Genetics

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caseypearcy
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Genetics
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2010-12-07 06:09:07
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Genetics Lab Final
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  1. Which of the following has the correct order for gene expression?
    A. DNA-transcription-translation
    B. DNA-translation-transcription
    C. translation-transcription-DNA
    D. transcription-translation-DNA
    A. DNA-transcription-translation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. Model organisms generally:
    A. are useful because we share a common ancestor
    B. have longer life cycles
    C. have fewer offspring
    D. are not useful because our cell structure is so dissimilar
    e. all of the above
    A. are useful because we share a common ancestor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. Which of the following is FALSE when describing the source of genetic variation?
    A. natural selection, as described by Darwin, results in changing allele frequencies based on the allele proportion in a population, rather than their selective advantage
    B. mutations are heritable changes that can occur spontaneously or be induced
    C. the many differences observed in organisms are the result of differences in their genes
    D. they are all true
    E. recombination often results in different genetic combinations
    A. natural selection, as described by Darwin, results in changing allele frequencies based on the allele proportion in a population, rather than their selective advantage
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. Which of the following parent breeders will ONLY produce heterozygous offspring when crossed:
    A. homozygous dominant x heterozygous
    B. heterozygous x heterozygous
    C. heterozygous x homozygous recessive
    D. homozygous dominant x homozygous recessive
    D. homozygous dominant x homozygous recessive
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. Some cells may enter G0. Cells in G0
    A. are becoming cancerous
    B. are quiescent and non-dividing
    C. are duplicating DNA I preparation for S phase
    D. are growing up where they can enter G2
    B. are quiescent and non-dividing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. Which of the following is correct reguarding a chromosomes "p" and "q" arm?
    A. if an arm is shorter, it will be the p arm
    B. the p arm is always shorter
    C. p stands for prolonged and q stands for quaint
    D. they always meet in the physical center of the chromosome
    e. two of the above
    A. if an arm is shorter, it will be the p arm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. When Mendel crossed a strain of tall pea plants with a strain of short pea plants, he observed that all of the plants in the F1 generation were tall. This suggests that
    A. the short trait was controlled by a dominant factor
    B. the strain of short plants was not capable of pollinating the strain of tall plants
    C. both traits were controlled by a recessive factor
    D. the tall trait was controlled by a dominant factor
    D. the tall trait was controlled by a dominant factor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. During anaphase of mitosis:
    A. the homologous chromosomes separate from each other
    B. the centromeres replicate
    C. b & d
    D. a & d
    E. the sister chromatids separate from each other
    F. the chromosome replicates
    E. the sister chromatids separate from each other
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. A genetic cross performed many times produces 798 long-stemmed plants and 266 short-stemmed plants. the probability of obtaining a short-stemmed plant in the cross is:
    A. 266:798
    B. 798:266
    C. 266:1,064
    D. 798:1,064
    C. 266:1,064
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. To determine the genotype of an individual that shows a dominant phenotype, you would cross that individual with:
    A. homozygous recessive
    B. heterozygous recessive
    C. heterozygous dominant
    D. homozygous dominant
    A. homozygous recessive
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. The protienaceous complex that forms between chromosomes during prophase is called
    A. the synaptonemal complex
    B. collagen
    C. the chiasma
    D. the kinetochore
    D. the kinetochore
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. The australian ant Myrmecia pilosula, called the "bulldog ant" because of it's viciousness, is actually several species of ants, one of which is diploid and has 24 chromosomes. How many chromatids are in a cell in prophase of mitosis?
    A. 24
    B.60
    C.36
    D.48
    E.12
    D.48
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. Given an individual who is heterozygous at 5 loci on 5 different chromosomes, how many different gametic genotypes are possible?
    A. 16
    B. 32
    C. 25
    D. 10
    B. 32
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. When studying an inherited phenomenon, a geneticist discovers a phenotypic ratio 9:3:3:1 among off-spring of a given mating. A possible explanation for this is a two-locus system that exhibits:
    A. epistasis
    B. independent assortment
    C. pleiotropy
    D. linkage
    B. independent assortment
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. If 83 individuals are homozygous for the recessive trait, eyeless, and 67 of those individuals are eyeless, then this is an example of
    A. pleiotropy
    B. expressivity
    C. incomplete penetrance
    D. incomplete dominance
    C. incomplete penetrance
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. List the three compounds of a nucleotide
    • 1. Sugar
    • 2. Nitrogen
    • 3. Phosphate
  17. In mammals, the locus on the Y chromosome that is necessary for a zygote to become male is

    a. the sex-determining region Y

    b. the ovary suppression factor

    c. the histocompatibility Y-antigen

    d. the ZFY gene

    e. none of the above
    a. the sex-determining region Y
  18. the statistical test that is used to compare an observed distribution to an expected distribution is

    a. a t-test

    b. analysis of variance

    c. means

    d. chi-square test

    e. two of these
    d. chi-square test
  19. Assume that a prophase I somatic cell nucleus in Geospiza fortis (a medium ground finch) female contains 18 picograms of DNA. How much DNA would be expected in a G1 interphase cell of a female? How much DNA is in each gamete after telophase II is complete?

    a. 9 picograms/9 picograms

    b. 9 picograms/18 picograms

    c. 18 picograms/9 picograms

    d. 18 picograms/ 18 picograms

    e. 9 picograms/4.5 picograms

    f. not enough information to answer
    e. 9 picograms/4.5 picograms
  20. Typical ratios resulting from epistatic interactions in dihybrid crosses would be _________.
    a. 9:3:3:1, 1:2:1

    b. 1:1:1:1, 2:4:6:4:2

    c. 9:3:4, 9:7

    d. 1:2:2:4:1:2:1:2:1

    e. 3:1, 1:1

    f. two of these
    c. 9:3:4, 9:7
  21. The chromosome theory of inheritance states that:
    a. genes are located on chromosomes

    b. chromosomes replicate before cell division

    c. different chromosomes assort independently

    d. chromosomes consist of DNA

    e. alleles of a gene segregate during cell division
    a. genes are located on chromosomes
  22. List the stages of the scientific method in order:
    • 1. observe
    • 2. hypothesize
    • 3. experiment
    • 4. conclude
  23. A heterozygous fly with a wildtype phenotype is testcrossed and the following progeny are produced: groucho- 518; rough- 471; groucho-rough- 6; wildtype- 5. Which flies are non recombinants? (actual mutations)
    a. groucho

    b. wildtype

    c. rough

    d. groucho, rough

    e. c & d

    f. a & b

    e. a & c
    e) A & C
  24. In a transformation experiment in which the a+b+ strain is the donor to the ab strain, the following transformant were recovered: a+b= 50, ab+= 50, a+b+= 100. What is the frequency that b is cotransformed with a>
    a. 33%

    b. 50%

    c. 25%

    d. 66%

    e. too far apart to calculate
    d. 66%
  25. The bacteria of Avery et al. (1944) were transformed by a substance that was inactivated by:
    a. 32P

    b. 35S

    c. polymerase

    d. RNase

    e. DNase
    e. DNase
  26. Based on the Watson-Crick double-helix model:
    A. two of these
    B. if you know the content of one nitrogenoous base (e.g, A) then you know the content of the other three (e.g, T, G, and C)
    C. A-T nitrogen base bonds are formed from 3 hydrogen bonds
    D. for every A there must be a G
    E. nitrogenous bases of antiparallel are paired by covalent bonds
    B. if you know the content of one nitrogenoous base (e.g, A) then you know the content of the other three (e.g, T, G, and C)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. E. coli are cultured in 15N-containing media for many generations and transferred to 14N-contained media. After exactly 2 rounds of replication in the second media, the DNA is extracted without any breakage and density gradient centrifugation is performed.

    If DNA replicated in a conservative manner, you would expect to see _____ after 3 generations.
    a. all light bands

    b. one heavy/light band and one light band

    c. one heavy band and one light band

    d. one heavy band and one heavy/light band

    e. one heavy/light band
    c. one heavy band and one light band
  28. E. coli are cultured in 15N-containing media for many generations and transferred to 14N-contained media. After exactly 2 rounds of replication in the
    second media, the DNA is extracted without any breakage and density gradient centrifugation is performed.

    if DNA replicated in a semi-conservative manner, you would expect to see _____ after 3 generations.

    a. all light bands

    b. one heavy/light band and one light band

    c. one heavy band and one light band

    d. one heavy band and one heavy/light band

    e. one heavy/light band
    b. one heavy/light band and one light band
  29. E. coli are cultured in 15N-containing media for many generations and transferred to 14N-contained media. After exactly 2 rounds of replication in the second media, the DNA is extracted without any breakage and density gradient centrifugation is performed.

    After 3 generations, what did Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl find experimentally in 1958?

    a. all light bands

    b. one heavy/light band and one light band

    c. one heavy band and one light band

    d. one heavy band and one heavy/light band

    e. one heavy/light band
    b. one heavy/light band and one light band
  30. Molecule %A %G %T %C %U
    A 33 17 33 17 0
    B 33 33 17 17 0
    C 26 24 0 24 26
    D 21 40 21 18 0
    E 15 40 10 20 15

    Which of the molecules is RNA?
    C
  31. Molecule %A %G %T %C %U
    A 33 17 33 17 0
    B 33 33 17 17 0
    C 26 24 0 24 26
    D 21 40 21 18 0
    E 15 40 10 20 15

    Which of the molecule(s) is double stranded DNA?
    A
  32. Molecule %A %G %T %C %U
    A 33 17 33 17 0
    B 33 33 17 17 0
    C 26 24 0 24 26
    D 21 40 21 18 0
    E 15 40 10 20 15
    Which of the molecules cannot exist?
    E
  33. 3 different rII deletions (labeled #1-3) of phage T4 were tested for recombination by co-infecting E. coli. The following results occurred:
    # 1 2 3 A
    1 X O X
    2 O X X X
    3 X X X
    A X
    X- no growth O= growth

    Of mutants 1,2,3 list all that have overlapping mutations:
    • 1. 1 & 3
    • 2. 1 & 2
    • 3. 2 & 3
  34. 3 different rII deletions (labeled #1-3) of phage T4 were tested for recombination by co-infecting E. coli. The following results occurred:
    # 1 2 3 A
    1 X O X
    2 O X X X
    3 X X X
    A X
    X- no growth O= growth

    Based on the graph, would mutant A grow or not grow with mutant #1?
    Grow
  35. How is the function of histones related to the amino acid compositions?
    A. they are highly hydrophobic so they have a tendency to interact with DNA
    B. they are positively charged so they interact with negatively charged DNA
    C. they are negatively charged so they interact with positively charged DNA
    D. they are highly hydrophilic so they have a tendency to interact with DNA
    e. two of the above
    B. they are positively charged so they interact with negatively charged DNA
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. Bacterial cells are always haploid unless
    A. they are infected with a transforming phage that has been incubated with bacteria from the same strand
    B. the F factor is removed from the chromosome, taking chromosomal genes with it, and the cell then transfers its F plasmid to another cell
    C. they are simultaneously infected by the two Hfr strains
    d. None of the above. they are always haploid
    B. the F factor is removed from the chromosome, taking chromosomal genes with it, and the cell then transfers its F plasmid to another cell
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. Structures located at the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes are called:
    a. centromere

    b. telomerases

    c. recessive mutations

    d. telomeres

    e. permissive mutations
    d. telomeres
  38. RNA differs from DNA in all of the following ways except
    a. the 5'-3' orientation of the polynucleotide strand

    b. DNA is double stranded, while RNA is single stranded

    c. the sugar in DNA nucleotides is deoxyribose, the sugar in RNA nucleotides are ribose

    d. DNA has the pyrimidine base pair thymine, and RNA has the pyrimidine base pair uracil
    a. the 5'-3' orientation of the polynucleotide strand
  39. If two DNA strands of identical length were analyzed, which of the following statements would be true of their Tm or melting temperature, or temperature required to denature ("unzip") the strands>
    a. DNA with a high GC content must have a lower Tm

    b. all DNA strands of equal length have equal melting temperatures

    c. DNA with a low AT content would melt more slowly

    d. DNA with low GC content would have a lower Tm
    d. DNA with low GC content would have a lower Tm
  40. Viral chromosomes exist in a variety of structures and can be made up of the following:
    a. protein or lipid coding sequences

    b. DNA only

    c. DNA or RNA

    d. RNA only

    e. DNA, RNA, or protein
    c.
  41. Xeroderma pigmentosum is a disease that inactivates:
    a. the X-ray repair system

    b. the UV repair system

    c. the DNA replication system

    d. two of these choices

    e. All of the above
    b.
  42. An operon is a group of structural polycistronic genes that:
    a. encode separate parts of a single protein

    b. only function in the presence of the F factor

    c. function only in the presence of DNA damage

    d. are under the control of a single promoter

    e. None of the above
    d.
  43. The insulin molecule is composed of two polypeptide chains, one consisting of 20 amino acids and the other consisting of 31. what is the minimum number of base pairs of DNA required to code for this molecule?
    a. 20

    b. 40

    c. 60

    d. 100

    e. 153
    e.
  44. The DNA code for glutamic acid is CTC or CTT. The code for valine is CAA or CAT. In sickle cell hemoglobin, valine is present instead of glutamic acid. Assuming a single base pair substitution has occurred, what is the mRNA code in the affected mutant?
    a. CUU

    b. GAA

    c. GAG

    d. GUA

    e. GUU
    d.
  45. A synthetic mRNA molecule is made by using only two types of nucleotide, containing adenine and cytosine. How many different codons would it contain?
    a. 2

    b. 4

    c. 6

    d. 8

    e. 12
    d.
  46. When RNA is being made, the RNA base ________ always pairs with the base ________ in DNA.

    a. U...T

    b. T...G

    c. U...A

    d. A...U

    e. T...A
    c.
  47. Bacteria and mammalian cells distinguish the template strand from the nascent strand during mismatch repair by:
    a. 5'-3' polarity

    b. 3'-5' polarity

    c. methylation of the newly synthesized strand

    d. methylation of the template strand

    e. two of the above
    d.
  48. In the absence of external mutagens(no chemicals, no radiation), what is the most common type of DNA damage?
    a. depurination

    b. free radical formation

    c. UV light

    d. tatomeric shifts

    e. secret government mutator ray gun
    a.
  49. Two patients have mutated phenylalanine pathway. The first patient has a defective phenylalanine hydroxylase enzyme resulting in phenylketonuria (PKU). The second patient has a defective homogentisate oxidase enzyme resulting in alcaptonuria. For both patients, identify the "major class of mutation" and the type of inheritance pattern you would expect for these two defective enzymes.

    a. gain of function mutation, dominant inheritance

    b. loss of function mutation, dominant inheritance

    c. gain of function mutation, recessive inheritance

    d. loss of function mutation, recessive inheritance

    e. hydrogen bonds
    d.
  50. The role of an enhancer in eukaryotic gene regulation is to:
    a. increase the replication of a specific gene

    b. increase the transcription of a specific gene

    c. increase the half-life of a specific polypeptide

    d. increase the half-life of a specific mRNA

    e. increase the translation of a specific mRNA
    b.
  51. In splicing the primary transcript to for the functional RNA, which of the following components are used directly in the spliceosome?
    a. sigma factor

    b. TGII-D

    c. snRNPs

    d. 16S rRNA

    e. TFIII-A
    c.
  52. A branched biochemical pathway in bacterium synthesized two related essential amino acids D and F. A mutant defective for enzyme 2 grows on minimal media plus:
    a. A alone

    b. B alone

    c. C alone

    d. E alone

    e. none of the above, both A and B are required
    c.
  53. What genetic phenomenon explains the following paradox: There are 64 possible codons, but only 30-40 tRNA types.
    a. non-redundancy

    b. commaless code

    c. wobble

    d. petidyl transferase

    e. translocation
    c.
  54. During translation of the protein, how will the initiation codon be recognized?
    A. small nuclear RNAs will recognize a consensus sequence at the start codon
    B. the first three nucleotides at the 5' end will be used as a start codon
    C. the mRNA will have only one codon that can be recognized by a methionine tRNA
    D. the 16S rRNA with form basepairs with a sequence near the start codon
    E. the small ribosomal sub-unit will scan from the 5' end to the first start codon
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. Eukaryotic mRNA undergoes extensive modification before it is released form the nucleus and translated. List the three main ways mRNA is post-transcriptionally modified.
    • 1. 5' cap
    • 2. 3' poly (A) tail
    • 3. introns/exons
  56. Process of unregulated cell division; loss of controlled growth
    -transformation
  57. Loss of ________ is when the cells stop growing (effects movement and replication) when touched
    -contact inhibition
  58. Cancer is a ________ disease
    -genetic
  59. All tissue is produced by
    -call proliferation
  60. The accumulated population of cells that changes their gene expression to gene specific to their tissue type
    -differentiation
  61. Cancer that is surgically removed
    -benign
  62. Cancer that can invade other tissue
    -malignant
  63. As most cells differentiate, they lose the ability to proliferate- hang out in G0 and have a finite lifespan
    -terminal differentiation
  64. Cancer cells can divide without _________- never express the genes which turn them "quiescent"
    -differentiating
  65. List the 3 checkpoints that control the cell cycle
    • -G1-S
    • -G2-M
    • -M
  66. -Checkpoint that makes the decision about whether the cell should divide and enter S
    -Some cells never pass this point and are said to be in G0
    -G1-S
  67. Checkpoint that leads to mitosis
    -G2-M
  68. Checkpoint that occurs during metaphase and triggers the exit process of the M phase and entry to the G1 phase
    -M
  69. -Viral cells
    -Stimulate cell proliferation-hit accelerator
    -Proto-oncogenes
  70. Cells that can inhibit cell growth- brakes off
    Tumor-suppressor genes
  71. Growth factor- modify protein- can activate signal pathway even if there is no signal
    -protein kinases
  72. -Can fuse cancer cells with normal cells and cancer stops- normal cell suppresses growth
    -tumor-suppressor genes
  73. List 3 examples of tumor suppressor genes
    • -p53
    • -BRCA-1
    • -BRCA-2
  74. -Replicative senescence
    -Normal cells off, cancer on
    -Strategy in cancer treatment; inhibit it's activity
    -Telomeres
  75. Cancer does not happen all at once, it take ___ steps; decades over lifetime
    -6-7
  76. Four methods of developing cancer
    • - 6-7 steps
    • -proto-oncogenes to oncogenes
    • -tumor-suppressor knocked out (breaks)
    • -breakdown of the mechanisms regulating proliferation and differentiation
  77. Type of extracellular inheritance in which DNA contained in the mitochondria of chloroplasts determines certain phenotypic characteristics of an organisms off-spring
    -organelle heredity
  78. Type of extracellular inheritance resulting from the symbiotic or parasitic association of a microorganism
    -infectious heredity
  79. Type of extracellular inheritance on the phenotype, whereby nuclear gene products are stored in the the egg and then transmitted to offspring from the female parent in the cytoplasm of the ovule
    -maternal effect
  80. -affects chloroplast
    -mitochondrial mutations
    -mitochondrial-based disorders in humans
    -organelle heredity
  81. -Coexist in symbiotic relationship and passed in maternal cytoplasm
    -Cytoplasmically transmitted phenotypes due to an invading organism
    -infectious heredity
  82. -Implies that an offspring's phenotype is under the control of nuclear gene products present in the egg
    -Proteins and/or mRNA deposited in oocyte before fertilization
    -maternal effect
  83. For maternal effect genes, the phenotype of the ___________ and not that of the embryo determines the phenotype of the off-spring
    -female parent
  84. -The study of inherited changes in phenotype(appearance) or gene expression caused by mechanisms other than changes in the underlying DNA sequence
    -epigenetics
  85. -The overall epigenetic state of a cell
    -epigenome
  86. Modification of certain genes, but not the basic structure of DNA
    -epigenome
  87. Chromosomes are pulled apart and segregated and different cells receive different information
    -law of segregation
  88. During prophase of mitosis crossing-over occurs; is necessary for diversity
    -law of independent assortment
  89. Causes over-expression of gene
    -dominant
    -gain of function
  90. -Recessive because gene is broken, function broken
    -loss of function

  91. This is a generic diagram of __________.
    Which nucleotides are this type?
    • -purine
    • -A and G

  92. This is a generic diagram of _________.
    Which nucleotides are this type?
    • -pyrimidine
    • -T and C
  93. If mutated, which enzyme would cause Okazaki fragments to accumulate?
    -lygase
  94. If mutated, which enzyme would cause no initiation of DNA synthesis because polymerase III can't get started?
    -primase
  95. If mutated, which enzyme would cause RNA to remain in DNA?
    -polymerase I
  96. If mutated, which enzyme would cause DNA to reanneal quickly after being "unzippered"?
    -single stranded binding proteins
  97. If mutated, which enzyme would cause no replication forks to ever form due to the DNA remaining double stranded?
    -helicase
  98. What specific aspect of replication would be hindered if a cell could not produce dNTPs? Why?
    You would not have any energy to replicate DNA
  99. Since our DNA strands run antiparallel to each other in helix, how can you determine which strand has polarity? To which end does polymerase add to the next nucleotide and why?
    • -In leading strand: going toward the DNA double helix- 3'
    • -In the lagging strand: the end away from helicase is 3'
  100. list 3 differences between organization, expression, or control of expression between prokaryotic and eukaryotic genes.
    • 1. Prok has sigma factor, Euk doesn't
    • 2.Euk has RNA poly. 1, poly. 2, and poly. 3; prok. just has 1 RNA poly
    • 3. prok. rho independed; euk dependent
  101. Describe the function and general nature of promoters. How do they influence transcription?
    -Promoters provide the starting point for RNA poly. Without the promoters, RNA poly. would not know where to start, therefore no mRNA strand would be produced
  102. What is meant by alternative splicing?
    Pre mRNA changes it's exon regions and skips some
  103. Under what conditions might one have an amino acid substitution in a protein that does not result in an altered phenotype?
    -a neutral point mutation
  104. What are GTFs and what do they do?
    General Transcription Factors; binds a ribonucleic acid polymerase to form a complex necessary to begin transcription

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