Card Set Information

2010-11-14 14:14:45
ACE Personal Trainer CPT

Practice Quiz
Show Answers:

  1. Which of the following tests BEST measures muscular strength?

    A. 10-rep-max bench-press test
    B. YMCA push-up test
    C. Half sit-up test
    D. YMCA bench-press test

    This is the best test for measuring muscular strength because it is safer than a 1-rep max bench-press test and most people can complete 10 repetitions with 75% of their maximum resistance. While a 1-repetition maximum bench-press test is considered a more accurate measure of strength, the risk of injury outweighs the benefits of performing the test for most personal training clients. Therefore, the 10-rep test is considered an appropriate substitute for assessing strength.
  2. Which strategy will BEST ensure agreement between the client and trainer with respect to motivation and goals?

    A. The client should be allowed by the trainer to plan the initial training activities.
    B. The trainer should establish a basic program for the client to start their regimen.
    C. The trainer should explore the client's expectations and prior experience.
    D. The client's present level of physical fitness should be determined.

    This response will best ensure agreement between the client and trainer with respect to motivation and goals. Finding out where a client is mentally and experientially with respect to exercise allows a trainer to develop a specific exercise program tailored to exactly what the client wants and needs. When a program is designed with client expectations and prior experience in mind, the client's motivation increases because the client was a contributor to the process.
  3. Cardiorespiratory fitness is BEST evaluated by which of the following?

    A. Rating of perceived exertion
    B. Maximal oxygen uptake
    C. Submaximal exercise heart rate
    D. Heart-rate recovery rate

    This is the best method for evaluating cardiorespiratory fitness because it measures maximal oxygen uptake during an exercise activity. Since cardiorespiratory fitness is defined by an individual's ability to take in and use oxygen during physical activity, maximal oxygen uptake (also known as VO2max) is the best method for evaluation. Depending on the age and cardiovascular risk of the client, this method is often limited to clinical or research facilities and is usually performed in the presence of a physician trained in advanced cardiac life support.
  4. Client: Male, Age: 39, Physician Clearance: Yes, Medical/Health Concerns: Smokes 30+ cigarettes per day, Blood pressure: 136/94 mmHg, Past Activity Levels: Played high-school soccer and rugby, Current Activity Levels: Walks dog and walks 10 minutes to work everyday, Main Fitness Goal: To improve stamina and feel more fit, Given the information above, which of the following fitness tests is contraindicated for a personal trainer to perform?

    A. 3-minute step test
    B. Submaximal cycle ergometry test
    C. Maximal graded treadmill test
    D. 1-mile walk test

    This response is correct because this is a maximal fitness test and, therefore, contraindicated. The client’s information, given in the stem of the question, places him in the moderate risk category for experiencing a cardiac event during exercise. He has two risk factors, current cigarette smoker and hypertension, but has no symptoms of cardiopulmonary disease. Therefore, he may exercise at a moderate intensity and undergo submaximal fitness testing.
  5. Which of the following methods is MOST accurate for assessing body composition?

    A. Bioelectrical impedance analysis
    B. Body mass index
    C. Waist-to-hip ratio
    D. Skinfold thickness measurement

    Of all the responses listed for this question, the skinfold measurement method is the most accurate for assessing body composition provided the measurements are taken properly. If the technician/personal trainer performing the assessment has ample experience locating and measuring the standard sites, the results are both valid and reliable for estimating body composition.
  6. When designing a program, the personal trainer should identify client goals by _______________.

    A. Interviewing using close-ended questions
    B. Training the client for a week before assessment
    C. Using a lifestyle questionnaire
    D. Creating a formal contract with the client

    This response is correct because using a lifestyle questionnaire prior to training is an excellent way to uncover a client's preferences, needs, exercise history and motivational readiness for change. With this information the personal trainer, together with the client, can develop realistic and relevant goals tailored specifically to the client's motivational needs.
  7. If a client has an increased risk for injury during exercise, the trainer should obtain a physician's medical release form prior to training because it _______________.

    A. Releases the trainer from liability if the client is injured following the exercise program
    B. Guarantees the client's success in reaching his or her goals
    C. Allows the physician to direct modifications in the exercise program
    D. Prevents the trainer from being sued by the client for acts of negligence

    This response is correct. The purpose of a physician's medical release form is to provide the personal trainer with clarification of a client's status and to explain any limitations to physical activity. It also enables the physician to direct modifications to the exercise program.
  8. Your new client, who is 34 years old, smokes 10 cigarettes per day, has a triglyceride level of 200 mg/dL, and a total cholesterol/HDL ratio of 3.5. Before training him, you should _______________.

    A. Recommend he see a registered dietitian to help him reduce his dietary fat
    B. Recommend he see a registered dietitian to help him reduce his dietary cholesterol
    C. Require a physician's approval
    D. Have him sign an informed consent form

    This response is correct. The client does not need to be referred to another health professional prior to training. Therefore, having him sign prerequisite paperwork, such as informed consent and release of liability, is appropriate at this time.
  9. During the initial interview with your new client, you discover that he has a thyroid disease and is
    currently taking medication. Your FIRST course of action should be to _____________.

    A. Research the effects of his medications on exercise capacity and design his program accordingly.
    B. Obtain appropriate exercise parameters from his primary care provider.
    C. Incorporate an extended warm-up and cool-down period at a low-intensity level.
    D. Refer him to a registered dietitian since his condition is nutrition related.

    This response is correct. It is outside the scope of practice for a personal trainer to design an exercise program for a client with a metabolic disorder without first gaining clearance and guidelines from a physician. The ACSM Initial Risk Stratification places individuals with known thyroid disorders in the high risk category, indicating that they should receive medical clearance prior to engaging in an exercise program.
  10. A lifestyle information form is helpful in developing _______________.

    A. Rapport, program design, and goals
    B. A treatment plan for special populations
    C. The fitness components of rehabilitation program
    D. A relapse prevention strategy

    This response is correct because a lifestyle information questionnaire includes the following important components: (1) physical activity feelings, barriers, preferences, and history, (2) family history and social support, (3) occupation, (4) stressors, (5) dietary patterns, and (6) hobbies and leisure activities. This information aids the personal trainer in developing a sound program for the client. Additionally, it provides an opportunity for rapport-building as the client and personal trainer discuss and clarify any concerns associated with the training program.
  11. Which of the following must be known in order to perform a comprehensive evaluation of a client’s lifestyle?

    A. Stressors
    B. Gender
    C. Education
    D. Income

    This response is correct because a lifestyle information questionnaire includes the following important components: (1) physical activity feelings, barriers, preferences, and history, (2) family history and social support, (3) occupation, (4) stressors, (5) dietary patterns, and (6) hobbies and leisure activities.
  12. Once the trainer obtains personal goals and health data from the client, the gathered information should

    A. Posted as a motivational incentive measure
    B. Attached to the program card found in the training area
    C. Entered on the general client database
    D. Filed in a secured data storage area

    This response is correct. All client data should be stored in a secured area within the fitness facility. This limits the access to the client's personal data to the personal trainer. Every client has the right to expect all personal data and discussion with an ACE-certified professional will be safeguarded and not disclosed without the client's express written consent or acknowledgment.
  13. Which of the following is a component of a well-stated goal?

    A. Competitive
    B. Precise
    C. Flexible
    D. Time-bound

    This response is correct because it is one of the components of a well-stated goal (a SMART goal). The components of a SMART goal are: Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, and Time-bound. SMART goals are effective because they translate clients' vague statements about what they want into precise goals.
  14. A client informs you that he has been prescribed beta-blockers to control his blood pressure. In response to this prescription, you should_____________________.

    A. Use the rating of perceived exertion to measure intensity
    B. Adjust target heart rate to prevent overexertion
    C. Reduce training intensity to minimize pulse pressure
    D. Use a heart rate monitor to measure heart rate

    This response is correct because beta-blockers decrease an individual's resting, exercise, and maximal heart rates. This reduction in heart rate requires modifying the method used for determining exercise intensity. Using the Borg Scale of Perceived Exertion or the newer modified 0 - 10 scale of perceived exertion is appropriate for monitoring an aerobic exercise program for someone on beta-blockers.
  15. Your client has started taking beta-blocker medication after eight weeks of training. Which of the following should you do?

    A. Reduce the target heart-rate training zone by 20%.
    B. Keep the target heart-rate training zone the same.
    C. Increase intensity level in order to elevate heart rate.
    D. Have his physician recommend appropriate exercise intensities.

    This is the most appropriate response listed. Since this is a newly-prescribed medication, it is best to communicate with the client's physician regarding appropriate exercise intensities as well as any other limitations that may now be present. Additionally, using a rating of perceived exertion scale to monitor intensity is an acceptable alternative to heart-rate monitoring.
  16. The risk of hypotension in the pregnant exerciser can be minimized by _______________.

    A. Encouraging the exerciser to perform supine abdominal work
    B. Replacing supine positions with semirecumbent and prone positions
    C. Using the Valsalva maneuver during strength training
    D. Introducing the client to Kegel exercises

    This response is correct. The supine position allows the weight of the uterus to press against the blood vessels, especially the inferior vena cava. This pressure causes a restriction in blood flow, which may cause a reduction in blood pressure, cardiac output, and blood flow to the fetus. Clients should be advised to avoid the supine position after the first trimester of pregnancy. Supine positions may be replaced with semirecumbent positions, and prone positions replaced with an all-fours position or an elbows-and-knees position.
  17. Which of the following is a well-stated goal for an overweight client?

    A. I will lose 55 lb (25 kg) in 6 months by exercising and strength training.
    B. I will start dieting and strength training 3-5 days a week.
    C. I will lose 3 lb (1.5 kg) a week by dieting and exercising 5-7 days a week.
    D. I will lose 1 lb (0.5 kg) a week by dieting and exercising 3-5 days a week for the next 3 months.

    This response is correct. The goal is well-stated and follows the ACSM guidelines for safe and effective weight loss.
  18. You are reviewing lifestyle information of the potential client described below:
    Male, age 40, Height: 5'7" (170 cm), Weight: 200 lb (90 kg), RHR: 70, BP: 124/76, Occupation: Finance Manager, Highest education completed: college, Marital status: married, two children, Physical activity history: wrestler in high school, Goal: Would like to lose 40 lb and increase functional strength, Submaximal exercise test result: VO2max of 40 mL/kg/min (fair), Push-ups test: Fair, Half sit-ups test: Fair, Based on this information, which of the following is the MOST realistic goal for the first two months?

    A. Increase VO2max by 5% and achieve a scale weight of 175 lb.
    B. Increase local muscular endurance and decrease weight by 8%.
    C. Achieve an aerobic fitness rating of "excellent" and increase local muscular endurance.
    D. Increase VO2max by 10% and achieve a scale weight of 175 lb.

    This response is the most realistic goal for this client. It addresses the fact that he only scored a "fair" on his endurance assessments by focusing on increasing local muscular endurance. Additionally, the reduction in weight by 8% is within the ACSM guidelines for weight loss of losing no more than 1-2 lb per week. This scenario has the client losing 2 lb per week. Finally, it is recommended that the initial weight loss goal be set at no more than 10% of the client's total body weight. The goal of 8% body weight reduction falls within this recommendation.
  19. A new member of your health club has been cleared by his physician to exercise after recently celebrating his 63rd birthday. Which of the following exercise parameters is MOST appropriate for an initial program?

    A. Strength training utilizing low resistance and high repetitions
    B. Moderate to vigorous aerobic activity 5-7 days per week, 30-60 minutes
    C. Strength training with free weights to maximize neurological adaptations
    D. Functional training emphasizing dynamic balance exercises

    This response is most appropriate for an initial program because it addresses the loss of muscle mass and bone density as one ages. To promote strength gains and increases in bone density, a program with more resistance and fewer repetitions is required. However, because this individual is more than 50 years old, the ACSM recommends he begins his program with low resistance and high repetitions. This is the recommendation for older individuals due in part to the fact that as people age their blood pressures tend to rise. Low resistance and high repetitions is the recommendation for resistance training for hypertensive clients as well. After several months of training a more intense program may be appropriate.
  20. Bertha is a fit middle-aged woman. She has received medical clearance to exercise and has been
    prescribed diuretic medication for 6 months. Which of the following recommendations is MOST

    A. Refrain from performing high-intensity exercise.
    B. Consume fluids before, during, and after exercise.
    C. Minimize duration to no more than 30 minutes per session.
    D. Monitor intensity using RPE instead of heart rate.

    This response is the most appropriate because diuretic medications increase the excretion of water and electrolytes through the kidneys, which may lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias. Since diuretics decrease blood volume, they may predispose an exerciser to dehydration. Therefore, adequate fluid intake before, during, and after exercise is important.
  21. Which of the following is among the possible side effects of diuretic medication?

    A. Decreased heart rate
    B. Increased blood volume
    C. Water retention in the extremities
    D. Electrolyte imbalance

    This response is correct because the primary effect of diuretic medication is increased excretion of water and electrolytes through the kidneys, which may cause electrolyte imbalances and cardiac arrhythmias. Since the diuretics may also decrease blood volume, they may predispose an exerciser to dehydration.
  22. A reduction in peripheral vascular resistance is a primary benefit of exercise in controlling ___________.

    A. Peripheral vascular disease
    B. Diabetes
    C. Hypertension
    D. Asthma

    This is the correct response because high blood pressure is a condition that causes increased peripheral resistance. Regular aerobic exercise appears to reduce both systolic and diastolic blood pressure by an average of 10 mmHg, thereby reducing peripheral vascular resistance.
  23. To experience a significant improvement in fitness, unfit individuals require a _______________.

    A. Higher training dose than fit individuals
    B. Lower training dose than fit individuals
    C. Longer training duration than fit individuals
    D. Higher training intensity than fit individuals

    This response is correct. Most unfit individuals need lower intensity, duration, and frequency programming than their more fit counterparts to give their unconditioned bodies adequate time to adapt to the higher demands of exercise. Additionally, unfit individuals experience higher gains in fitness improvements through lower doses of exercise than do fit exercisers. This is a result of the fact that fitter individuals are closer to reaching their fitness potential than unfit exercisers and have less room for improvement.
  24. You have just checked your client's heart rate after a 5-minute warm-up on the stationary bicycle and
    noticed that her heart rate is 15 beats per minute higher than usual. She informs you that she is taking a
    decongestant for her cold. You should _______________.

    A. Refer her to a physician for medical clearance
    B. Have her finish the remainder of her workout at the same intensity
    C. Reduce the exercise intensity and monitor the session using rating of perceived exertion
    D. Terminate the workout and reschedule the session when she is over her cold

    This response is correct. The client's heart rate is elevated, which will affect her performance and ability to work at her regular intensity level. Since the formula used to determine exercise intensity is no longer valid due to her altered exercise heart rate, the best approach is to reduce exercise intensity and monitor exercise using rating of perceived exertion.
  25. To assist your potential client's transition from the contemplation stage of change to the preparation stage of change, which intervention should be used?

    A. Formal contract
    B. Periodic goal evaluation
    C. Health-risk appraisal
    D. Relapse prevention strategies

    This response is the best intervention because it assists the potential client in the process of weighing the costs and benefits of lifestyle modification. Completing a health-risk appraisal and consulting with a personal trainer about the results may initiate the motivation needed to progress to the preparation stage of change. Often individuals in the contemplation stage are unaware of their own health risks and may be motivated to change upon discovering their shortcomings.
  26. Which of the following programs is MOST appropriate to improve a client’s initial level of conditioning?

    A. 5-6 times per week, 30 minutes, 80% of VO2max
    B. 2-4 times per week, 20-40 minutes, 65% of VO2max
    C. 3-4 times per week, 20-30 minutes, 80% of VO2max
    D. 3-5 times per week, 25 minutes, 70% of VO2max

    This is the most appropriate program to improve a client's initial level of conditioning. All parameters fall within the ACSM guidelines for cardiorespiratory endurance progression in the improvement conditioning stage. These guidelines consist of an intensity of 50-85% of VO2max, a frequency of 3-5 days per week and a duration of 20-60 minutes per session.
  27. When exercising in a hot environment, it is recommended that a person drink approximately _________.

    A. 2 to 4 fluid ounces of a sports drink every 10-15 minutes
    B. 3 to 6 fluid ounces of water every 10-15 minutes
    C. 32 fluid ounces of water within 30 minutes prior to, and following exercise
    D. 1 ounce of fluid for every ounce of weight lost during exercise

    This response is correct. The guideline for fluid replenishment while exercising in a hot environment is to drink at least 3-6 ounces of water every 10-15 minutes during exercise. Additionally, drink 8 ounces of water 20-30 minutes prior to exercise and 8-10 ounces of water in the 30 minutes following exercise.
  28. When using a medicine ball for upper-body plyometric training, which of the following is activated when the muscular contraction is initiated by catching a medicine ball?

    A. Pacinian corpuscles
    B. Muscle spindles
    C. Extrafusal fibers
    D. Golgi tendon organs

    This response is correct. The muscle spindle responds to a quick stretch of its associated muscle fibers by creating a sudden, reflexive, protective muscular contraction. In the case of catching a medicine ball, the muscle fibers of the anterior shoulder girdle and triceps are quickly stretched as they are called into eccentric action to decelerate the velocity of the incoming ball. The muscle spindles are activated by this quick movement and respond by calling on the muscles of the anterior shoulder girdle and triceps to quickly contract, which results in the participant throwing the ball in return.
  29. What is the prime mover involved during flexion of the knee joint?

    A. Rectus femoris
    B. Biceps femoris
    C. Vastus lateralis
    D. Vastus medialis

    This response is correct. The biceps femoris has two major actions hip extension and knee flexion. It is included as one of the muscles that make up the hamstrings group.
  30. Your client has plateaued in her progress levels. Upon further review of the exercise record, you notice
    that she has been averaging only two sessions per week over the last four weeks. Your BEST recommendation is to _______________.

    A. Suspect "burnout" and tell her to take a week off from training
    B. Increase the frequency of training to three times per week
    C. Tell her that exercise should be a priority and that she must attend more sessions
    D. Lower her intensity level by 10% to increase compliance

    This is the best recommendation as it will bring her up to the minimum recommended guideline for frequency of physical activity and perhaps help her progress through her plateau. The personal trainer also may want to discuss the reasons for the client's two-session-per-week average. Perhaps the client's work or family obligations are getting in the way. If this is the case, the personal trainer may need to come up with more convenient alternatives for exercise for the client.
  31. The results of a client's re-evaluation step test show a similar recovery heart rate to the initial evaluation.
    This indicates _______________.
    A. Improved cardiorespiratory fitness
    B. No change in cardiorespiratory fitness
    C. Low initial cardiorespiratory fitness
    D. A need to refer the client to his or her physician

    This response is correct. In order for the client to have experienced an improvement in cardiorespiratory fitness, the recovery heart rate would have had to decrease. The rate at which the pulse returns to normal after exercise is a good measure of cardiorespiratory capacity; heart rate remains lower and recovers faster in people who are more physically fit due to the body's improved ability to provide oxygen and nutrients to the working muscles. Since the re-evaluation results showed no change in recovery heart rate, the client's fitness level has not changed.
  32. The 1996 Surgeon General's Report on Physical Activity and Health and ACSM's guidelines (2000)
    emphasize that the public can obtain heath benefits from a MINIMUM of _______________.
    A. 20 minutes or more of low-intensity physical activity, 3-5 days a week
    B. 30 minutes or more of moderate-intensity physical activity, on most, preferably all, days of the week
    C. 30 consecutive minutes of moderate-to-high-intensity exercise, 4-5 days a week
    D. 20 consecutive minutes of structured, moderate-intensity exercise at least 3-5 days a week

    This response is correct. These guidelines were established because previous public health efforts to promote physical activity overemphasized the importance of high-intensity exercise. The ACSM recognized that most people prefer a less technical, more informal approach to exercise programming and developed this guideline to help exercise appear less intimidating to the general public. Additionally, the ACSM's latest recommendation allows for the physical activity to be accumulated throughout the day in shorter bouts of exercise as long as 30 minutes total is accomplished by the end of the day.
  33. According to ACSM and the Centers for Disease Control, the MINIMUM amount of physical activity
    required for health benefits is _______________.
    A. 20 minutes of high-intensity activity, 3 days per week
    B. 40 minutes of low-intensity activity, 5 to 7 days per week
    C. 30 minutes of moderate-intensity, 5 to 7 days per week
    D. 60 minutes of moderate-intensity, 3 days per week

    This response is correct. Stated another way, the guideline is 30 minutes or more of moderate-intensity physical activity on most, preferably all, days of the week.
  34. What should be emphasized during the first 6 to 12 weeks of a beginner's exercise program?
    A. Attendance
    B. Long-term goals
    C. Increasing muscular strength and power
    D. Improving anthropometric measurements

    This is the most appropriate response because behavior change works best when the final objective can be reduced to component parts that the client can address one step at a time. Research suggests that focused, rather than broad multi-component programming yields better initial outcomes. Therefore, emphasizing the attendance behavior in the first 6-12 weeks will help the client to feel successful immediately without focusing on performance measures that take several weeks to improve.
  35. Reducing exercise intensity is recommended in which of the following situations?
    A. In 70% humidity at room temperature
    B. In 50% humidity at near freezing
    C. At an altitude of 1500 feet (455 meters)
    D. Following a 2-week period of complete rest

    This response is correct. Studies have demonstrated that within two weeks after the cessation of regular physical activity, significant reductions in VO2max can occur. This is an important concept for personal trainers to understand as they may train clients who return after being ill or from being on vacation for several weeks. Lowering exercise intensity and gradually increasing it to pre-rest levels is appropriate.
  36. Which of the following is an example of an open-ended question?
    A. "What do you hope to achieve from an exercise program?"
    B. "Do you enjoy exercising?"
    C. "Are you more interested in weight training or flexibility training?"
    D. "Have you had success in previous exercise programs?"

    This response is correct because it allows the client to explore his/her own thoughts without being hemmed in to a short response such as "yes" or "no." This is the best type of question for a personal trainer to ask when trying to get a deeper understanding of what the client is trying to express.
  37. Which exercise is considered high-risk for a client with a history of impingement syndrome?
    A. Seated row
    B. Lateral raise below shoulder height
    C. Incline shoulder press
    D. Decline chest press

    This response is considered high-risk for a client with a history of shoulder impingement because it requires the client to lift the arms above shoulder level and overhead. Shoulder impingement syndrome is caused by swollen rotator cuff muscles that get pinched between the shoulder bursa and the scapula when the arm is abducted. Therefore, exercises such as overhead presses, military presses, lat pull-downs, and incline presses may aggravate this condition.
  38. A client has achieved his goal of running a 10K (6.2 miles) in 50 minutes but now would like to improve
    his time. His program consists of runs of 30-50 minutes, three to four times per week. How should the
    personal trainer modify the client's program to help him achieve his new goal?
    A. Incorporate a strength-training program to increase quadriceps strength
    B. Increase the duration of his runs to 60 minutes each
    C. Substitute two days per week of cross training with cycling
    D. Incorporate a running interval training program

    This is the most appropriate program to help the client reach his new goal. Anaerobic interval training is effective in increasing speed, lactate threshold, and overall aerobic power. The probability of musculoskeletal injury is greater because of the high muscle contraction velocities and forces associated with this type of training. Therefore, this type of training should be reserved for clients in the higher cardiorespiratory fitness classifications and should be limited to a frequency of approximately two times per week.
  39. Compared to performing exercise at sea level, an individual training at the same intensity at 5000 feet
    (approx. 1500 meters) will experience a _______________.
    A. Higher VO2max
    B. Higher lactic acid threshold
    C. Higher exercise heart rate
    D. Decrease in respiratory rate

    This response is correct. The physiological effects of altitude usually are seen at elevations above 4,900 feet (1,500 meters). These effects are brought on by the fact that there is less oxygen in the air at higher altitudes, resulting in a faster heart beat at any given submaximal intensity.
  40. When scheduling your client for reassessment, you should inform your client to_______________.
    A. Practice the assessment once before the actual reassessment
    B. Refrain from taking any medication
    C. Avoid the use of stimulants before the assessment
    D. Refrain from eating for at least 8 hours before the assessment

    This is an appropriate recommendation for a personal trainer to give to a client. Stimulants such as caffeine affect exercise heart rate and may skew the results of fitness testing. Therefore, the fitness testing data is more reliable if the client avoids stimulants prior to the assessment. However, if a client is taking a stimulant under the direction of a physician, the personal trainer must refrain from advising the client to stop taking it before the assessment.
  41. What type of body language BEST conveys empathy, warmth, and genuineness to a potential client?
    A. Forward lean and crossed arms
    B. Open position with arms and legs uncrossed
    C. Backward lean and squared shoulders
    D. Crossed arms and uncrossed legs

    This response best conveys empathy, warmth, and genuineness. The best posture for communicating interest is one in which the personal trainer is facing the client squarely at eye level and leaning toward the client in a relaxed manner maintaining an open position with arms and legs uncrossed. This posture says "I am interested in you and am ready to listen."
  42. Which of the following is MOST critical to the development of the client/trainer relationship?
    A. A comprehensive contract
    B. A flexible and accommodating schedule
    C. A development of trust
    D. A persistent expression of optimism

    This response is correct. In order to develop a strong personal trainer/client relationship, a good rapport must be established. To establish rapport the personal trainer must exhibit empathy, warmth, and genuineness toward the client. Rapport means a relationship of mutual trust, harmony, or emotional affinity and it begins at first contact.
  43. Which of the following produces a stretch reflex when stimulated?
    A. Muscle spindles
    B. Sarcomeres
    C. Golgi tendon organ
    D. Motor end plates

    This response is correct. The stretch reflex is the phenomenon associated with the activation of the muscle spindle. The muscle spindle responds to a quick stretch of its associated muscle fibers by creating a sudden, reflexive, protective muscular contraction. This protective muscular contraction is called the stretch reflex.
  44. Exercise has been shown to be an effective stress-management technique because it _______________.
    A. Causes the release of catecholamines
    B. Provides a positive distraction
    C. Suppresses T-cell function
    D. Lowers resting heart rate

    This response is correct because, mentally, exercise provides an outlet for negative emotions such as frustration, anger, and irritability, thereby promoting a more positive mood and outlook. Exercise also allows individuals to focus on something other than the stressors in their lives. When people are exercising, they are focusing on performance and breath, both of which are positive distracters from life's daily stressors.
  45. Which of the following statements provides the MOST specific feedback?
    A. “Try again. You need to work on your body positioning.”
    B. “Good job Brigitte. You have improved a lot since we first began last week.”
    C. “Great. Your torso is much more stable with your spine in the neutral position.”
    D. “Good biceps curls. You’re looking strong.”

    This response provides the most specific feedback. It addresses the client's great performance and provides a reason why the performance has improved over previous attempts. Now this client has a better idea of how to perform the exercise with proper technique on future attempts.
  46. Which of the following BEST describes a motor unit?
    A. A neuron that provides information regarding length and tension of muscle fibers
    B. The interface between the end of a myelinated motor neuron and a muscle fiber
    C. A motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers that it innervates
    D. A nerve cell that conducts impulses from the central nervous system to a group of muscle fibers

    This response is correct. A motor unit is a motor nerve and all the muscle fibers it innervates.
  47. Weight loss during an exercise session is primarily the result of _______________.
    A. Lactic acid accumulation
    B. Fat metabolism
    C. Dehydration
    D. Glycogen depletion

    This response is correct. Any body weight lost during an exercise session is the result of respiration, sweat, and urine production. In other words, a loss in body weight during exercise is due to water loss.
  48. Which of the following environmental factors has the GREATEST impact on exercise safety?
    A. Time of day
    B. Humidity/heat
    C. Wind speed
    D. Visibility factors

    This response poses the greatest impact on environmental exercise safety. Due to the fact that muscle fatigue accelerates while exercising in hot, humid environments, reducing exercise intensity is indicated when relative humidity approaches 80% and air temperature is greater than skin temperature (which is approximately 89.6 degrees Fahrenheit when the air is still). The main concerns of exercising in the heat and humidity are replenishment of water and allowing the maximum amount of sweat to evaporate. If these two needs are not met, the internal body temperature may rise to dangerous levels and heat exhaustion or heat stroke may occur.
  49. Which of the following statements is MOST appropriate for a client who is at risk of relapsing?
    A. You really need to work out four times a week while on vacation.
    B. You must find time during your vacation for exercise.
    C. If you discontinue your exercise, think of all the health benefits you will lose.
    D. In case you don’t find a gym to work out, exercise by doing your sightseeing on foot.

    This is the most appropriate response for a client on the verge of a relapse. When individuals vacation, their day-to-day behaviors are likely to change because their daily routines will likely be altered. It is important for a personal trainer to understand this and provide alternatives for exercise while on vacation. For example, working out in a gym may not be possible while on vacation so the personal trainer should advise the client on activities such as walking and hiking that will likely be more convenient. Additionally, since the client will have a vacation mind-set, instructing him/her to "work out" may, make it seem too much like work. Allowing the client to increase physical activity through other means may help with adherence and prevent a relapse.
  50. The BEST method of maintaining client motivation is to _______________.
    A. Administer monthly fitness evaluations
    B. Establish realistic expectations and monitor progress
    C. Compare the client's progress to established norms
    D. Record weekly body-weight measurements

    This response is the best method for maintaining client motivation. Expectations formalized as written goals increase the client's personal responsibility and commitment to the exercise program. The goals should be somewhat challenging, yet realistically achievable to promote success. Exercise goals should be written in a manner that allows them to be objectively measured, thereby eliminating any questions regarding goal attainment.
  51. Distributing photocopies of articles found in popular fitness magazines without prior consent from the
    publisher is a violation of ______________ law.
    A. Publication
    B. Copyright
    C. Trademark
    D. Contract

    This response is correct. Copyright law is an intellectual property law requiring that for copyrighted material to be reproduced, the user must obtain express written consent from the copyright holder for distribution and/or adaptation. A copyright gives the owner the exclusive right to reproduce, distribute, perform, display, or license his or her work.
  52. What type of insurance would protect a facility in the event it was sued by a member who lost his balance
    on a stair-stepping machine and strained his lower back?
    A. General liability
    B. Professional liability
    C. Personal injury
    D. Medical insurance

    This response is correct. General liability insurance guarantees financial protection to an owner who might be required to pay damages resulting from negligent conduct that causes personal injury, death, or property damage. One study reported that slips and falls accounted for 31% of total claims filed against fitness facilities and 48% of the claims cost. To implement loss control measures, it is advised that fitness facilities give all members instruction on proper usage of cardiovascular equipment.
  53. The husband of a client training under your supervision calls to request progress information so that he
    can evaluate the cost-effectiveness of the program. Your client has been doing well and states that she
    enjoys working with you. You should ________________.
    A. Discuss the inquiry with your client before responding to her husband
    B. Tell him that she is making very good progress and appears to enjoy the sessions
    C. Politely decline to discuss his wife's progress and suggest he communicate directly with her
    D. Ask your client for permission before you provide her husband progress information

    This response is correct. Every client has the right to expect all personal data and discussion with an ACE-certified professional will be safeguarded and not disclosed without the client's express written consent or acknowledgment. Any breach of confidentiality potentially harms the productivity and trust of the client. This puts the personal trainer at risk for potential litigation and puts the client at risk of public embarrassment and fraudulent activity such as identity theft.
  54. Which of the following BEST describes an informed consent form?
    A. It releases the personal trainer from liability for injuries sustained during an exercise program
    B. It acknowledges the risks involved in the activity in which one is about to engage
    C. It is an understanding that the personal trainer's actions must be appropriate for the age and condition
    of the client
    D. It replaces a physician's release form to absolve the personal trainer of liability for injury

    This response is correct. An informed consent form is primarily intended to communicate the dangers of the exercise program or testing procedures to the client. When a client signs an informed consent form, he/she is acknowledging to have been specifically informed about the risk associated with the activity in which he/she is about to engage.
  55. Which of the following represents the MOST responsible risk-management protocol?
    A. Waiver of liability, medical screening, liability insurance, program guidelines, re-evaluation
    B. Progression of activities, fitness testing, informed consent, identification of risks, waiver of liability
    C. Identification of risks, evaluation of risks, selection of approach for managing each risk,
    implementation, evaluation
    D. Medical screening, identification of risks, liability insurance, fitness testing, waiver of liability

    This response is correct. Most authorities recommend a five-step risk management protocol: (1) identification of risks, (2) evaluation of each risk, (3) selection of an approach for managing each risk, (4) implementation, and (5) evaluation. These steps allow the facility manager to reduce costly injuries by periodically reviewing programs, facilities, and equipment to evaluate potential dangers to clients.
  56. A participant at the fitness facility suddenly goes into seizure. The FIRST course of action is to
    A. Position the individual so that she does not cause any injury to herself
    B. Contact emergency medical services
    C. Hold the victim’s arms and legs down to control spastic movements
    D. Place a pad in the victim’s teeth to prevent tongue biting

    This response is correct. The first task in aiding an individual experiencing a seizure is to protect the victim from injury that might result from flailing head and extremities. The simplest method is to put something soft under the victim's head and move all objects out of the way.
  57. If a personal trainer arrived at a client's home for a fitness session and found the bench press machine to
    have a worn cable, the personal trainer should _______________.
    A. Lighten the weight load and continue with the planned workout
    B. Refrain from using the equipment and instruct the client to obtain a replacement part from the
    C. Test the cable to determine if the client can still safely use the bench press
    D. Offer to install a new cable if a new cable is available

    This is the most appropriate response because it prevents the client from using a hazardous piece of equipment. Additionally, having the client contact the manufacturer to repair the equipment is always the safest action. Equipment should be repaired and maintained by trained repair technicians or the manufacturer of the equipment. In other words, if the personal trainer and/or the client tried to repair the faulty machine, liability rests solely on the individual who made the inadequate repair.
  58. To properly secure client information, which of the following is MOST appropriate?
    A. Provide access only to the fitness staff
    B. Provide access to the client’s physician
    C. Maintain separate files of all clients
    D. Disclose information only to the client’s immediate family members

    This is the most appropriate response. Maintaining separate files for all clients allows the personal trainer to access client files individually and decrease the risk of a client or other individual seeing the personal information of other clients.
  59. After working with your new client for several sessions, you learn than she has been diagnosed with
    bulimia nervosa. Which of the following professionals should she be referred to?
    A. Registered dietitian
    B. Eating disorders specialist
    C. Physician
    D. Psychiatrist

    This response is correct. Eating disorders are considered psychological disorders. Therefore, when referring a client with an eating disorder to another health professional (most likely a psychologist), it is important to ensure that he/she has a specialization in eating disorders.
  60. An ACE-certified Professional is qualified to advise on which of the following areas?
    A. Meal planning and caloric restriction recommendations
    B. Exercise adherence strategies
    C. Therapeutic exercises
    D. Supplementation recommendations

    This response is correct. Personal trainers are qualified to give advice on exercise adherence techniques. It is important for a personal trainer to discuss the client's goals, expectations, and preferences. This information can assist the personal trainer in developing sound adherence strategies.