past the vulva....to the base of the scrotum. Past the scrotum in cats
  178. Where are the openings of the anal glands (clock)
    4 & 8 o'clock
  179. What is the depression on either side of the anus?
    Ischiorectal fossa
  180. Where would you find the tibia and fibula?
    Crus aka true leg
  181. Where is the clitoris found?
    In the ventral commissure of the labia
  182. What is evaluated by a radiograph?
    Density and shape
  183. How do the 5 diff densities appear on the film?
    • Air= black
    • fat= black
    • water= shades of grey
    • bone= white
    • metal= white
  184. What is required to see structures in a radiograph that touch each other?
    differences in densities
  185. How is a fat friend when reading radiographs?
    More radiolucent aka xrays pass through body so darker shadow; contrasts soft tissues ie: parineal fat around the kidney
  186. What is the gen rule of preparation of the animal to make for good radiograph?
    minimal movement
  187. What does lead protect against and not protect against in radiology?
    lead protects against scatter x-rays but not the primary beam
  188. What do people often try to seen in radiographs but can't since it's 2-D?
    Depth; it can't be seen/read
  189. How are radiographs named?
    From where the beam enters to where it exits (ie: dorsal/ventral, ventral/dorsal)
  190. Describe how beam enters/exits body in following views:
    -right/left lateral projections of major body cavities (abd, thorax)
    - cranciocaudeal (CrCa)
    - anterior/posterior (AP)
    - Dorsopalmar/dorsoplantar (DP)
    - Palmardorsal/plantodorsal (PD)
    • - named for surface closest to cassette
    • - Beam enters cranial side and exits caudal side of limb
    • - beam enters anterior side and exits posterior surface of limb
    • - DP: Shot from front to back, below the proximal end of the carpus/tarsus
    • - PD: Shot through palmar/plantar side and out dorsal side below proximal end of carpus/tarsus
  191. What should always be check to see if R & L markers are correct? Give example
    anatomical landmarks ie: apex of the heart goes left
  192. Where is the gas bubble in the fundus of the stomach?
    Left
  193. Descending colon
    Left
  194. On what side of the body is the cranial kidney? the caudal kidney?
    cranial kidney is right, caudal is left
  195. Anticlinal vertebra is where on the body?
    11th thoracic vertebrae...vertically positioned as compared to caudally and cranially inclined vertebrae.
  196. On what side of the body/limb is the head of the humerus?
    caudal
  197. What side of the body is the:
    Radius?
    Olecranon?
    Distal end of ulna?
    • Radius- cranial
    • Olecranon- caudal
    • Distal end of ulna- lateral and caudal
  198. On what side of body/limb is:
    - accessory carpal bone?
    -dewclaw?
    • accessory carpal bone- lateral and palmar
    • dewclaw- lateral and medial
  199. On what side of the body/limb is the:
    - patella?
    - fibula?
    - calcaneus?
    • patella- cranial
    • fibula- lateral
    • calcaneus- lateral and plantar
  200. Since the radiograph is 2-d, how do you extrapolate the 3rd dimension?
    take at least 2 radiographs at 90 degree angles to each other
  201. The different views _____different sides of the bones.
    silhouette
  202. What does the lateral view silhouette?
    Lateral view silhouettes organs/bones on cranial and caudal surfaces
  203. Is cartilage seen radiographically?
    no, only inferred...not dense enough
  204. How is cartilage evaluated on radiograph?
    check subchondral bone
  205. What is the space b/w bones seen in the radiograph?
    joint space and articular cartilage
  206. What is the composition of most long bones at birth?
    bone capped at both ends with articular cartilage, 2 cartilaginous discs (physes) between the diaphysis and ephiphyses
  207. What are the cartilaginous discs between the diaphysis and the epiphyses?
    growth plates= physes
  208. Where does lengthening of bone occur?
    At the outer growth plate, ephyseal side
  209. During growth, how does physis appear radiographically?
    as black space between ephisyses and diaphysis (radiolucent line)
  210. What should not be mistaken for fractures on a radiograph?
    • 1. growth plates
    • 2. sesamoid bones
  211. What is the normal remnant of the closed of the closed physis?
    physeal scar

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