AP 1 Final

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fisheatflies
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52824
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AP 1 Final
Updated:
2010-12-02 02:09:51
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nervous system CNS PNS muscles
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stuff on the final
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  1. The adult skeleton consists of how many bones?
    206
  2. Which is part of the appendicular skeleton?
    A Coxal bones
    B Parietal bones
    C Radius
    D Clavicle
    Parietal bones
  3. The term sinus, as it relates to bone markings may be
    defined as a:
    Cavity within a bone
  4. Mastoiditis is the inflammation of a sinus within which
    bones?
    Temporal
  5. A fontanel can be best described as an
    Unossified area in the infant’s skull
  6. The skeletal framework in the neck consists of:
    Cervical vertebrae
  7. The number of thoracic vertebrae:
    12
  8. Metacarpal bones form the framework of the:
    Hand
  9. A hunchback appearance of the thoracic region is probably caused by:
    Kyphosis
  10. First 7 pairs of ribs that attach directly to the sternum
    True ribs
  11. 11th and 12th ribs, which have no
    attachment to the sternum:
    Floating ribs
  12. Middle part of the sternum
    Body
  13. Most superior part of the sternum:
    Manubrium
  14. The blunt, cartilaginous lower tip of sternum:
    Xiphoid process
  15. The 5 pairs of ribs that do not attach directly to the
    sternum:
    False ribs
  16. The material that attaches the rib directly or indirectly to the sternum
    Costal cartilage
  17. What type of cartilage do Syndesmotic joints have at
    articular surfaces?
    Fibrous cartilage (not hyaline)
  18. What type of joint between the ribs/sternum allow for
    expansion of chest cavity during breathing?
    Synchondrotic joints
  19. What joint are biaxial joints in which one bone fits into
    the depression on another bone?
    Condyloid (ellipsoidal) joints
  20. As a group, gliding joints are the least movable of the
    synovial joints:
    True
  21. What is the most movable joint in the body?
    Synovial joints
  22. Menisci are:
    Fibrocartilage pads
  23. Moving the body part away from the medial plane of the body is called:
    Abduction
  24. Type of movement that increases the angle between body parts is:
    Extension
  25. Tilting the foot upward, decreasing the angle between the top of the foot and front leg is called:
    Dorsiflexion
  26. Deterioration of the nucleus pulposus results in:
    A “slipped disk”
  27. Thin layer of cartilage covering the articulating surfaces
    of the bones:
    Articular cartilage
  28. Closed pillow-like structures formed from synovial membrane:
    Bursae
  29. Small space between two articulating bones:
    Joint cavity
  30. Secretes a lubricating fluid into the joint capsule:
    Synovial membrane
  31. Pads of fibrocartilage between articulating bones:
    Menisci
  32. Strong cords of dense white connective tissue that help
    stabilize a joint:
    Ligaments
  33. Sleeve-like extension of the periosteum of each of the
    articulating bones in a joint:
    Joint capsule
  34. The covering of the fascicles is called the:
    Perimysium
  35. Muscles that contract against the prime mover are called:
    Antagonists
  36. Muscles may be named according to: (3)
    • Function
    • Direction of fibers
    • Points of attachment
  37. When an athlete injures the Achilles Tendon, the injury ison the:
    Posterior lower leg
  38. A fixator muscle can be seen as another type of antagonist muscle (T/F):
    False
  39. The sternocleidomastoid muscle is an example of a muscle named by the number of heads (T/F):
    False (origin)
  40. Skeletal muscle constitutes aprox. ??? of our body weight?
    50%
  41. An aponeurosis could be described as a:
    Flat sheet of connective tissue connecting muscle to other structures.
  42. A muscle that assists with eye lid closure is the:
    Orbicularis occuli
  43. The respiratory, digestive, circulatory, excretory, and
    endocrine systems all contribute to the ability of muscles to maintain posture (T/F):
    True
  44. Adductor magnus (location)
    Thigh
  45. Pronator teres (location)
    Forearm
  46. Muscle that draws the eyebrows together, producing vertical wrinkles (frowning):
    Corrugator supercilii
  47. Muscle that causes sideways movement during mastication:
    Pterygoid
  48. Muscle that creates smile expression:
    Buccinator
  49. Muscle that raises the eyebrows (surprise):
    Epicranius
  50. Muscle that flexes the head (prayer muscle)
    Sternocleidomastoid
  51. Muscle that closes the eyes
    Orbicularis occuli
  52. A triad consists of a T-tubule sandwiched between sacs of the sarcoplasmic reticulum (T/F):
    True
  53. The chief function of the T-tubules is to:
    Allow for electrical signals to move deeper into the cell
  54. When the sarcomere contracts, the I-bands become smaller (T/F):
    True
  55. Actin, troponin, and tropomyosin are present on the thick myofilament (T/F):
    False
  56. The difference between red and white fibers is the amount of glycogen (T/F):
    False
  57. Bundles of fine fibers that extend lengthwise along muscle fibers are called:
    Myofibrils
  58. Thick myofilaments extend the length of the:
    A-Bands
  59. The neurotransmitter secreted at the motor end plates of skeletal muscles are:
    Acetylcholine
  60. The first event to occur in muscle relaxation is:
    The sarcoplasmic reticulum begins actively pumping calcium back into sacs
  61. What is not a true characteristic of an isometric
    contraction?
    Movement is produced
  62. Protein that has active sites for cross-bridge heads:
    Actin
  63. By energizing these structures, chemical energy is converted to mechanical energy:
    Cross-bridges
  64. The stimulus to contract the muscle is carried inside the
    muscle by this structure:
    T tubules
  65. Protein that directly prevents the formation of
    cross-bridges in the sarcomere:
    Tropomyosin
  66. Chemical released by the motor neuron that initiates the stimulus for a muscle contraction
    Acetylcholine
  67. Muscle contraction compound that supplies the energy:
    ATP
  68. Ion that is released by the sarcoplasmic reticulum:
    Calcium
  69. Protein that has cross-bridge heads that pull on thin fiber:
    Myosin
  70. Protein that has receptor sites for an ion that causes it to change shape and pull another protein away from the receptor sites on the actin:
    Troponin
  71. The afferent nervous system consists of all outgoing motor pathways (T/F):
    False (efferent NS)
  72. Ependymal cells engulf and destroy microbes and cellular debris in inflamed or degenerating brain tissue (T/F):
    False (Microglia)
  73. The part of the nervous system that transmits impulses from the CNS to the skeletal muscle is the:
    Somatic nervous system
  74. The myelin sheath is formed by the:
    Schwann cells
  75. Grey matter in the brain and spinal cord consists primarily of:
    Cell bodies
  76. During a relative refractory period the action potential
    can/can’t be initated by a stron stimulus:
    Can’t
  77. A synaptic knob would be located on an:
    Axon
  78. When an impulse reaches a synapse, ??? are released
    Chemical transmitters
  79. PNS subdivision that transmits incoming information from the sensory organs to CNS:
    Afferent division
  80. Consists of the brain and spinal cord:
    CNS
  81. Consists of nerves that lie in the periphery of the nervous system:
    PNS
  82. Produces the “fight or flight” response:
    Sympathetic division
  83. Subdivision that carries information from the CNS to
    skeletal muscle:
    Somatic nervous system
  84. Subdivision of the efferent division that transmits
    information to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands:
    Autonomic nervous system
  85. Consists of all outgoing motor pathways:
    Efferent division
  86. Sometimes called the “rest-and-repair” division:
    Parasympathetic nervous system
  87. Cerebrospinal fluid circulates in the subarachnoid space of the meninges (T/F):
    True
  88. Peripheral motor neuron cell bodies are located in the
    dorsal root ganglia of the spinal nerves (T/F):
    False
  89. The four large, fluid-filled spaces within the brain are
    called ventricles (T/F):
    True
  90. The layer of meninges that serves as the inner periosteum of the cranial bone is the:
    Dura mater
  91. The innermost layer of the meninges is the:
    Pia mater
  92. Cerebrospinal fluid is found in all of the following except the:
    Subdural space
  93. If the ventral nerve root of a spinal nerve were destroyed, a person would lose:
    Willed movement related to that pathway
  94. The brainstem does not include the:
    Cerebellum
  95. The cerebellum does not:
    Control cardiac function
  96. Responsible for one’s ability to experience emotions:
    Limbic system
  97. Cerebellum performs which funtions:
    • Coordinates control of muscle action
    • Helps control posture
    • Controls skeletal muscles to maintain balance
  98. Cranial nerve #1 responsible for:
    Olfactory (smells)
  99. Cranial nerve #2 responsible for:
    Optic
  100. Cranial nerve #3,4,6 responsible for:
    Eye movement
  101. Cranial nerve #5 responsible for:
    Trigeminal (sense face, sinuses, teeth), & masticator nerve
  102. Cranial nerve #7 responsible for:
    Facial muscles, & glossopalatine (soft palate, sub-ling)
  103. Cranial nerve #8 responsible for:
    Hearing
  104. Cranial nerve #9 responsible for:
    Glossopharyngeal (gag reflex)
  105. Cranial nerve #10 responsible for:
    Vagus
  106. Cranial nerve #11 responsible for:
    Accessory (sternomastoid, trapezius)
  107. Cranial nerve #12 responsible for:
    Hypoglossal (tongue muscles)

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