Neuroscience flash.txt

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Neuroscience flash.txt
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  1. What arises from the embryonic alar plate?
    Sensory neurons
  2. What arises from the embryonic basal plate?
    Motor Neurons
  3. What arises from the embryonic telencephalon
    Cerebral Hemispheres and Lateral Ventricles
  4. What arises from the embryonic diencephalon?
    Thalamus, Optic nn, and 3rd ventricle
  5. What arises from the embryonic mesencephalon?
    Midbrain and Aqueduct
  6. What arises from the embryonic metencephalon?
    Pons, cerebellum, and superior 4th ventricle
  7. What arises from the embryonic Myelencephalon?
    Medulla and inferior 4th ventricle
  8. What arises from the embryonic anterior neurpore?
    Lamina terminalis
  9. What arises from the embryonic neural crest cells?
    Peripheral sensory and autonomic nervous nerves and sensory ganglia
  10. What is the level of the conus medullaris in a newborn and in an adult?
    L3 (newborn), L1 (adult)
  11. What are the 3 divisions of the autonomic nervous system?
    Sympathetic, parasympathetic, and enteric
  12. Which tissues are innervated by the autonomic nervous system?
    Smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands
  13. Where are the preganglionic cell bodies of the sympathetic nervous system?
    Interomedial horn of the spinal cord from T1 to L3
  14. Where are the preganglionic cell bodies of the parasympathetic nervous system located?
    Brainstem (cranial nerve nuclei) and spinal cord from S2 to S4
  15. Which is the primary NT of both sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia?
    Acetylcholine (Ach)
  16. Which is the primary type of cholinergic receptor of the sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia?
    Nicotinic
  17. Which NT mediates the transmission of impulses from sympathetic neurons to the effector organs?
    Norepinephrine (NE)
  18. Which NT mediates the transmission of impulses from parasympathetic neurons to effector organs?
    Acetylcholine (Ach)
  19. Which NT mediates the transmission of impulses from somatic neurons to skeletal muscle?
    Acetylcholine (Ach)
  20. What tyoe of receptors are present on the effector organs innervated by the sympathetic nervous system?
    a1, a2, b1, b2
  21. What type of receptor is present in the effector organs innervated by the parasympathetic nervous system?
    Muscarinic
  22. What type of receptor is present on muscle innervated by the somatic nervous system?
    Nicotinic
  23. Name the sympathetic receptor subtype and the effect for the ear.
    Pupillary dilation (a1)
  24. Name the sympathetic response to salivary glands receptor activation.
    Increased thick, viscous secretions
  25. Name the sympathetic receptor subtype and the effect for the bronchioles.
    Bronchodilation (b2), increased secretions
  26. Name the sympathetic receptor subtype and the effect for the heart.
    Tachycardia, increased contractility, increased AV nodal conduction (all b1)
  27. Name the sympathetic receptor subtype and the effect for vascular smooth muscle.
    • Vasoconstriction of cutaneous, mucous membrane, and splanchnic vessels
    • (a1); Vasodilation in skeletal muscles (b2)
  28. Name the sympathetic receptor subtype and the effect for the GI tract.
    Decrease muscle motility and tone (b2); contraction of sphincters (a1)
  29. Name the sympathetic receptor subtype and the effect for the male sex organs.
    Ejaculation (a2)
  30. Name the sympathetic receptor subtype and the effect for the uterus.
    Relaxation (b2); contraction (a1)
  31. Name the sympathetic receptor subtype and the effect for the bladder and ureters.
    Relaxation of detrusor (b2); contraction of trigone and sphincters (a1)
  32. Name the sympathetic receptor subtype and the effect for the sweat glands.
    Increased secretions (muscarinic)
  33. Name the sympathetic response to kidney receptor activation.
    Increased Renin secretion
  34. Name the sympathetic receptor subtype and the effect for adipocytes.
    Increased lipolysis (b1, b3)
  35. Name the sympathetic receptor subtype and the effect for the pancreas.
    Decreased insulin secretion (a2); Increased insulin secretion (b2)
  36. What is the effect of the parasympathetic nervous system on the eye?
    Pupillary constriction
  37. What is the effect of the parasympathetic nervous system on the bronchioles?
    Bronchoconstriction
  38. What is the effect of the parasympathetic nervous system on the heart?
    Bradycardia, decreased contractility, decreased AV nodal conduction
  39. What is the effect of the parasympathetic nervous system on the GI tract?
    Increased motility and relaxation of sphincters
  40. What is the effect of the parasympathetic nervous system on the male sex organs?
    Erection
  41. What is the effect of the parasympathetic nervous system on the bladder and ureters?
    Contraction of the detrusor, relaxation of sphincters and trigone
  42. What type of cholinergic receptor mediates parasympathetic organ responses?
    Muscarinic
  43. What ype of motor fiber innervates extrafusal muscle fibers?
    A-alpha
  44. What type of muscle fiber innervates intrafusal muscle fibers?
    A-gamma
  45. Name the function of sensory fiber type Ia (A-alpha).
    Proprioception, muscle spindles
  46. Name the function of sensory fiber type Ib.
    Proprioception, Golgi tendon organs
  47. Name the function of sensory fiber type II (A-beta).
    Touch, pressure, and vibration; secondary afferents of muscle spindles
  48. Name the function of sensory fiber type III (A-delta)
    Touch, pressure, fast pain, and temperature
  49. Name the function of sensory fiber type IV (C).
    Slow pain and temperature (unmyelinated)
  50. What types of sensory fibers have the largest diameter and consequently the fastest conduction velocity?
    Ia and Ib
  51. What type of motor fibers have the largest diameter and consequently the fastest conduction velocity?
    A-alpha
  52. What type of sensory fiber has the smallest diameter and consequently the slowest conduction velocity?
    C
  53. What is the electrochemical effect of an inward sodium current on a sensory fiber?
    Depolarization
  54. Name the function of the sensory receptor in the sensory pathway.
    Translate environmental stimulus into an electrical impulse
  55. Name the function of the first-order neuron in the sensory pathway.
    Carry impulse from sensory receptor into CNS
  56. Name the function of the second-order neuron in the sensory pathway.
    Carry impulse from primary neuron to the thalamus
  57. Name the function of the third-order neuron in the sensory pathway.
    Carry impulse from second-order neuron to the cerebral cortex
  58. Name the function of the fourth-order neuron in the sensory pathway.
    Carry impulses from the third-order neurons to appropriate somatosensory area of cerebral cortex.
  59. Name the mechanreceptor subtype: onion-like subcutaneous receptors that respond to vibration and tapping
    Pacinian corpuscle
  60. Name the mechanreceptor subtype: primary receptors of the dermal papilae that mediate two-point tactile discrimination
    Meissner's corpuscle
  61. Name the mechanreceptor subtype: Encapsulated receptor that responds to pressure
    Ruffini's Corpuscle
  62. Name the mechanreceptor subtype: disc-shaped touch receptor of the deep dermis
    Merkel disc
  63. Sensitive to low-intensity light: Rods or Cones?
    Rods
  64. Sensitive to high-intensity light: Rods or Cones?
    Cones
  65. Receptor used primarily for night vision: Rods or Cones?
    Rods
  66. Receptor used primarily for day vision: Rods or Cones?
    Cones
  67. Present in fovea: Rods or Cones?
    Cones
  68. High visual acuity: Rods or Cones?
    Cones
  69. Receptor which adjusts to low light conditions most rapidly: Rods or Cones?
    Cones
  70. Receptor capable of color vision: Rods or Cones?
    Cones
  71. Name the type of muscle sensor: detection of static and dynamic changes in muscle length
    Muscle spindles
  72. Name the type of muscle sensor: detection of muscle tension
    Golgi tendon organs
  73. Name the type of muscle sensor: detection of vibration
    Pacinian corpuscles
  74. Name the type of muscle sensor: detection of pain
    Free nerve endings
  75. What type of muscle fiber is innervated by gamma-motorneurons and makes up the muscle spindles?
    Intrafusal fibers
  76. What type of muscle fiber is innervated by alpha-motorneurons and generates the force for muscle contraction?
    Extrafusal fibers
  77. What type of intrafusal fiber is responsible for the detection of static change in muscle length?
    Nuclear Chain fibers
  78. What type of intrafusal fiber is responsible for the detection of rate of change in muscle length?
    Nuclear bag fibers
  79. What type of motorneuron is responsible for ensuring that a muscle cell will respond appropriately throughout contraction, despite changes in tension?
    gamma-motorneuron
  80. What type of motor reflex, mediated by type Ia afferent fibers, causes muscle contraction in response to muscle stretch?
    Stretch or myotatic reflex
  81. What type of motor reflex, mediated by type Ib afferent fibers, causes muscle contraction in response to muscle stretch?
    Golgi tendon reflex
  82. What ype of muscle reflex, mediated by types II, III, and IV afferent fibers, causes ipsilateral flexion and contralateral extension?
    Flexor withdrawal reflex
  83. What are the components of the afferent limb of a myotatic reflex arc?
    Muscle spindle receptor to Ia fiber to dorsal root ganglion
  84. What comprises the efferent limb of a myotatic reflex arc?
    Ventral motor neuron
  85. Name the muscle group and spinal level tested by the ankle jerk reflex.
    Gastrocnemius (S1)
  86. Name the muscle group and spinal level tested by the knee jerk reflex
    Quadriceps (L2-L4)
  87. Name the muscle group and spinal level tested by the biceps jerk reflex.
    Biceps (C5-C6)
  88. Name the muscle group and spinal level tested by the forearm jerk reflex.
    Brachioradialis (C5, C6)
  89. Name the muscle group and spinal level tested by the triceps jerk reflex.
    Triceps (C7-C8)
  90. What type of posturing is caused by a transecting lesion above the level of the medulla but below the midbrain?
    Decerebrate rigidity
  91. What type of posturing is caused by a transecting lesion above the level of the red nucleus (midbrain)?
    Decorticate rigidity
  92. What are the 3 layers of the cerebellar cortex?
    Granular layer (innermost), Purkinje layer (middle), and molecular layer (outermost)
  93. What type of cerebellar fibers are important in motor learning?
    Climbing fibers
  94. Which is the major NT of cerebellar Purkinje cells?
    GABA (Note: the ouput of purkinje fibers is always inhibitory)
  95. What are the 3 layers of the meninges?
    The meninges PAD the CNS: Pia, Arachnoid, Dura
  96. What meningeal space, which lies between the pia and arachnoid, contains the CSF?
    Subarachnoid space
  97. What structure produces CSF?
    The choroid plexus of the lateral, 3rd, and 4th ventricles
  98. What structures reabsorb CSF into venous circulation?
    The arachnoid granulations
  99. Track the flow of CSF from the choroid plexus into venous circulation.
    Choroid plexus to lateral ventricles to intraventricular foramina (of Monro) to 3rd ventricle to cerebral aqueduct to 4th ventricle to lateral foramina (of Lushka) or median foramen (of Magendie) to subarachnoid space to arachnoid granulations to superior sagittal sinus!
  100. What are the 3 major functions of CSF?
    • 1. To provide support and protection to the CNS
    • 2. To remove metabolic waste products
    • 3. To transport hormones and cytokines throughout the CSF and to the systemic circulation
  101. Name the blood vessel supplying the anterior 2/3 of the spinal cord, the medullary pyramids, medial lemniscus, and root fibers of CN XII.
    Anterior spinal artery
  102. Name the blood vessel supplying the retina.
    Central artery of the retina (branch of opthalmic artery)
  103. Name the blood vessel supplying the lateral geniculate body, globus pallidus, and posterior limb of the inferior capsules
    Anterior Choroidal artery
  104. Name the blood vessel supplying the hypothalamus and ventral thalamus.
    Posterior Communicating artery
  105. Name the blood vessel supplying the leg-foot area of motor and sensory cortices.
    Anterior Cerebral artery
  106. Name the blood vessel supplying the anterior putamen, caudate nucleus, and anteroinferior internal capsule.
    Medial Striate arteries (branches of ACA)
  107. Name the blood vessel supplying Broca's (expressive) and Wernicke's (receptive) speech areas, face and arm areas of motor cortices, and the frontal eye fields.
    Middle Cerebral artery
  108. Name the blood vessel supplying the internal capsule, caudate nucleus, putamen, and globus pallidus.
    Lateral Striate arteries (branches of MCA)
  109. Name the blood vessel supplying the nucleus ambiguus, and the inferior surface of the cerebellum.
    Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
  110. Name the blood vessel supplying the caudal lateral pontine tegmentum (including portions of the nuclei of CN V and VII) and the inferior cerebellar surface.
    Anterior inferior cerebellar artery
  111. Name the blood vessel supplying the superior surface of cerebellum, cerebellar nuclei, and cochlear nuclei.
    Superior cerebellar artery
  112. Name the blood vessel supplying the majority of midbrain, portions of the thalamus, lateral and medial geniculate bodies, occipital lobe, inferior aspect of the temporal lobes, and the hippocampus.
    Posterior Cerebral artery
  113. Name the blood vessel supplying the majority of the dura.
    Middle meningeal artery
  114. Name the cerebral veins that drain directly into the superior sagittal sinus.
    Bridging veins
  115. Name the cerebral vein that drains deep cerebral veins into the straight sinus.
    Vein of Galen
  116. CN III, V1, V2, and VI, postganaglionic sympathetic fibers, and both internal carotid arteries all pass through which structure?
    Cavernous sinus
  117. Name the cytoplasmic structure in the nerve cell body and dendrites that is involved in protein synthesis.
    Nissl substance
  118. Name the type of axonal transport responsible for delivery of synthesized NTs away from the cell body.
    Fast anterograde axonal transport
  119. Name the type of axonal transport responsible for delivery of cytoskeletal and cytoplasmic components away from the cell body.
    Slow anterograde transport
  120. Name the type of axonal transport responsible for returning material to the cell body for degradation.
    Fast retrograde transport.
  121. Name the type of axonal transport that is kinesin dependent.
    Fast anterograde axonal transport
  122. Name the type of axonal transport that is dynein dependent?
    Fast retrograde transport.
  123. Name the type of axonal transport responsible for carrying nerve growth factors, viruses, and toxins to cell bodies.
    Fast retrograde transport.
  124. Name the process of anterograde axonal and myelin degeneration accompanied by Schwann cell proliferation.
    Wallerian degeneration
  125. Name the process of retrograde neuronal degeneration.
    Chromatolysis
  126. Name the cell type: primary supportive cell type of the CNS
    Astrocyte
  127. Name the cell type: myelin-producing cell type of the CNS.
    Oligodendrocyte
  128. Name the cell type: CNS scavenger cell type
    Microglia
  129. Name the cell type: CSF-producing cell type of the peripheral nervous sytem.
    Ependymal cell
  130. Name the cell type responsible for transport between ventricles and neuropil.
    Tanycytes
  131. What type of intercellular junctions are responsible for maintaining the integrity of the BBB?
    Tight junctions
  132. What proteins are commonly used to identify astrocytes?
    Glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP) and glutamine synthetase.
  133. Name the process or disease associated with the following neuronal histopathologic finding: lipofuscin granules
    Aging
  134. Name the process or disease associated with the following neuronal histopathologic finding: depletion of neuromelanin in substantia nigra and Lewy bodies.
    Parkinson's Disease
  135. Name the process or disease associated with the following neuronal histopathologic finding: Negri Bodies
    Rabies
  136. Name the process or disease associated with the following neuronal histopathologic finding: Hirano bodies and neurofibrillary tangles.
    Alzheimer's diesase
  137. Name the process or disease associated with the following neuronal histopathologic finding: Cowdry type A inclusion bodies.
    Herpes simplex encephalitis
  138. Name the spinal tract responsible for voluntary control of skeletal muscle.
    Lateral corticospinal/ pyramidal tract
  139. Name the spinal tract responsible for sensation of pain and temperature.
    Lateral spinothalamic tract
  140. Name the spinal tract responsible for two-point discrimination and vibratory sensation.
    Dorsal column- medial lemniscus tract
  141. Name the spinal tract responsible for control of facial muscles.
    Corticobulbar tract
  142. Name the spinal tract responsible for coordination of muscle tone, posture, balance, and motor activity.
    Dentothalamic tract
  143. Describe the major difference between the innervation of lower and upper facial muscles.
    Corticobulbar fibers innervate the lower facial muscles unilaterally while upper facial muscles are innervated bilaterally
  144. What type of receptors provide input to the dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway?
    Meissner corpuscles, Pacini corpuscles, joint receptors, muscle spindles, and Golgi tendon organs
  145. Name the structure in the spinal cord composed of ascending fibers of the dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway originating in the upper extremities.
    Cuneate fasiculus
  146. Name the structure in the spinal cord composed of ascending fibers of the dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway originating in the lower extremities.
    Gracile fasciculus (medial to cuneate fasiculus)
  147. At what level of the brainstem do fibers of the dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway cross?
    Caudal medulla
  148. What type of receptors provide input to the lateral spinothalmic tract?
    Free nerve endings
  149. At what level do fibers of the spinothalmic tract cross?
    At the same level they enter the spinal cord.
  150. Name the structure where fibers of the lateral spinothalmic tract cross the midline.
    Ventral white commisure
  151. Where do fibers of the dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway, the trigeminothalmic, and lateral spinothalmic tract all terminate?
    The sensory cortex (Brodmann's areas 3, 1, 2)
  152. What parts of the cortex gives rise to the fibers of the lateral corticospinal and corticobulbar tracts?
    The motor, premotor, and sensory areas of the cortex (Brodmann's areas 6, 4, and 3, 1, 2)
  153. Fibers of the lateral corticospinal tract pass through which limb of the internal capsule?
    Posterior limb
  154. Name the structure where fibers of the lateral corticospinal tract cross the midline.
    Medullary pyramids
  155. Classify as either an upper motor neuron or a lower motor neuron sign: Spastic paresis.
    Upper Motor Neuron
  156. Classify as either an upper motor neuron or a lower motor neuron sign: Flaccid paralysis.
    Lower Motor Neuron
  157. Classify as either an upper motor neuron or a lower motor neuron sign: Babinski's sign (upgoing toes)
    Upper Motor Neuron
  158. Classify as either an upper motor neuron or a lower motor neuron sign: Fasiculations and fibrillations
    Lower Motor Neuron
  159. Classify as either an upper motor neuron or a lower motor neuron sign: Areflexia
    Lower Motor Neuron
  160. Classify as either an upper motor neuron or a lower motor neuron sign: Atrophy
    Lower Motor Neuron
  161. Classify as either an upper motor neuron or a lower motor neuron sign: Hyperreflexia
    Upper Motor Neuron
  162. Which cranial foramen does CN 1 pass through?
    Cribiform plate of the ethmoid
  163. Which cranial foramen does CN 3 pass through?
    Optic canal
  164. Which cranial foramen do CN 3, 4, V1, and 6 pass through?
    Superior orbital fissure (all pass through cavernous sinus as well)
  165. Which cranial foramen does CN V2 pass through?
    Foramen Rotundum
  166. Which cranial foramen does CN V3 pass through?
    Foramen Ovale
  167. Which cranial foramen do CN 7 and 8 pass through?
    Internal auditory meatus
  168. Which cranial foramen do CN 9, 10, and 11 pass through?
    Jugular foramen
  169. Which cranial foramen does CN 12 pass through?
    Hypoglossal Canal
  170. Name the function and fiber type of cranial nerve 1.
    Smell (SVA)
  171. Name the function and fiber type of cranial nerve 2.
    Vision (SSA)
  172. Name the function and fiber type of cranial nerve 3.
    Eye movement (GSE), parasympathetic ciliary and pupillary sphincter mm (GVE)
  173. Name the function and fiber type of cranial nerve 4.
    Contraction of superior oblique m. (GSE)
  174. Name the function and fiber type of cranial nerve V1.
    Sensation from nose to forehead (GSA)
  175. Name the function and fiber type of cranial nerve V2.
    Sensation from lateral nose, upper lip, superior buccal area (GSA)
  176. Name the function and fiber type of cranial nerve V3.
    Sensation from lower face (GSA), movement of muscles of mastication (Masseter, temporalis, medial and lateral pterygoids), tensor veli palatini, and tensor tympani (SVE)
  177. Name the function and fiber type of cranial nerve 6
    Contraction of Lateral rectus m. (GSE)
  178. Name the function and fiber type of cranial nerve 7.
    Parasympathetics to lacrimal, submandibular, and sublingual glands (GVE), Mm. of facial expression, stapedius, stylohyoid, and the posterior belly of digastric (SVE), Taste to anterior 2/3 of tongue (SSA), sensation to skin of external ear (GSA)
  179. Name the function and fiber type of cranial nerve 8.
    Hearing and sense of balance (SSA)
  180. Name the function and fiber type of cranial nerve 9.
    Parasympathetics to parotid gland (GVE), Motor to stylopharyngeus (SVE), Taste to posterior 1/3 of tongue (SSA), Sensation to parotid gland, carotid body and sinus, pharynx, and middle ear (GVA), Cutaneous sensation to external auditory meatus (GSA)
  181. Name the function and fiber type of cranial nerve 10.
    Parasympathetics to trachea, bronchi, heart, and GI tract (GVE), Contraction of laryngeal, pharyngel, and esophageal striated mm. (SVE), Taste to epiglottis and palate (SSA), sensation to trachea and GI tract (GVA), Cutaneous sensation to external ear (GSA)
  182. Name the function and fiber type of cranial nerve 11.
    Contraction of intrinsic mm of larynx via recurrent laryngeal n (cranial division) and movement of Sternocleidomastoid and trapezius mm. (spinal division) (SVE)
  183. Name the function and fiber type of cranial nerve 12.
    Contraction of muscles of tongue (GSE)
  184. Which three cranial nerves are purely sensory nerves?
    CN 1, 2, 8
  185. Which five cranial nerves are purely motor nerves?
    CN 3, 4, 6, 11, 12
  186. Which four cranial nerves have both sensory and motor components?
    CN 5, 7, 9, 10
  187. Which two cranial nerves are rostral to the midbrain?
    CN 1, 2
  188. Which two cranial nerve nuclei are located in the midbrain?
    CN 3, 4
  189. Which four cranial nerves have at least a portion of their nucleus in the pons?
    CN 5, 6, 7, 8
  190. Which seven cranial nerves have at least a portion of their nuclei in the medulla?
    CN 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12
  191. Name the only cranial nerve that crosses the midline and exits the brainstem posterior to the ventricular system.
    CN IV- exits the brainstem posteriorly and crosses the midline after exiting the caudal midbrain
  192. What nucleus serves as the origin of preganglionic parasympathetic fibers projecting to the ciliary ganglion?
    Edinger-Westphal nucleus of CN 3
  193. What visceral sensory nucleus, located in the medulla, is a relay center for taste, sensory input from the carotid sinus, carotid body, and the vagus nerve?
    Nucleus Solitarius
  194. What visceral motor nucleus, located in the medulla, is involved in coordinating swallowing and speech?
    Nucleus ambiguus
  195. Which is the afferent limb of the corneal reflex?
    CN V1
  196. Which is the efferent limb of the corneal reflex?
    CN 7
  197. Ipsilateral blindness would be caused by a lesion at what site within the visual tract?
    Transection of the Optic n.
  198. Binasal hemianopia would be caused by a lesion at what site within the visual tract?
    Bilateral lateral compression of optic chiasm
  199. Bitemporal hemianopis would be caused by a lesion at what site within the visual tract?
    Midsagittal transection or midline pressure on the optic chiasm (often caused by pituitary tumor)
  200. Right hemianopia without macular sparing would be caused by a lesion at what site within the visual tract?
    Transection of the left optic radiation
  201. Right upper quadrantanopia would be caused by a lesion at what site within the visual tract?
    Transection of the lower division of the left optic radiation
  202. Right lower quadrantanopia would be caused by a lesion at what site within the visual tract?
    Transection of the upper division of the left optic radiation
  203. Right hemianopia with macular sparing would be caused by a lesion at what site within the visual tract?
    Destruction of the left visual cortex
  204. Upper altitudinal hemianopia with macular sparing would be caused by a lesion at what site within the visual tract?
    Destruction of the bilateral lingual gyri
  205. Lower altitudinal hemianopia with macular sparing would be caused by a lesion at what site within the visual tract?
    Destruction of the bilateral cunei
  206. What are five key structures of the pupillary light reflex pathway?
    Ganglion cells of the retina to pretectal nucleus of the midbrain to Edinger-Westphal nucleus to ciliary ganglion to postganglionic parasympathetic fibers of CN 3.
  207. What are five key structures of the pupillary dilation pathway?
    • Paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus to ciliospinal center of Budge at the level of T1-T2 to superior cervical ganglion to postganglionic sympathetic fibers traveling along the internal carotid
    • artery and its branches to the eye
  208. What part of the cortex is responsible for voluntary eye movements?
    Frontal eye field (Brodmann's area 8)
  209. What side will a patient's eyes deviate towards if there is a lesion of the right frontal eye field?
    Right side ("look towrds the lesion of frontal eye fields")
  210. What structure connects the nucleus of CN 6 and the nucleus of CN 3?
    Medial Longitudinal Fasciculus (MLF)
  211. What classic idiopathic lesion is characterized by ptosis, miosis, and anhydrosis?
    Horner's syndrome
  212. What type of lesion will result in medial rectus palsy (inability to adduct the eye) on attempted lateral gaze?
    Intranuclear opthalmoplegia (a lesion of the MLF)
  213. Name the condition characterized by a pupil that will accommodate bun cannot react to light.
    Argyll-Robertson pupil (associated w/ tertiary syphilis, lupus, and DM)
  214. Name the condition caused by a lesion in the afferent fibers of the light reflex pathway.
    Marcus Gunn Pupil
  215. Where does the auditory pathway terminate?
    Bilateral input from both auditory tracts terminate in the auditory areas of the cerebral cortex (Brodmann's areas 41 and 42)
  216. What type of cells are responsible for relaying auditory stimuli from the organ of Corti to the cochlear nuclei?
    Bipolar cells of the spiral or cochlear ganglion
  217. What thalamic nucleus plays a key role in relay of impulsesfrom the cochlear nuclei to higher cortical areas?
    Medial geniculate body of the thalamus
  218. What pontine nucleus plays a key role in sound localization?
    Superior olivary nucleus
  219. Conduction deafness is caused by a lesion of which components of the auditory system?
    Extrenal auditory meatus, tympanic membrane, or the middle ear
  220. Sensorinueral deafness is caused by a lesion of which components of the auditory system?
    Cochlea, cochlear nerve, or the cochlear nuclei
  221. Patients with presbyacusis have trouble hearing what types of sounds?
    High frequency sounds
  222. Which cells of the vestibular system respond to linear acceleration and deceleration?
    The hair cells of the utricle
  223. What type of cells are responsible for relaying vestibular stimuli from the hair cells to the vestibular nuclei?
    Bipolar cells of the vestibular ganglion
  224. What structures provide input to the vestibular nuclei?
    Hair cells of the semicircular canal, hair cells of the utricle, and the flocculonodular lobe of the cerebellum
  225. What structures receive signals from the vestibular nuclei?
    The thalamus, spinal cord, cerebellum, and CNs 3, 4, and 6
  226. What are the 3 primary functions of the cerebellum?
    Maintenance of posture/ equilibrium, control of muscle tone, coordination of voluntary muscle activity
  227. What type of tremor may result from a cerebellar lesion?
    Intention tumor
  228. A positive romberg sign ( loss of balance when the eyes are closed) suggests a lesion to which tract of the CNS?
    Dentothalamic tract (the main cerebellar pathway)
  229. Name the thalamic nucleus/nuclei responsible for the relay of impulses for vision.
    Lateral geniculate nucleus ("lateral to look")
  230. Name the thalamic nucleus/nuclei responsible for the relay of impulses for hearing.
    Medial geniculate nucleus ("medial for music")
  231. Name the thalamic nucleus/nuclei responsible for the relay of impulses for proprioception, pain, pressure, touch, and vibration.
    Lateral portion of ventral posterior nucleus ("posterior for proprioception, pain")
  232. Name the thalamic nucleus/nuclei responsible for the relay of impulses for facial sensation
    Medial portion of ventral posterior nucleus
  233. Name the thalamic nucleus/nuclei responsible for the relay of motor impulses.
    Ventral anterior/ lateral nuclei
  234. Name the thalamic nucleus/nuclei responsible for the relay of impulses for limbic function.
    Dorsomedial, anterior nuclei
  235. Name the largest thalamic nucleus.
    Pulvinar
  236. What is the function of the pulvinar?
    Integration of visual, auditory and somesthetic input
  237. Which portion of the internal capsule contains fibers of the corticobulbar tract?
    The genu
  238. Which portion of the internal capsule contains fibers of the corticospinal, spinothalmic, visual, and auditory tracts?
    The posterior limb
  239. Which arteries supply the posterior limb of the internal capsule?
    Perforating branches of the anterior choroidal artery and lenticulostriate arteries
  240. Name the major hypothalmic nucleus/ nuclei responsible for regulation of the release of gonadotropic hormones.
    Medial preoptic nucleus (which contains the sexually dimorphic nucleus)
  241. Name the major hypothalmic nucleus/ nuclei responsible for regulation of circadian rhythms.
    Suprachiasmatic nucleus
  242. Name the major hypothalmic nucleus/ nuclei responsible for regulation of body temperature.
    Anterior nucleus (lesion results in hyperthermia) and posterior nucleus (lesion results in poikilothermia)
  243. Name the major hypothalmic nucleus/ nuclei responsible for water balance, synthesis of ADH, oxytocin, and corticotropin-releasing factor.
    Paraventricular and supraoptic nuclei
  244. Name the major hypothalmic nucleus/ nuclei responsible for regulation of appetite.
    Ventromedial nucleus ([lesion result in eating Very Much (hyperphagia, obesity)] and lateral hypothalamic nucleus (lesions cause anorexia and starvation)
  245. Name the major hypothalmic nucleus/ nuclei responsible for regulation of hypothalamus.
    Arcuate or infandibular nucleus
  246. Name the major hypothalmic nucleus/ nuclei responsible for emotional expression.
    Mamillary nucleus (a component of the limbic system)
  247. What region of the hypothalamus plays a role in stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system?
    Anterior hypothalamus
  248. What region of the hypothalamus plays a role in stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system?
    Posterior hypothalamus
  249. What are the major structures of the Papez circuit?
    Septal area, mamillary body, anterior nucleus of thalamus, cingulate gyrus, entorhinal cortex, and hippocampal formation
  250. What is the most epileptogenic part of the cerebrum?
    The hippocampus
  251. What system within the CNS plays a central role in the initiation and coordination of somatic motor activity?
    The striatal or extrapyramidal motor system
  252. What are the major components of the striatal motor system?
    Neocortex, striatum, globus pallidus, subthalamic nucleus, substantia nigra, and thalamus
  253. Name the NT: major NT of the PNS
    ACh
  254. Name the NT: NT which is increased in the CNS in patients with schizophrenia
    Dopamine
  255. Name the NT: major NT of the parasympathetic nervous system
    ACh
  256. Name the NT: NT believed to cause panic attacks when released by the locus ceruleus
    NE
  257. Name the NT: major NT of the preganglionic sympathetic nervous system
    ACh
  258. Name the NT: NT highly concentrated in the substantia nigra that plays a key role in pain transmission
    Substance P
  259. Name the NT: major NT of the postganglionic sympathetic neurons supplying sweat glands and certain blood vessels
    ACh
  260. Name the NT: NT which is depleted from the basal nucleus of Meynert in Alzheimer's disease
    ACh
  261. Name the NT: NT which is depleted from the substantia nigra in patients with Parkinson's disease
    Dopamine
  262. Name the NT: NT that causes renal vasodilation
    Dopamine
  263. Name the NT: NTs (2) believed to be depleted in depression
    NE and serotonin
  264. Name the NT: powerful analgesic NT exclusively in the hypothalamus
    Beta-endorphin
  265. Name the NT: opiate peptides which play a role in pain suppression
    Enkephalins
  266. Name the NT: NT that regulates release of GH and TSH; markedly decreased in Alzheimer's disease
    Somatostatin
  267. Name the NT: major inhibitory NT of the cortex
    GABA
  268. Name the NT: major inhibitory NT of the spinal cord
    Glycine
  269. Name the NT: major excitatory NT of the spinal cord
    Glutamate
  270. Name the NT: gaseous, vasoactive NT involved in memory
    Nitrous Oxide
  271. Name the NT: NT important in the initiation of sleep
    Melatonin
  272. Name the NT: NT which inhibits the reticular activating center, thereby increasing total sleep time?
    ACh
  273. Which two amino acids can serve as a precursor for catecholamine synthesis?
    Phenylalanine and tyrosine
  274. What are the 6 layers of the neocortex?
    Layer I: molecular, Layer II: external granular, Layer III: extrenal pyramidal, Layer IV: internal granular, Layer V: internal pyramidal, Layer VI: multiform
  275. Name the site of a lesion within the cortex capable of causing right-sided flaccid hemiparalysis
    Left primary motor area (Brodmann's area 4)
  276. Name the site of a lesion within the cortex capable of causing left-sided pronator drift
    Right primary motor area (Brodmann's area 4)
  277. Name the site of a lesion within the cortex capable of causing loss of abstract thought and self-restraint
    Bilateral loss of frontal lobes anterior to the frontal eye fields
  278. Name the site of a lesion within the cortex capable of causing slowed speech without any impairment of language comprehension
    Broca's speech area (Brodmann's areas 44, 45; always in the dominant hemisphere)
  279. Name the site of a lesion within the cortex capable of causing loss of right-sided tactile sensation and proprioception
    Left somesthetic area (Brodmann's areas 3, 1, 2)
  280. Name the site of a lesion within the cortex capable of causing cortical deafness
    Bilateral destruction of the auditory areas (Brodmann's area
  281. Name the site of a lesion within the cortex capable of causing inability to understand spoken laguage and verbalize coherent thoughts
    Wenicke's speech area (Brodman's area 22)
  282. Name the site of a lesion within the cortex capable of causing ipsilateral anosmia (inability to smell)
    Primary olfactory area (Brodman's area 34)
  283. Name the site of a lesion within the cortex capable of causing Alexia and agraphia (inability to read and write)
    Angular gyrus (Brodmann's area 39)
  284. Name the site of a lesion within the cortex capable of causing loss of ability to transfer information from short-term to long-term memory
    Bilateral destruction of the hippocampal cortex
  285. Name the site of a lesion within the cortex capable of causing psychic blindness, hyperphagia, docility, and hypersexuality (Kluver-Bucy synrome)
    Bilateral destruction of the anterior temporal lobes
  286. Name the site of a lesion within the cortex capable of causing loss of ability to recognize faces
    inferomedial right occipitotemporal area
  287. Name the site of a lesion within the cortex capable of causing loss of vision in the right visual field with macular sparing
    Destruction of the left primary visual area (Brodmann's area 17)
  288. Name the term used to describe a deficit in the ability to draw a geometric figure.
    Construction apraxia
  289. What part of the nervous system is involved in maintaining wakefulness?
    Reticular activating system
  290. Name the type of neural tube defect exhibiting failure of the posterior vertebral arches to form.
    Spina bifida
  291. Name the type of neural tube defect exhibiting failure of posterior vertebral arch closure (not evident on clinical examination)
    Spina bifida occulta
  292. Name the type of neural tube defect exhibiting failure of posterior vertebral arch closure accompanied by herniation of the meninges
    Spina bifida cystica
  293. Name the type of neural tube defect exhibiting herniation of the meninges outside of the spinal canal
    Meningocele
  294. Name the type of neural tube defect exhibiting herniation of nervous tissue and meninges outside of the spinal canal
    Myelomeningocele
  295. Name the type of neural tube defect exhibiting complete cerebral agenesis due to lack of closure of the anterior neuropore
    Ancephaly
  296. Name the type of neural tube defect exhibiting diverticulum of malformed CNS tissue
    Encephalocele
  297. What factor is used to screen pregnant mothers for neural tube defects?
    Alpha-fetoprotein
  298. What is the most common cause of mental retardation?
    Fetal alcohol syndrome; often associated with cardiac and facial anomalies
  299. Name the condition characterized by an excess of CSF in the cranial cavity
    Hydrocephalus
  300. What type of hydrocephalus is characterized by obstruction in the flow of CSF through the ventricular system and subarachnoid space?
    Noncommunicating hydrocephalus
  301. What is the most common reversible cause of dementia in the elderly?
    Normal pressure hydrocephalus
  302. Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a common complication of what type of intracranial pathology?
    Subarachnoid hemorrhage
  303. What is the triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus?
    Wacky (dementia/ short-term memory loss), Wobbly (ataxic, magnetic gait), and Wet (urinary incontinence)
  304. What type of hydrocephalus is characterized by free flow of CSF but abnormal CSF absorption?
    Communicating hydrocephalus
  305. What congenital malformation of the CNS is characterized by herniation of the cerebellar tonsils and medulla through the formen magnum (which may reslut in obstruction of CSF circulation)
    Chiari malformation
  306. What congenital malformation of the CNS is associated with syringomyelia (central cavitation of the spinal cord)?
    Chiari malformation
  307. What is the site of arterial occlusion in a patient presenting with paresis and sensory loss of contralateral lower extremity?
    ACA
  308. What is the site of arterial occlusion in a patient presenting with hemiparesis, contralateral hemisensory loss, homonymous hemianopsia, and aphasia?
    MCA supplying the dominant hemisphere
  309. What is the site of arterial occlusion in a patient presenting with LOC, hemisensory loss, and homonymous hemianopsia with macular sparing?
    PCA
  310. What is the site of arterial occlusion in a patient presenting with amaurosis fugax?
    Opthalmic artery
  311. What is the site of arterial occlusion in a patient presenting with vertigo, cranial nerve palsies, impaired level of conciousness, and dysarthria?
    Vertebrobasilar artery
  312. What is the site of arterial occlusion in a patient presenting with sensory neglect and apraxia?
    MCA supplying the nondominant hemispeher
  313. What is the site of arterial occlusion in a patient presenting with urinary incontinence and suck and grasp reflexes?
    Middle or ACA supplying the frontal lobe.
  314. What are the most frequent site of embolic occlusion in the cerebral vasculature?
    MCA
  315. What are the most frequent sites of thrombotic occlusion in the cerebral vasculature?
    Carotid bifurcation, MCA, and basilar artery
  316. Which cardiac arrhythmia is associated with embolic stroke?
    Atrial fibrillation
  317. What type of stroke, associated with HTN, causes the formation of small, mon-shaped pits, commonly in the internal capsule or thalamus?
    Lacunar infarcts
  318. Name the term used to describe small aneurysms of the cerebral vasculature, caused by long-standing HTN, that may result in intracerebral hemorrhage.
    Charcot-Bouchard aneurysms
  319. What are the most common locations for Charcot-Bouchard aneurysms?
    Thalamus and basal ganglia
  320. Within the cerebral vasculature, what are the most common sites of berry aneurysm formation?
    At the bifurcations of the circle of Willis
  321. What is the most common complication of berry aneurysms?
    Rupture causing subarachnoid hemorrhage
  322. What are three disorders that predispose to the formation of berry aneurysms?
    Polycystic kidney disease, Ehlor-sDanlos syndrome, and Marfan's syndrome
  323. Which cranial nerve palsy is associated with internal carotid or PCA aneurysms?
    CN 3 palsy causing pupillary dilation
  324. Name the term used to descibe paroxysmal, self-limiting episodes of neurologic deficit, commonly including transient aphasia.
    Transient ischemic attack
  325. Which syndrome is characterized by loss of all motor function except that of CNs 3 and 4?
    Locked-in syndrome (usually a result of infarction or tumor at the base of the pons)
  326. Name the type of seizure associated with LOC followed by loss of postural control, a tonic phase of muscle contraction and clonic limb jerking.
    Tonic-clonic seizure
  327. Name the type of seizure: a child who appears to be daydreaming is found to have a 3 second spike-and-wave pattern on EEG
    Absence seizure
  328. Name the type of seizure associated with sudden ,brief muscle contractions.
    Myoclonic epilepsy
  329. Name the type of seizure associated with motor, sensory, visual, psychic, or autonomic phenomenon with preserved level of conciousness.
    Simple partial seziure
  330. Name the type of seizure associated with behavioral arrest followed by auditory or visual hallucination, automatisms, and finally by postictal confusion.
    Complex partial seizures
  331. What disorder is characterized by paroxysmal episodes of sharp, shooting facial pain in the distribution of one or more branches of CN 5?
    Trigeminal neuralgia
  332. What is the drug of choice for trigeminal neuralgia?
    Carbamazepine
  333. What is the triad of cerebellar disfunction?
    loss of balance (disequilibrium), hypotonia, and loss of coordinated muscle activity (dyssynergia)
  334. Name the terms used to describe traumatic injury to the cortex at the site of impact and opposite the side of impact.
    Coup injury (at the site of impact), Contrecoup injury (opposite the site of impact)
  335. Name the type of intracranial hemorrhage associated with bloody or xanthochromic CSF on lumbar puncture.
    Subarachnoid hemorrhage
  336. Name the type of intracranial hemorrhage associated with hematoma following the contour of a cerebral hemisphere on CT.
    Subdural hematoma
  337. Name the type of intracranial hemorrhage associated with laceration of bridging cerebral veins.
    Subdural hematoma
  338. Name the type of intracranial hemorrhage associated with laceration of middle meningeal artery due to fracture of the temporal bone?
    Epidural hematoma
  339. Name the type of intracranial hemorrhage associated with lucid interval followed by rapid decline in mental status.
    Epidural hematoma
  340. Name the type of most common type of intracranial hemorrhage resulting from trauma.
    Subdural hematoma
  341. Name the type of intracranial hemorrhage associated with ruptured berry aneurysm or arteriovenous malformation.
    Subarachnoid hemorrhage
  342. Name the type of intracranial hemorrhage seen in patinets with long-standing, poorly controlled HTN.
    Intraparenchymal hemrrhage.
  343. Name the type of intracranial hemorrhage associated with a lens-shaped hematoma on CT scan.
    Epidural hematoma
  344. Name the type of intracranial hemorrhage seen more commonly in alcoholics and the elderly.
    Subdural hematoma
  345. Name the type of meningitis associated with >1000 polys, decreased glucose, and increased protein in CSF.
    Bacterial meningitis
  346. Name the type of meningitis associated with increased lymphocytes, minor elevation in protein, and normal CSF pressure.
    Viral meningitis
  347. Name the type of meningitis associated with increased lymphocytes, minor elevation in protein, and elevated CSF pressure.
    Fungal meningitis
  348. Perivascular cuffing, inclusion bodies, and glial nodules may be seen in what cerebral infection?
    Viral meningoencephalitis
  349. Name the parasite spread from cats to humans that causes periventricular calcifications and congenital disorders in offspring of infected mothers
    Toxoplasma gondii
  350. Which infectious disease is characterized by neuronal vacuolization leading to small cysts in the gray matter of the brain without an associated inflammatory response?
    Spongiform encephalopathy
  351. Which disease is characterized by progressive ataxia, dementia, and spongiform gray matter changes?
    Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease
  352. What is the most common demyelinating disorder?
    Multiple Sclerosis
  353. What demyelinating disorder is associated with JC virus infection in AIDs patients?
    Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
  354. What demyelinating disorder is associated with pereventricular calcification, with spinal lesions typically in the white matter of the spinal cord?
    Multiple Sclerosis
  355. What postviral autoimmune syndrome causes demyelination of peripheral nerves, especially motor fibers?
    Guillain-Barre syndrome
  356. What demyelinating disorder is associated with the triad of intention tremor, scanning speech, and nystagmus?
    Multiple Sclerosis
  357. What demyelinating disorder may present with intranuclear opthalmoplegia (MLF syndrome) or sudden visual loss due to optic neuritis?
    Multiple Sclerosis
  358. What demyelinating disorder is associated with ascending paralysis, facial diplegia, and autonomic dysfuncion?
    Guillain-Barre syndrome
  359. What demyelinating disorder is associated with oligoclonal bands in the CSF?
    Multiple Sclerosis
  360. What demyelinating disorder is associated with albuminocytologic dissociation (increased CSF protein with normal cell count)
    Guillain-Barre syndrome
  361. What leukodystrophy is associated with gluboid bodies in white matter?
    Krabbe's disease
  362. What autosomal recessive leukodystrophy is fatal in early childhood?
    Metachromatic leukodystrophy
  363. What leukodystrophy is associated with deficiency of beta-galactacerebrosidase?
    Krabbe's disease
  364. What autosomal recessive leukodystrophy is rappidly fatal?
    Krabbe's disease
  365. What leukodystrophy is associated with progressive paralysis, dementia, and ataxia?
    Metachromatic leukodystrophy
  366. What leukodystrophy is associated with nervous tissue that demonstrates loss of myelin and appears yellowish brown?
    Metachromatic leukodystrophy
  367. What leukodystrophy is associated with loss of myelin from globoid and peripheral neurons?
    Krabbe's disease
  368. What are the two most common causes of dementia in the elderly?
    Alzheimer's dementia and multi-infarct dementia
  369. What neurodegenerative disorder is associated with hirano bodies, neurofibrillary tangles, and senile plaques (accumulations of beta-amyloid protein)?
    Alzheimer's dementia
  370. What neurodegenerative disorder causes early onset dementia in patients with Down syndrome?
    Werdnig-Hoffman disease
  371. What neurodegenerative disorder causes stepwise dementia in a patient with focal neurologic deficits?
    Multi-infarct dementia
  372. What neurodegenerative disorder is associated with global atrophy and demyelination of the cortex, cerebellum, and brainstem due to the effects of ETOH abuse and thiamine deficiency?
    Alcohol encephalopathy
  373. What neurodegenerative disorder is associated with progressive dementia with predominantly frontal and temporal gliosis and neuronal loss?
    Pick's disease
  374. What neurodegenerative disorder is associated with degeneration of the caudate nucleus?
    Huntington's disease
  375. What neurodegenerative disorder is associated with lewy bodies and depigmentation of the substantia nigra?
    Parkinson's disease
  376. What neurodegenerative disorder is associated with parkinsonian symptoms with autonomic dysfunction, including orthostatic hypotension?
    Shy-Drager syndrome
  377. What neurodegenerative disorder is associated with resting tremor, cogwheel rigidity, akinesia, and postural instability?
    Parkinson's disease
  378. What neurodegenerative disorder can be caused by MPTP use?
    Parkinson's disease
  379. What neurodegenerative disorder is associated with slowly progressive ataxia, dysarthria, decreased DTRs, positive babinski signs, and sensory loss?
    Friedreich ataxia
  380. What autosomal recessive neurodegenerative disorder is associated with kyphoscoliosis, diabetes, arrhythmias, and myocarditis?
    Friedreich ataxia
  381. What autosomal dominant neurodegenerative disorder is associated with anticipation (worsening of disease in future generations) due to increasing number of CAG repeats?
    Huntington's disease
  382. What neurodegenerative disorder is associated with neuronal loss and gliosis in many spinal tracts?
    Friedreich ataxia
  383. What neurodegenerative disorder is associated with UMN and LMN signs due to loss of myelinated fibers of the corticospinal tract?
    Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis
  384. What neurodegenerative disorder is associated with tongue fasciculations?
    Werdnig-Hoffman disease
  385. What neurodegenerative disorder is caused by a viral infection creating an inflammatory response in the anterior horn of the spinal cord resulting in LMN loss?
    Poliomyelitis
  386. What neurodegenerative disorder is associated with childhood ataxia associated with telangiectasias of the skin and conjunctiva associated with ATM gene mutation.
    Ataxia-telangiectasia
  387. What neurodegenerative disorder is associated with a floppy baby (hypotonia) due to LMN degeneration?
    Werdnig-Hoffman disease
  388. Which protein gives rise to the amyloid fibrils of Alzheimer's disease?
    A-beta
  389. What is the conformation of A-beta protein in neuritic plaques?
    beta-pleated sheets
  390. The A-beta protein is derived from processing of which laregr molecule?
    Amyloid precursor protein (APP)
  391. What is the most common pediatric intracranial tumor?
    Juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma
  392. What is the most common pituitary tumor?
    Pituitary Adenoma
  393. What is the most common pituitary adenoma?
    Prolactinoma
  394. What is the most common pediatric supratentorial tumor?
    Craniopharyngioma
  395. What is the most common primary brain tumor?
    Glioblastoma multiforme
  396. What is the most common intracranial tumor?
    Metastases
  397. What malignant pediatric brain tumor metastases through CSF pathways?
    Medullablastoma
  398. What malignant pediatric brain tumor is found exclusively in the posterior fossa?
    Medullablastoma
  399. What vascular tumorof the cerebellum and retinais found in patients with von Hippel-Lindau syndrome?
    Hemangioblastoma
  400. What brain tumor is associated with abundant capillaries and vacuolated foam cells?
    Hemangioblastoma
  401. What brain tumor is found bilaterally in patients with neurpfibromatosis II?
    Acoustic neuroma/ Schwannoma
  402. What brian tumor originates from the vestibular division of CN 8?
    Schwannoma
  403. What brain tumor grows in a mixture of Antoni A or Antoni B patterns?
    Schwannoma
  404. What brain tumor is characterized by small round blue cells?
    Medullablastoma
  405. What brain tumor is characterized by bipolar cells, Rosenthal fibers, and microcysts?
    Juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma
  406. What brain tumor is associated with verocay bodies?
    Schwannoma
  407. What brain tumor is derived from Rathke's pouch?
    Craniopharyngioma
  408. What two brain tumors often present with bitemporal hemianopia?
    pituitary adenoma and craniopharyngioma
  409. What brain tumor is characterized by concentric whorls and calcified Psammoma bodies?
    Meningioma
  410. What brain tumor arises from ependymal lining of the ventricular system?
    Ependymoma
  411. What brain tumor commonly arises in the pineal region and commonly causes obstructive hydrocephalus by compromising the aqueduct of Sylvius?
    Germinoma
  412. What EBV positive B-cell tumor of the CNS is seen in AIDs patients?
    CNS lymphoma
  413. What brain tumor of the foramen of Monro causes obstructive hydrocephalu?
    Colloid cyst of the third ventricle
  414. What benign brain tumor characterized by calcifications and cells with fried-egg appearance or perinuclear halos?
    Oligodendroma
  415. What brain tumor is characterized by highly malignant cells bordering necrotic areas?
    Glioblastoma multiforme
  416. What benign brain tumor is drived from arachnoid cap cells and exhibits well-defined margins?
    Meningioma
  417. What disease of the spinal cord is associated with loss of all spinal modalities except tactile discrimination, vibratory sensation, and proprioception?
    Ventral spinal artery occlusion
  418. What disease of the spinal cord is associated with impaired tactile discrimination, vibratory sensation, and proprioception?
    Tabes dorsalis
  419. What disease of the spinal cord is associated with loss of pain and temperature sensation and flaccid paralysis of the intrinsic muscles of the hand?
    Syringomyelia
  420. What disease of the spinal cord is associated with impaired tactile discrimination, vibratory sensation and proprioception, and UMN signs and ataxia?
    Vitamin B12 deficiency
  421. What complication affecting the brainstem can be caused by rapid correction of hyponatremia?
    Central pontine myelinolysis
  422. Describe how transtentorial herniation causes contralateral hemiparesis.
    compresses the right crus cerebri causing corticospinal and corticobulbar fiber compression (Kernohan's notch)
  423. Describe how transtentorial herniation causes pupillary dilation.
    tension on CN 3 causes pupillary dilation
  424. Name a life-threatening complication of transforaminal herniation?
    Duret hemorrhages
  425. What is the systemic response to increased intracranial pressure?
    Cushing's triad: HTN, bradycardia, irregular respirations
  426. What diuretic is commonly used to manage increased intracranial pressure?
    Mannitol (osmotic diuretic)
  427. What is the protein change associated with prior disease?
    conformational changes in PrPc (alpha-helix isoform) to PrPsc (beta-pleated sheet isoform)
  428. Give the MOA, IND, and TOX for Carbamezepine.
    MOA: Na+ channel blocker IND: tonic-clonic, partial, and Jacksonian seizures TOX: increased LFTs, agranulocytosis, aplastic anemia
  429. Give the MOA, IND, and TOX for Ethosuximide.
    MOA: May block T-type Ca++ channels in the thalamus IND: absence seizures TOX: GI upset, Stevens-Johnson syndrome
  430. Give the MOA, IND, and TOX for Diazepam.
    MOA: facilitates GABA action by increasing frequency of Cl channel opening IND: status epilepticus TOX: sedation
  431. Give the MOA, IND, and TOX for Lamotrigine.
    MOA: Na+ channel blocker IND: adjuvant antiepileptic agent TOX: life-threatening rash and Stevens-Johnson syndrome
  432. Give the MOA, IND, and TOX for Phenytoin.
    MOA: Na+ channel blocker IND: tonic-clonic, partial, and status TOX: Nystagmus, ataxia, gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, megaloblastic anemia, teratogenic
  433. Give the MOA, IND, and TOX for Phenobarbitol.
    MOA: facilitates GABA action by increasing duration of CL channel opening IND: tonic-clonic seizures TOX: induces P450, sleepiness
  434. Give the MOA, IND, and TOX for Valproic acid.
    MOA: unknown, may facilitate GABA action IND: myoclonic seizures TOX: hepatotoxicity, GI toxicity, inhibits P450, thrombocytopenia
  435. What is the drug of choice for treatment of simple and complex partial seizures?
    Phenytoin, carbamazepine
  436. What is the drug of choice for treatment of absence seizures?
    Ethosuximide
  437. What is the drug of choice for treatment of febrile seizures?
    Phenobarbital
  438. What is the drug of choice for treatment of myoclonic seizures?
    Valproic acid, clonazepam
  439. What is the drug of choice for treatment of status epilepticus?
    Phenytoin, diazepam
  440. What is the drug of choice for treatment of tonic-clonic seziures?
    Phenytoin, carbamazepine
  441. Give the MOA and IND for Amantidine.
    MOA: may enhance dopamine release IND: Helpful for rigidity and bradykinesia
  442. Give the MOA, IND, and TOX for Benztropine.
    MOA: antimuscarinic IND: adjuvant therapy TOX: Similar to Atropine (hot as a hare, blind as a bat, red as a beet, dry as a bone, mad as a hatter)
  443. Give the MOA, IND, and TOX for Bromocriptine.
    MOA: dopamine receptor agonist IND: Used with levadopa TOX: hypotension, confusion, hallucinations, nausea
  444. Give the MOA, IND, and TOX for Levodopa.
    MOA: Dopamine precursor converted to dopamine in CNS IND: Combined with carbidopa, levadopa is the most efficacious regimen for Parkinson's disease TOX: Nausea, tachycardia, hypotension, hallucinations, dyskinesias
  445. Give the MOA and IND for Carbidopa.
    MOA: Inhibition of dopamine decarboxylase increasing levadopa concentrationin CNS IND: used with levadopa
  446. Give the MOA, IND, and TOX for Selegiline.
    MOA: inhibition of MAOb increases dopamine levels in CNS IND: used as adjuvant to Levadopa TOX: HTN
  447. Give the MOA, IND, and TOX for Halothane.
    MOA: CNS depressant IND: prototype general anesthetic, potent anesthetic but weak analgesic TOX: arrhythmias, decreased CO, hypotension, hepatotoxicty
  448. Give the MOA and IND for Nitrous oxide.
    MOA: CNS depressant IND: weak general anesthetic, strong analgesic
  449. Give the MOA, IND, and TOX for Thiopental.
    MOA: prolongs inhibitory postsynaptic potentials by increasing GABA levels (similar to phenobarbital) IND: surgical anesthesia TOX: laryngospasm
  450. Give the MOA, IND, and TOX for Benzodiazepines (diazepam, midazolam).
    MA: facilitates GABA action by increasing frequency of CL channel opening IND: sedative, hypnotic, anxiolytic TOX: sedation
  451. Give the MOA, IND, and TOX for Ketamine.
    MOA: PCP analog IND: general anesthetic TOX: postoperative hallucinations, amneisa, respiratory depression
  452. Give the MOA, IND, and TOX for Propofol.
    MOA: CNS depression IND: General anesthetic- rapid onset and clearance TOX: Cannot be given to patients with egg or soybean allergies
  453. Give the MOA, IND, and TOX for local anesthetics (procaine, cocaine, tetracaine, lidocaine, bupivacaine).
    MOA: Na+ channel blocker IND: anesthetic for minor procedures, spinal blocks TOX: arrythmias, HTN, seizure, cardiotoxicity (bupivacaine)
  454. Give the MOA, IND, and TOX for Succinylcholine.
    MOA: depolarizing neuromuscular blocker IND: Rapid sequence induction TOX: malignant hyperthermia when given with halogenated inhaled anesthetic; contraindicated in pts with glaucoma because it increases ocular pressure
  455. Give the MOA, IND, and TOX for Tubocurarine.
    MOA: Nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker IND: adjuvant to general anesthetics TOX: HTN
  456. Why is epinephrine commonly combined with local anesthetics?
    To prolong the duration of the anesthetic effect by causing local vasoconstriction
  457. What types of fibers are affected most by local anesthetics?
    Pain> temp> touch? Pressure; small unmyelinated most affected and large myelinated fibers least affected
  458. Which drug is used to reverse the effects of the nondepolarizing muscle blockers?
    Neostigmine
  459. Which drug is used to treat malignant hyperthermia?
    Dantrolene
  460. Give the MOA, IND, and TOX for Acetaminophen.
    MOA: COX inhibitor IND: Pain, fever (NOT anti-inflammatory)
  461. Give the MOA, IND, and TOX for ASA.
    MOA: Irreversible inhibition of COX-1 and COX-2 IND: Alangesic, antipyretic, anti-inflammatory, antiplatelet drug TOX: GI ulcers, platelet dysfunction, hypersensitivity reactions, bronchoconstriction, tinnitus, Reye's syndrome
  462. Give the MOA, IND, and TOX for Celecoxib.
    MOA: Cox-2 Inhibitor IND: Osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis TOX: similar to ASA but less GI toxicity
  463. Give the MOA, IND, and TOX for Gabapentin.
    MOA: Structural analog of GABA IND: Neuropathic Pain TOX: Sedation, movement disorders
  464. Give the MOA, IND, and TOX for Indomethacin.
    MOA: Reversible inhibition of COX-1 and COX-2 IND: Acute gout, neonatal PDA TOX: GI upset, HA
  465. Give the MOA, IND, and TOX for Meperidine.
    MOA: mu opiod receptor agonist IND: Analgesic TOX: Seizures, side effects similar to morphine
  466. Give the MOA, IND, and TOX for Morphine.
    MOA: mu opiod receptor agonist IND: Analgesic, cough suppressant TOX: Constipation, emesis, sedation, respiratory depression, miosis, urinary retention (note: these symptoms are typical for heroin overdose)
  467. Give the MOA and IND for Nalbuphine.
    MOA: Opiod mixed agonist-antagonist analgesic that activates kappa and weakly block mu receptors IND: Analgesic with less abuse potential
  468. Give the MOA and IND for Naloxone
    MOA: mu opiod receptor antagonist IND: Used to reverse the effects of opiod agonists
  469. What two types of opiod receptors mediate analgesia, rspiratory depression, and physical dependence?
    mu and delta
  470. What type of opiod receptors mediate spinal analgesia and the sedative effects of opiods?
    kappa

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